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  • Serializing Configurations for a Dependency Injection / Inversion of Control

    - by Joshua Starner
    I've been researching Dependency Injection and Inversion of Control practices lately in an effort to improve the architecture of our application framework and I can't seem to find a good answer to this question. It's very likely that I have my terminology confused, mixed up, or that I'm just naive to the concept right now, so any links or clarification would be appreciated. Many examples of DI and IoC containers don't illustrate how the container will connect things together when you have a "library" of possible "plugins", or how to "serialize" a given configuration. (From what I've read about MEF, having multiple declarations of [Export] for the same type will not work if your object only requires 1 [Import]). Maybe that's a different pattern or I'm blinded by my current way of thinking. Here's some code for an example reference: public abstract class Engine { } public class FastEngine : Engine { } public class MediumEngine : Engine { } public class SlowEngine : Engine { } public class Car { public Car(Engine e) { engine = e; } private Engine engine; } This post talks about "Fine-grained context" where 2 instances of the same object need different implementations of the "Engine" class: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2176833/ioc-resolve-vs-constructor-injection Is there a good framework that helps you configure or serialize a configuration to achieve something like this without hard coding it or hand-rolling the code to do this? public class Application { public void Go() { Car c1 = new Car(new FastEngine()); Car c2 = new Car(new SlowEngine()); } } Sample XML: <XML> <Cars> <Car name="c1" engine="FastEngine" /> <Car name="c2" engine="SlowEngine" /> </Cars> </XML>

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  • Compiling a click-once app that requires administrator?

    - by Assimilater
    Hi, a lot of my programs require the ability to write files to the hard drive. When I first made these programs for XP they worked great. Now I'm less ignorant about UAC (got a new laptop recently). And for future customers...I've noticed the potential for a LOT of annoying error messages....and quite frankly if the program can't write data to the hard drive or thumb drive it's on...there's no point to running it.... I've tried multiple times to build in the manifest a requirement for administrator or user access....I'm not sure if anything less would solve the problem...but have failed because click-once has security features in place to prevent me from doing so. I'd rather not have to tell my customers how to make the program run as an administrator by editing the file's properties...I'd much rather have a convenient pop up like what you'd see new programs such as Itunes or Filezilla show if they were in conflict with UAC requesting the privileges they need. I'd really like to do this but have had little success. Any and all advice that can remedy this grievous problem appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Get subdomain of XML page from XSL

    - by fudgey
    I am working with a guild hosting site that provides an XML/XSL transformation widget where all I need to do is enter the URL for the XML and XSL and it does the rest. I have written an XSL transform to display a World of Warcraft armory page: Here is an example XML page (view source to see it) of the group I'm trying to help now. So, the user is entering their own XML page url (which has an eu subdomain in this case, but it is not within the XML itself). So when I make links to the character url, I need to add the entire url <a target="_blank" href="http://eu.wowarmory.com/character-sheet.xml?{@url}"> <xsl:value-of select="@name"/> </a> But I can't just set the domain to eu since there are multiple regions. Here are the possibilities: us = www, europe = eu, korea = kr, china = cn and taiwan = tw. Here is a snippet of the XML which shows the url parameters: <character achPoints="4275" classId="3" genderId="0" level="80" name="Virtex" raceId="4" rank="2" url="r=Drek%27Thar&amp;cn=Virtex"/> I guess I could just have the user add a small bit of HTML with their region in another part of their page, something like <div id="region">eu</div>, but I'm trying to make this work without any extra coding on their part. Edit: Ok, my question explicitly stated: How do I get the URL subdomain using XSL?

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  • Client-server synchronization pattern / algorithm?

    - by tm_lv
    I have a feeling that there must be client-server synchronization patterns out there. But i totally failed to google up one. Situation is quite simple - server is the central node, that multiple clients connect to and manipulate same data. Data can be split in atoms, in case of conflict, whatever is on server, has priority (to avoid getting user into conflict solving). Partial synchronization is preferred due to potentially large amounts of data. Are there any patterns / good practices for such situation, or if you don't know of any - what would be your approach? Below is how i now think to solve it: Parallel to data, a modification journal will be held, having all transactions timestamped. When client connects, it receives all changes since last check, in consolidated form (server goes through lists and removes additions that are followed by deletions, merges updates for each atom, etc.). Et voila, we are up to date. Alternative would be keeping modification date for each record, and instead of performing data deletes, just mark them as deleted. Any thoughts?

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  • Seam @Factory in abstract base class?

    - by Shadowman
    I've got a series of web actions I'm implementing in Seam to perform create, read, update, etc. operations. For my read/update/delete actions, I'd like to have individual action classes that all extend an abstract base class. I'd like to put the @Factory method in the abstract base class to retrieve the item that is to be acted upon. For example, I have this as the base class: public abstract class BaseAction { @In(required=false)@Out(required=false) private MyItem item=null; public MyItem getItem(){...} public void setItem(...){...} @Factory("item") public void initItem(){...} } My subclasses would extend BaseAction, so that I don't have to repeat the logic to load the item that is to be viewed, deleted, updated, etc. However, when I start my application, Seam throws errors saying I have declared multiple @Factory's for the same object. Is there any way around this? Is there any way to provide the @Factory in the base class without encoutnering these errors?

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  • Distinct or group by on some columns but not others

    - by Nazadus
    I have a view that I'm trying to filter with something similar to DISTINCT on some columns but not others. I have a view like this: Name LastName Zip Street1 HouseholdID (may not be unique because it may have multiple addresses -- think of it in the logical sense as grouping persons but not physical locations; If you lookup HouseholdID 4130, you may get two rows.. or more, because the person may have mutiple mailing locations) City State I need to pull all those columns but filter on LastName,Zip, and Street1. Here's the fun part: The filter is arbitrary -- meaning I don't care which one of the duplicates goes away. This is for a mail out type thing and the other information is not used for any other reason than than to look up a specific person if needed (I have no idea why). So.. given one of the records, you can easily figure out the removed ones. As it stands now, my Sql-Fu fails me and I'm filtering in C# which is incredibly slow and is pretty much a foreach that starts with an empty list and adds the row in if the combined last name, zip, and street aren't are not in the list. I feel like I'm missing a simple / basic part of SQL that I should be understanding.

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  • GROUP BY ID range?

    - by d0ugal
    Given a data set like this; +-----+---------------------+--------+ | id | date | result | +-----+---------------------+--------+ | 121 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 122 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 123 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 124 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 125 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 126 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 127 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 128 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 129 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 130 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 131 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 132 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 133 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 134 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 135 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 136 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 137 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 138 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | 1 | | 139 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | 0 | | 140 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | +-----+---------------------+--------+ How would I go about grouping the results by day 5 records at a time. The above results is part of the live data, there is over 100,000 results rows in the table and its growing. Basically I want to measure the change over time, so want to take a SUM of the result every X records. In the real data I'll be doing it ever 100 or 1000 but for the data above perhaps every 5. If i could sort it by date I would do something like this; SELECT DATE_FORMAT(date, '%h%i') ym, COUNT(result) 'Total Games', SUM(result) as 'Score' FROM nn_log GROUP BY ym; I can't figure out a way of doing something similar with numbers. The order is sorted by the date but I hope to split the data up every x results. It's safe to assume there are no blank rows. Doing it above with the data you could do multiple selects like; SELECT SUM(result) FROM table LIMIT 0,5; SELECT SUM(result) FROM table LIMIT 5,5; SELECT SUM(result) FROM table LIMIT 10,5; Thats obviously not a very good way to scale up to a bigger problem. I could just write a loop but I'd like to reduce the number of queries.

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  • How to access a field's value in an object using reflection

    - by kentcdodds
    My Question: How to overcome an IllegalAccessException to access the value of a an object's field using reflection. Expansion: I'm trying to learn about reflection to make some of my projects more generic. I'm running into an IllegalAccessException when trying to call field.getValue(object) to get the value of that field in that object. I can get the name and type just fine. If I change the declaration from private to public then this works fine. But in an effort to follow the "rules" of encapsulation I don't want to do this. Any help would be greatly appreciated! Thanks! My Code: package main; import java.lang.reflect.Field; public class Tester { public static void main(String args[]) throws Exception { new Tester().reflectionTest(); } public void reflectionTest() throws Exception { Person person = new Person("John Doe", "555-123-4567", "Rover"); Field[] fields = person.getClass().getDeclaredFields(); for (Field field : fields) { System.out.println("Field Name: " + field.getName()); System.out.println("Field Type: " + field.getType()); System.out.println("Field Value: " + field.get(person)); //The line above throws: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.IllegalAccessException: Class main.Tester can not access a member of class main.Tester$Person with modifiers "private final" } } public class Person { private final String name; private final String phoneNumber; private final String dogsName; public Person(String name, String phoneNumber, String dogsName) { this.name = name; this.phoneNumber = phoneNumber; this.dogsName = dogsName; } } } The Output: run: Field Name: name Field Type: class java.lang.String Exception in thread "main" java.lang.IllegalAccessException: Class main.Tester can not access a member of class main.Tester$Person with modifiers "private final" at sun.reflect.Reflection.ensureMemberAccess(Reflection.java:95) at java.lang.reflect.AccessibleObject.slowCheckMemberAccess(AccessibleObject.java:261) at java.lang.reflect.AccessibleObject.checkAccess(AccessibleObject.java:253) at java.lang.reflect.Field.doSecurityCheck(Field.java:983) at java.lang.reflect.Field.getFieldAccessor(Field.java:927) at java.lang.reflect.Field.get(Field.java:372) at main.Tester.reflectionTest(Tester.java:17) at main.Tester.main(Tester.java:8) Java Result: 1 BUILD SUCCESSFUL (total time: 0 seconds)

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  • Indexing and Searching Over Word Level Annotation Layers in Lucene

    - by dmcer
    I have a data set with multiple layers of annotation over the underlying text, such as part-of-tags, chunks from a shallow parser, name entities, and others from various natural language processing (NLP) tools. For a sentence like The man went to the store, the annotations might look like: Word POS Chunk NER ==== === ===== ======== The DT NP Person man NN NP Person went VBD VP - to TO PP - the DT NP Location store NN NP Location I'd like to index a bunch of documents with annotations like these using Lucene and then perform searches across the different layers. An example of a simple query would be to retrieve all documents where Washington is tagged as a person. While I'm not absolutely committed to the notation, syntactically end-users might enter the query as follows: Query: Word=Washington,NER=Person I'd also like to do more complex queries involving the sequential order of annotations across different layers, e.g. find all the documents where there's a word tagged person followed by the words arrived at followed by a word tagged location. Such a query might look like: Query: "NER=Person Word=arrived Word=at NER=Location" What's a good way to go about approaching this with Lucene? Is there anyway to index and search over document fields that contain structured tokens?

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  • Do applescript repeat loops reflect changes instantly?

    - by user1159454
    I'm making a script to open multiple folders in a directory, and it's not working as planned. I've tried outlining it and walking through the steps one by one pretending I'm the computer executing it but when I run it the outcome is very different. It uses repeat and repeat with a lot. The repeat repeats for as long as there is ANYTHING in a certain array (I mean List) and the repeat with is INSIDE of the first repeat, which repeats it's own loop with everything in the array at that time. Now, one of the actions of the repeat with loop is to change the array. Which I think would change the loop would it not? Example (foldList is A, B, C) repeat until {} repeat with folder_name in foldList do something set foldList to 1, 2, 3 end repeat end repeat What I would THINK that does is iterate through the first loop as "A", but before hitting the end it would change foldList to 1, 2, 3. So instead of going through the next loop as "B" I'd think it would go as "1" instead. But if it did that then I don't think my manual walkthrough would be off by so much. So I'm under the assumption that in Applescript when you're in a repeat with, regardless of changing the List you WILL end that loop on the last item of the first List (before the list was replaced.) Is this right?

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  • Why should I care about RVM's Gemset feature when I use Bundler?

    - by t6d
    I just don't get it. I thought, Bundler was developed to resolve version conflicts between gems. So that I just have to require "bundler/setup" and everything is fine, knowing that Bundler will load the correct versions of all my gems and their dependencies. Now, RVM is great for managing multiple Rubies, I know, but why should I care about the Gemset feature? Do I miss something here? Can it make my development even easier? Maybe, some of you can give me some hints on the perfect RVM + Bundler workflow for both, development and production. I also don't know when RVM starts switching to another Ruby. I know that I can have an .rvmrc file in my project, but do I have to cd to this directory so that the switch happens? Furthermore, I usually use Passenger for development since, thanks to the Passenger.prefpane, integration in Mac OS is great. Can I still do that with RVM or is there a better way to do it? Does Passenger recognize .rvmrc files and switch to the correct Gemset?

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  • Is there a generic way of dealing with varying connection strings in C#?

    - by James Wiseman
    I have an application that needs to connect to a SQL database, and execute a SQL Agent Job. The connection string I am trying to access is stored in the registry, which is easily enough pulled out. This appliction is to be run on multiple computers, and I cannot guarantee the format of this connection string being consistent across these computers. Two that I have pulled out for example are: Data Source=Server1;Initial Catalog=DB1;Integrated Security=SSPI; Data Source=Server2;Initial Catalog=DB1;Provider=SQLNCLI.1;Integrated Security=SSPI;Auto Translate=False; I can use an object of type System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection to connect to the database with the first connection string, howevever, I get the following error when I pass the second to it: keyword not supported: 'provider' Similarly, I can use the an object of type System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection to connect to the database with the second connection string, howevever, I get the following error when I pass the first to it: An OLEDB Provider was not specified in the ConnectionString' I can solve this by scanning the string for 'Provider' and doing the connect conditionally, however I can't help but feel that there is a better way of doing this, and handle the connection strings in a more generic fashion. Does anyone have any suggestions?

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  • Can't access font resource in Silverlight class library

    - by Matt
    I have a reasonably large Silveright 3.0 project on the go, and I'm having issues accessing a couple of custom font resources from within one of the assemblies. I've got a working test solution where I have added a custom font as a resource, and can access it fine from XAML using: <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> The test solution consists of the TestProject.Application and the TestProject.Application.Web projects, with all the fun and games obviously in the TestProject.Application project However, when I try this in my main solution, the fonts refuse to show in the correct type face (instead showing in the default font). There's no difference in the way the font has been added to project between the test solution and the main solution, and the XAML is identical. However, there is a solution layout difference. In the main solution, as well as having a MainApp.Application and MainApp.Application.Web project, I also have a MainApp.Application.ViewModel project and a MainApp.Application.Views project, and the problem piece of XAML is the in the MainApp.Application.Views project (not the .Application project like the test solution). I've tried putting the font into either the .Application or .Application.Views project, tried changing the Build Action to Content, Embedded Resource etc, all to no avail. So, is there an issue accessing font resources from a child assembly that I don't know about, or has anyone successfully done this? My long term need will be to have the valid custom fonts being stored as resources in a separate .Application.FontLibrary assembly that will be on-demand downloaded and cached, and the XAML controls in the .Application.Views project will need to reference this FontLibrary assembly to get the valid fonts. I've also tried xcreating this separate font library assembly, and I can't seem to get the fonts from the second assembly. As some additional information, I've also tried the following font referencing approaches: <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="pack:application,,,/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="pack:application,,,/MainApp.Application.Views;/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="pack:application,,,/MainApp.Application.Views;component/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> And a few similar variants with different assembly references/sub directories/random semi colons. And so far nothing works... anyone struck this (and preferably solved it)?

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  • What are some methods to prevent double posting in a form? (PHP)

    - by jpjp
    I want to prevent users from accidentally posting a comment twice. I use the PRG (post redirect get) method, so that I insert the data on another page then redirect the user back to the page which shows the comment. This allows users to refresh as many times as they want. However this doesn't work when the user goes back and clicks submit again or when they click submit 100 times really fast. I don't want 100 of the same comments. I looked at related questions on SO and found that a token is best. But I am having trouble using it. //makerandomtoken(20) returns a random 20 length char. <form method="post" ... > <input type="text" id="comments" name="comments" class="commentbox" /><br/> <input type="hidden" name="_token" value="<?php echo $token=makerandomtoken(20); ?>" /> <input type="submit" value="submit" name="submit" /> </form> if (isset($_POST['submit']) && !empty($comments)) { $comments= mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc,trim($_POST['comments'])); //how do I make the if-statment to check if the token has been already set once? if ( ____________){ //don't insert comment because already clicked submit } else{ //insert the comment into the database } } So I have the token as a hidden value, but how do I use that to prevent multiple clicking of submit. METHODS: someone suggested using sessions. I would set the random token to $_SESSION['_token'] and check if that session token is equal to the $_POST['_token'], but how do I do that? When I tried, it still doesn't check

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  • How to get at specific HTML elements of a document using C# and Hide them/Show them etc.

    - by LaserBeak
    Basically I want to load a HTML document and using controls such as multiple check boxes which will be programmed to hide, delete or show HTML elements with certain ID's. So I am thinking I would have to set an inline CSS property for visibility to: false on the ones I want to hide or delete them altogether when necessary. I need this so I don't have to edit my Ebay HTML templates in dreamweaver all the time, where I usually have to scroll around messy code and manually delete or add tags and their respective content. Whereas I just want to create one master template in dreamweaver which has all the variations that my products have, since they are all of the same genre with slight changes here and there and I just need to enable and disable the visibility of these variants as required and copy + paste the final html. I haven's used Windows Forms before, but tried doing this in WebForms which I do know a bit. I am able to get the result that I want by wrapping any HTML elements in a <asp:PlaceHolder></asp:PlaceHolder> and just setting that place holders visibility to false after the associated checkbox is checked and a postback occurs, finally I add a checkbox/button control that removes all the checkboxes, including itself etc for final html. But this method seems just like too much pain in the ass as I have to add the placeholder tags around everything that I need control over as ordinary html elements do not run at server, also webforms injects a bunch of Javascript and ViewState data so I don't have clean HTML which I can just copy after viewing the page source. Any tips/code that you can suggest to achieve the desired effect with the least changes required to existing HTML documents? Ideally I would want to load the HTML document in, have a live design preview of it and underneath have a bunch of well labelled checkboxes programmed to hide, delete or show elements with certain ID's. Thanks...

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  • API-based solutions for sending payments to people without bank accounts

    - by Tauren
    I'm looking for inexpensive ways to send payments to hundreds or thousands of individual contractors, even if they do not have a bank account. Currently I only need to support payment in the USA, but may eventually be international. Here's the scenario: I offer a service that allows an organization or manager-type person to coordinate contractors for very short term jobs. These jobs are typically only an hour or two in length. A contractor may get only one job over an entire month, several jobs spread out over a month, multiple jobs on a single day, or any other combination. Thus, a single contractor could earn as little as one job's payment up to potentially payment for dozens. Payment for a month could be as little as $10 up to $1000's. Right now, the system provides payroll reports to the manager and it is the manager's responsibility to produce checks, stuff envelopes, and send mail via the US postal service. I'd like to remove this burden from the manager and have all the payments taken care of for them automatically by the system. I'm not sure where to start or what the best options would be. I'm starting to look into the following solutions, but don't know specifics yet and would like some advice before pursuing them. I'd also like to hear about other ideas or suggestions. PayPal (Send Money, Adaptive Payments, x.com, other???) Amazon (Flexible Payments System?) Fund some sort of pre-paid debit card? Web service with API that mails checks for you? Direct deposit via a bank API (for users with bank accounts)? The problem is that many of these contractors may not be able to obtain bank accounts or credit cards within the USA. I don't mind doing a hybrid of solutions, but are there any that would work well with this issue? I want the solution to be easy to use for the contractors, meaning that they can get the money easily (via check in the mail, debit card ATM withdrawal, etc.)

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  • Unable to get data from a WCF client

    - by Scott
    I am developing a DLL that will provide sychronized time stamps to multiple applications running on the same machine. The timestamps are altered in a thread that uses a high performance timer and a scalar to provide the appearance of moving faster than real-time. For obvious reasons I want only 1 instance of this time library, and I thought I could use WCF for the other processes to connect to this and poll for timestamps whenever they want. When I connect however I never get a valid time stamp, just an empty DateTime. I should point out that the library does work. The original implementation was a single DLL that each application incorporated and each one was synced using windows messages. I'm fairly sure it has something to do with how I'm setting up the WCF stuff, to which I am still pretty new. Here are the contract definitions: public interface ITimerCallbacks { [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] void TimerElapsed(String id); } [ServiceContract(SessionMode = SessionMode.Required, CallbackContract = typeof(ITimerCallbacks))] public interface ISimTime { [OperationContract] DateTime GetTime(); } Here is my class definition: [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.Single)] public class SimTimeServer: ISimTime The host setup: // set up WCF interprocess comms host = new ServiceHost(typeof(SimTimeServer), new Uri[] { new Uri("net.pipe://localhost") }); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(ISimTime), new NetNamedPipeBinding(), "SimTime"); host.Open(); and the implementation of the interface function server-side: public DateTime GetTime() { if (ThreadMutex.WaitOne(20)) { RetTime = CurrentTime; ThreadMutex.ReleaseMutex(); } return RetTime; } Lastly the client-side implementation: Callbacks myCallbacks = new Callbacks(); DuplexChannelFactory pipeFactory = new DuplexChannelFactory(myCallbacks, new NetNamedPipeBinding(), new EndpointAddress("net.pipe://localhost/SimTime")); ISimTime pipeProxy = pipeFactory.CreateChannel(); while (true) { string str = Console.ReadLine(); if (str.ToLower().Contains("get")) Console.WriteLine(pipeProxy.GetTime().ToString()); else if (str.ToLower().Contains("exit")) break; }

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  • Combinationally unique MySQL tables

    - by Jack Webb-Heller
    So, here's the problem (it's probably an easy one :P) This is my table structure: CREATE TABLE `users_awards` ( `user_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `award_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `duplicate` int(11) NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', UNIQUE KEY `award_id` (`award_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 So it's for a user awards system. I don't want my users to be granted the same award multiple times, which is why I have a 'duplicate' field. The query I'm trying is this (with sample data of 3 and 2) : INSERT INTO users_awards (user_id, award_id) VALUES ('3','2') ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE duplicate=duplicate+1 So my MySQL is a little rusty, but I set user_id to be a primary key, and award_id to be a UNIQUE key. This (kind of) created the desired effect. When user 1 was given award 2, it entered. If he/she got this twice, only one row would be in the table, and duplicate would be set to 1. And again, 2, etc. When user 2 was given award 1, it entered. If he/she got this twice, duplicate updated, etc. etc. But when user 1 is given award 1 (after user 2 has already been awarded it), user 2 (with award 1)'s duplicate field increases and nothing is added to user 1. Sorry if that's a little n00bish. Really appreciate the help! Jack

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  • Is it possible to filter data used by pivot table based on filtering the rows in a source table in Excel?

    - by Geoffrey Stoel
    I have developed a dashboard in Excel 2007 that uses one source table in a sheet (being filled with a query on our data warehouse) and multiple pivot tables making different cross sections on this data. I use the GETPIVOTDATA in almost a hundred formulas to give me the right value for a specific indicator in my dashboard. This all works fine. However I now have received the question to make the dashboard for 5 different segments. As you can imagine I don't want to create 5 different workbooks for this and need to maintain the dashboard logic on all of them. So my question is the following. Is it possible to automatically (through VBA or any other means) filter the results in my source table which is the source for my pivot tables and thus for my dashboard values. So schematically: DATABASE_VIEW -- SOURCE_TABLE -- 12 pivot tables -- 100 GETPIVOTDATA functions Preferably I would like to load all the segments in the source_table (one view on my database) and then filter the data in the source table, which results in filterd source_dat for my pivots. This way I can (without requerying the db) quickly change between segments in the dashboards (refreshing pivots only). Data in the source table has the column: CUSTOMER_SEGMENT available to filter upon. Any help is appreciated. Geoffrey

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  • SQL trigger to delete rows from database

    - by wpearse
    I have an industrial system that logs alarms to a remotely hosted MySQL database. The industrial system inserts a new row whenever a property of the alarm changes (such as the time the alarm was activated, acknowledged or switched off) into a table named 'alarms'. I don't want multiple records for each alarm, so I have set up two database triggers. The first trigger mirrors each new record to a second table, creating/updating rows as required: CREATE TRIGGER `mirror_alarms` BEFORE INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW INSERT INTO `alarm_display` (Tag,...,OffTime) VALUES (new.Tag,...,new.OffTime) ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE OnDate=new.OnDate,...,OffTime=new.OffTime The second trigger should execute after the first and (ideally) delete all rows from the alarms table. (I used the Tag property of the alarm because the Tag property never changes, although I suspect I could just use a 'DELETE FROM alarms WHERE 1' statement to the same effect). CREATE TRIGGER `remove_alarms` AFTER INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW DELETE FROM alarms WHERE Tag=new.Tag My problem is that the second trigger doesn't appear to run, or if it does, the second trigger doesn't delete any rows from the database. So here's the question: why does my second trigger not do what I expect it to do?

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  • Polling servers at the same port - Threads and Java

    - by John
    Hi there. I'm currently busy working on an IP ban tool for the early versions of Call of Duty 1. (Apparently such a feature wasn't implemented in these versions). I've finished a single threaded application but it won't perform well enough for multiple servers, which is why I am trying to implement threading. Right now, each server has its own thread. I have a Networking class, which has a method; "GetStatus" -- this method is synchronized. This method uses a DatagramSocket to communicate with the server. Since this method is static and synchronized, I shouldn't get in trouble and receive a whole bunch of "Address already in use" exceptions. However, I have a second method named "SendMessage". This method is supposed to send a message to the server. How can I make sure "SendMessage" cannot be invoked when there's already a thread running in "GetStatus", and the other way around? If I make both synchronized, I will still get in trouble if Thread A is opening a socket on Port 99999 and invoking "SendMessage" while Thread B is opening a socket on the same port and invoking "GetStatus"? (Game servers are usually hosted on the same ports) I guess what I am really after is a way to make an entire class synchronized, so that only one method can be invoked and run at a time by a single thread. Hope that what I am trying to accomplish/avoid is made clear in this text. Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • How do I switch out Views in a Cocoa application?

    - by David Garcia
    So I'm beginning to learn how to use Cocoa. I think I've pretty much got it but I'm hung up on creating and switching views. I'm rewriting a game I made a little bit ago for practice. All I want is one window (preferably not resizable) and I want to be able to switch out views for different screens in the game. First, I have the main menu (Start Game, High Scores, Exit). Then I need a window for each screen (Gameplay screen, Highscore screen). What I'm getting confused with is how to design this. I looked up NSViewController thinking it manages views but it doesn't. It only manages one view by loading it really. I don't understand why I'd need to use NSViewController then. Couldn't I just have a window class that contains multiple subclasses of NSView and load them like that? I'm not sure I understand the purpose of the ViewController. Does my Window Class really need to subclass NSWindowController? I was trying to follow the example of Apple's ViewController example and it has a window controller class that's a subclass of NSWindowController. I don't see what the purpose was of subclassing that. All NSWindowController seems to add is - initWithPath:(NSString *)newPath but I fail to see the use in that either when I can just edit the plist file to open the window on start up. Apple's example also has an NSView variable and an NSViewController variable. Don't you only need one variable to store the current view? Thanks in advance guys, I'm really confused as to how this works.

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  • InvalidOperationException: The Undo operation encountered a context that is different from what was

    - by McN
    I got the following exception: Exception Type: System.InvalidOperationException Exception Message: The Undo operation encountered a context that is different from what was applied in the corresponding Set operation. The possible cause is that a context was Set on the thread and not reverted(undone). Exception Stack: at System.Threading.SynchronizationContextSwitcher.Undo() at System.Threading.ExecutionContextSwitcher.Undo() at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.runFinallyCode(Object userData, Boolean exceptionThrown) at System.Runtime.CompilerServices.RuntimeHelpers.ExecuteBackoutCodeHelper(Object backoutCode, Object userData, Boolean exceptionThrown) at System.Runtime.CompilerServices.RuntimeHelpers.ExecuteCodeWithGuaranteedCleanup(TryCode code, CleanupCode backoutCode, Object userData) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.RunInternal(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Net.ContextAwareResult.Complete(IntPtr userToken) at System.Net.LazyAsyncResult.ProtectedInvokeCallback(Object result, IntPtr userToken) at System.Net.Sockets.BaseOverlappedAsyncResult.CompletionPortCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* nativeOverlapped) at System.Threading._IOCompletionCallback.PerformIOCompletionCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* pOVERLAP) Exception Source: mscorlib Exception TargetSite.Name: Undo Exception HelpLink: The application is a Visual Studio 2005 (.Net 2.0) console application. It is a server for multiple TCP/IP connections, doing asynchronous socket reads and synchronous socket writes. In searching for an answer I came across this post which talks about a call to Application.Doevents() which I don't use in my code. I also found this post which has a resolution involved with Component which I also don't use in my code. The application does reference a library that I created that contains custom user controls and components, but they are not being used by the application. Question: What caused this to happen and how do I prevent this from happening again? Or a more realistic question: What does this exception actually mean? How is "context" defined in this situation? Anything that can help me understand what is going on would be very much appreciated.

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  • jQuery accordion link issue

    - by Josh
    Slight problem, I've been working with a multi-accordion for a News panel. Everything is working fine, but there is an issue that has just recently come up. Underneath the headline I have information on when said headline+article was posted and when, and also if there are any comments. I intended to make the author and the number of comments as a link. The author link would most likely bring them to their contact page or maybe an email, the number of comments link would just expand it directly to the "View comments" which the user could also access by just expanding the article and then expanding the comments. A shortcut basically. Now, the issue is that I'm having to put this "Posted by..." information inside the a class which allows the user to expand the headline into the article. If I do this however, it breaks the entire accordion field for that headline because there are multiple A HREF links inside the original A link. I really don't know how to get around this, if anyone has a tip or a solution I would most appreciate it, thanks. You can view the demo here: http://www.notedls.com/demo

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  • Why is Chrome miscalculating jQuery submenu dimensions?

    - by chunkymonkey
    I'm trying to implement this dropdown menu with flyouts: http://jsfiddle.net/chunkymonkey/fr6x4/ In Chrome certain categories can be expanded to show their subcategories while others show nothing when opened up. For example: Alternative Rock can be expanded to show its multiple subcategories . . . BUT . . . World Music, which has as many subcategories, shows no subcategories when expanded. (SCREENSHOT: http://i.imgur.com/0WorR.jpg) I thought I had tracked this problem down to a problem with they way the dimensions of the dropdown elements are calculated in the original code: First change: - var newLeftVal = - ($('.fg-menu-current').parents('ul').size() - 1) * 180; + var newLeftVal = - ($('.fg-menu-current').parents('ul').size() - 1) * container.width(); Second change: Remove: var checkMenuHeight = function(el) { if (el.height() > options.maxHeight) { el.addClass('fg-menu-scroll') }; el.css({ height: options.maxHeight }); }; Add: var checkMenuHeight = function(el) { var max_height = options.maxHeight - breadcrumb.getTotalHeight(); if (el.height() > max_height) { el.addClass('fg-menu-scroll'); el.height(max_height); topList.height(max_height); } else { if (topList.height() < el.height()) { topList.height(el.height()); } } }; But it's still not working only on Chrome (version 8, Windows & Mac) (not sure why Chrome is different).

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