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  • Jquery autocomplete UI - No results on multiple fields

    - by pjammer
    Andrew's answer to my comment has sparked this question. According to his awesome answer in the link above, the code at the bottom of the question will only work for ONE widget. But it's killer nice code and makes sense... I guess I want the best of both worlds. Nice JS, (if that is possible) and to have the zero results show() just the element that we're using at the time. This code snippet is the main crux of my problem, as I see it: source: function (request, response) { jQuery.ajax({ url: "/autocomplete.json", data: { term: request.term }, success: function (data) { if (data.length == 0) { jQuery('span.guest_investor_email').show(); jQuery('span.investor_field_delete_button').show(); } response(data); } }); Currently: I have a button on my page that says "Add more Information" and each time you click it, a new instance of the autocomplete text field appears, complete with some hidden fields and a display:none; on guest_investor_email. If I use the autocomplete text field, say 3 times, and i have 3 autocomplete instances on the page and the third one finds 0 results: The code will show() all 3 instances of the guest_investor_email text field, instead of just this one that is blank. QUESTION: How do i get something like jQuery(this).siblings(('span.guest_investor_email').show(); to work? this is an Object and not an array of elements to select. If it isn't with this I don't mind, as long as I know how to get at it. Thanks. Full Code: jQuery(".auto_search_complete").live("click", function() { jQuery(this).autocomplete({ minLength: 3, source: function (request, response) { jQuery.ajax({ url: "/autocomplete.json", data: { term: request.term }, success: function (data) { if (data.length == 0) { jQuery('span.guest_investor_email').show(); jQuery('span.investor_field_delete_button').show(); } response(data); } }); }, focus: function(event, ui) { jQuery(this).val(ui.item.user ? ui.item.user.name : ui.item.pitch.name); return false; }, select: function(event, ui) { jQuery(this).val(ui.item.user ? ui.item.user.name : ui.item.pitch.name); jQuery(this).siblings('div.hidden_fields').children('.poly_id').val(ui.item.user ? ui.item.user.id : ui.item.pitch.id); jQuery(this).siblings('div.hidden_fields').children('.poly_type').val(ui.item.user ? "User" : "Pitch"); jQuery(this).siblings('span.guest_investor_email').hide(); jQuery(this).siblings('span.investor_field_delete_button').show(); jQuery(this).attr('readonly','readonly'); jQuery(this).attr('id', "investor-selected"); return false; } }).each(function() { jQuery(this).data( "autocomplete" )._renderItem = function( ul, item ) { return jQuery( "" ) .data( "item.autocomplete", item ) .append("" + (item.user ? item.user.name : item.pitch.name) + "" + (item.user ? item.user.investor_type : item.pitch.investor_type) + " - " + (item.user ? item.user.city : item.pitch.city) + "" ) .appendTo( ul ); }; }); });

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  • Can I get the original page source (vs current DOM) with phantomjs/casperjs?

    - by supercoco
    I am trying to get the original source for a particular web page. The page executes some scripts that modify the DOM as soon as it loads. I would like to get the source before any script or user changes any object in the document. With Chrome or Firefox (and probably most browsers) I can either look at the DOM (debug utility F12) or look at the original source (right-click, view source). The latter is what I want to accomplish. Is it possible to do this with phantomjs/casperjs? Before getting to the page I have to log in. This is working fine with casperjs. If I browse to the page and render the results I know I am on the right page. casper.thenOpen('http://'+customUrl, function(response) { this.page.render('example.png'); // *** Renders correct page (current DOM) *** console.log(this.page.content); // *** Gets current DOM *** casper.download('view-source:'+customUrl, 'b.html', 'GET'); // *** Blank page *** console.log(this.getHTML()); // *** Gets current DOM *** this.debugPage(); // *** Gets current DOM *** utils.dump(response); // *** No BODY *** casper.download('http://'+customUrl, 'a.html', 'GET'); // *** Not logged in ?! *** }); I've tried this.download(url, 'a.html') but it doesn't seem to share the same context since it returns HTML as if I was not logged in, even if I run with cookies casperjs test.casper.js --cookies-file=cookies.txt. I believe I should keep analyzing this option. I have also tried casper.open('view-source:url') instead of casper.open('http://url') but it seems it doesn't recognize the url since I just get a blank page. I have looked at the raw HTTP Response I get from the server with a utility I have and the body of this message (which is HTML) is what I need but when the page loads in the browser the DOM has already been modified. I tried: casper.thenOpen('http://'+url, function(response) { ... } But the response object only contains the headers and some other information but not the body. ¿Any ideas? Here is the full code: phantom.casperTest = true; phantom.cookiesEnabled = true; var utils = require('utils'); var casper = require('casper').create({ clientScripts: [], pageSettings: { loadImages: false, loadPlugins: false, javascriptEnabled: true, webSecurityEnabled: false }, logLevel: "error", verbose: true }); casper.userAgent('Mozilla/5.0 (Macintosh; Intel Mac OS X)'); casper.start('http://www.xxxxxxx.xxx/login'); casper.waitForSelector('input#login', function() { this.evaluate(function(customLogin, customPassword) { document.getElementById("login").value = customLogin; document.getElementById("password").value = customPassword; document.getElementById("button").click(); }, { "customLogin": customLogin, "customPassword": customPassword }); }, function() { console.log('Can't login.'); }, 15000 ); casper.waitForSelector('div#home', function() { console.log('Login successfull.'); }, function() { console.log('Login failed.'); }, 15000 ); casper.thenOpen('http://'+customUrl, function(response) { this.page.render('example.png'); // *** Renders correct page (current DOM) *** console.log(this.page.content); // *** Gets current DOM *** casper.download('view-source:'+customUrl, 'b.html', 'GET'); // *** Blank page *** console.log(this.getHTML()); // *** Gets current DOM *** this.debugPage(); // *** Gets current DOM *** utils.dump(response); // *** No BODY *** casper.download('http://'+customUrl, 'a.html', 'GET'); // *** Not logged in ?! *** });

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  • Strange issues with view switcher after object animator animations

    - by Barry Irvine
    I have two LinearLayout views that contain a number of edit texts and checkboxes for entering user information (name, email address etc). When a validation fails on one of these fields a gone textview is displayed showing the validation error. I have enclosed the two layouts within a ViewSwitcher and I animate between the two views using the ObjectAnimator class. (Since the code needs to support older versions of Android I am actually using the nineoldandroids backwards compatibility library for this). The bulk of the work is performed in my switchToChild method. If I flip the views more than twice then I start to run into strange errors. Firstly although the correct child view of the view animator is displayed it seems that the other view has focus and I can click on the views beneath the current one. I resolved this issue by adding a viewSwitcher.bringChildToFront at the end of the first animation. When I do this however and perform a validation on the 2nd view the "gone" view that I have now set to visible is not displayed (as if the linearlayout is never being re-measured). Here is a subset of the XML file: <ScrollView android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_below="@+id/TitleBar" android:scrollbarAlwaysDrawVerticalTrack="true" android:scrollbarStyle="outsideOverlay" android:scrollbars="vertical" > <ViewSwitcher android:id="@+id/switcher" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" > <LinearLayout android:id="@+id/page_1" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:orientation="vertical" > <!-- Lots of subviews here --> <LinearLayout android:id="@+id/page_2" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:orientation="vertical" > And this is the main method for flipping between the views: private void switchToChild(final int child) { final ViewSwitcher viewSwitcher = (ViewSwitcher) findViewById(R.id.switcher); if (viewSwitcher.getDisplayedChild() != child) { final Interpolator accelerator = new AccelerateInterpolator(); final Interpolator decelerator = new DecelerateInterpolator(); final View visibleView; final View invisibleView; switch (child) { case 0: visibleView = findViewById(R.id.page_2); invisibleView = findViewById(R.id.page_1); findViewById(R.id.next).setVisibility(View.VISIBLE); findViewById(R.id.back).setVisibility(View.GONE); break; case 1: default: visibleView = findViewById(R.id.page_1); invisibleView = findViewById(R.id.page_2); findViewById(R.id.back).setVisibility(View.VISIBLE); findViewById(R.id.next).setVisibility(View.GONE); break; } final ObjectAnimator visToInvis = ObjectAnimator.ofFloat(visibleView, "rotationY", 0f, 90f).setDuration(250); visToInvis.setInterpolator(accelerator); final ObjectAnimator invisToVis = ObjectAnimator.ofFloat(invisibleView, "rotationY", -90f, 0f).setDuration(250); invisToVis.setInterpolator(decelerator); visToInvis.addListener(new AnimatorListenerAdapter() { @Override public void onAnimationEnd(Animator anim) { viewSwitcher.showNext(); invisToVis.start(); viewSwitcher.bringChildToFront(invisibleView); // If I don't do this the old view can have focus } }); visToInvis.start(); } } Does anyone have any ideas? This is really confusing me!

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  • TDD - beginner problems and stumbling blocks

    - by Noufal Ibrahim
    While I've written unit tests for most of the code I've done, I only recently got my hands on a copy of TDD by example by Kent Beck. I have always regretted certain design decisions I made since they prevented the application from being 'testable'. I read through the book and while some of it looks alien, I felt that I could manage it and decided to try it out on my current project which is basically a client/server system where the two pieces communicate via. USB. One on the gadget and the other on the host. The application is in Python. I started off and very soon got entangled in a mess of rewrites and tiny tests which I later figured didn't really test anything. I threw away most of them and and now have a working application for which the tests have all coagulated into just 2. Based on my experiences, I have a few questions which I'd like to ask. I gained some information from http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1146218/new-to-tdd-are-there-sample-applications-with-tests-to-show-how-to-do-tdd but have some specific questions which I'd like answers to/discussion on. Kent Beck uses a list which he adds to and strikes out from to guide the development process. How do you make such a list? I initially had a few items like "server should start up", "server should abort if channel is not available" etc. but they got mixed and finally now, it's just something like "client should be able to connect to server" (which subsumed server startup etc.). How do you handle rewrites? I initially selected a half duplex system based on named pipes so that I could develop the application logic on my own machine and then later add the USB communication part. It them moved to become a socket based thing and then moved from using raw sockets to using the Python SocketServer module. Each time things changed, I found that I had to rewrite considerable parts of the tests which was annoying. I'd figured that the tests would be a somewhat invariable guide during my development. They just felt like more code to handle. I needed a client and a server to communicate through the channel to test either side. I could mock one of the sides to test the other but then the whole channel wouldn't be tested and I worry that I'd miss that. This detracted from the whole red/green/refactor rhythm. Is this just lack of experience or am I doing something wrong? The "Fake it till you make it" left me with a lot of messy code that I later spent a lot of time to refactor and clean up. Is this the way things work? At the end of the session, I now have my client and server running with around 3 or 4 unit tests. It took me around a week to do it. I think I could have done it in a day if I were using the unit tests after code way. I fail to see the gain. I'm looking for comments and advice from people who have implemented large non trivial projects completely (or almost completely) using this methodology. It makes sense to me to follow the way after I have something already running and want to add a new feature but doing it from scratch seems to tiresome and not worth the effort. P.S. : Please let me know if this should be community wiki and I'll mark it like that. Update 0 : All the answers were equally helpful. I picked the one I did because it resonated with my experiences the most. Update 1: Practice Practice Practice!

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  • Expanding Rows for Unique Checkboxes

    - by Marc Morgan
    I was just recently given a project for my job to write a script that compares two mysql databases and print out information into an html table. Currently, I am trying to insert a checkbox by each individual's name and when selected, rows pertaining to that individual will expand underneath the person's name. I am combining javascript into my script to do this, although I really have no experience is it. The problem I am having is that when any checkbox is selected, all the rows for each individual is expanding instead of the rows pertaining only to the one individual selected. Here is the coding so far: <?php $link = mysql_connect ($server = "harris.lib.fit.edu", $username = "", $password = "") or die(mysql_error()); $db = mysql_select_db ("library-test") or die(mysql_error()); $ids = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM `ifc_studylog`") or die(mysql_error()); //not single quotes (tilda apostrophy) $x=0; $n=0; while($row = mysql_fetch_array( $ids )) { $tracksid1[$x] = $row['fitID']; $checkin[$x] = $row['checkin']; $checkout[$x] = $row['checkout']; $n++; $x++; } $names = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM `ifc_users`") or die(mysql_error()); //not single quotes (tilda apostrophy) $x=0; while($row = mysql_fetch_array( $names )) { $tracksnamefirst[$x] = $row['firstName']; $tracksnamesecond[$x] = $row['lastname']; $tracksid2[$x] = $row['fitID']; $tracksuser[$x] = $row['tracks']; $x++; } $x=0; foreach($tracksid2 as $comparename) { $chk = strval($x); ?> <script type='text/javascript' src='http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.4.2.js'></script> <script type='text/javascript'> $(window).load(function () { $('.varx').click(function () { $('.text').toggle(this.checked); });}); </script> <?php echo '<td><input id = "<?=$chk?>" type="checkbox" class="varx" /></td>'; echo '<td align="center">'.$comparename.'</td>'; echo'<td align="center">'.$tracksnamefirst[$x].'</td>'; echo'<td align="center">'.$tracksnamesecond[$x].'</td>'; $z=0; foreach($tracksid1 as $compareid) { $HH=0; $MM =0; $SS =0; if($compareid == $comparename)// && $tracks==$tracksuser[$x]) { $SS = sprintf("%02s",(($checkout[$z]-$checkin[$z])%60)); $MM = sprintf("%02s",(($checkout[$z]-$checkin[$z])/60 %60)); $HH = sprintf("%02s",(($checkout[$z]-$checkin[$z])/3600 %24)); // echo'<td align="center">'.$HH.':'.$MM.':'.$SS.'</td>'; echo '</tr>'; echo '<tr>'; echo "<td id='txt' class='text' align='center' colspan='2' style='display:none'></td>"; echo "<td id='txt' class='text' align='center' style='display:none'>".$checkin[$z]."</td>"; echo '</tr>'; } echo '<tr>'; $z++; echo '</tr>'; } $x++; } } ?> Any Help is appreciated and sorry if I am too vague on the subject. The username and password is left off for security purposes.

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  • Submitting a URL into a Form without "http://", with "www.", or with neither

    - by John
    (EDITED) Hello, In the form below, the filed for <div class="urlfield"><input name="url" type="url" id="url" maxlength="500"></div> fine when a URL is submitted that has a "http://" at the beginning of it. However, it doesn't work if a URL is submitted with only a "www." in front of it, or with neither a "http://" nor a "www." How can I make it work in all if the submitted URL has any or none of the following at the beginning of it: http:// www. http://www. Thanks in advance, John Form: echo '<div class="submittitle">Submit an item.</div>'; echo '<form action="http://www...com/.../submit2.php" method="post"> <input type="hidden" value="'.$_SESSION['loginid'].'" name="uid"> <div class="submissiontitle"><label for="title">Story Title:</label></div> <div class="submissionfield"><input name="title" type="title" id="title" maxlength="1000"></div> <div class="urltitle"><label for="url">Link:</label></div> <div class="urlfield"><input name="url" type="url" id="url" maxlength="500"></div> <div class="submissionbutton"><input name="submit" type="submit" value="Submit"></div> </form> '; submit2.php: <?php if($_SERVER['REQUEST_METHOD'] == "POST"){header('Location: http://www...com/.../submit2.php');} require_once "header.php"; if (isLoggedIn() == true) { $remove_array = array('http://www.', 'http://', 'https://', 'https://www.', 'www.'); $cleanurl = str_replace($remove_array, "", $_POST['url']); $cleanurl = strtolower($cleanurl); $cleanurl = preg_replace('/\/$/','',$cleanurl); $cleanurl = stripslashes($cleanurl); $title = $_POST['title']; $uid = $_POST['uid']; $title = mysql_real_escape_string($title); $title = stripslashes($title); $cleanurl = mysql_real_escape_string($cleanurl); $site1 = 'http://' . $cleanurl; $displayurl = parse_url($site1, PHP_URL_HOST); function isURL($url1 = NULL) { if($url1==NULL) return false; $protocol = '(http://|https://)'; $allowed = '[-a-z0-9]{1,63}'; $regex = "^". $protocol . // must include the protocol '(' . $allowed . '\.)'. // 1 or several sub domains with a max of 63 chars '[a-z]' . '{2,6}'; // followed by a TLD if(eregi($regex, $url1)==true) return true; else return false; } if(isURL($site1)==true) mysql_query("INSERT INTO submission VALUES (NULL, '$uid', '$title', '$cleanurl', '$displayurl', NULL)"); else echo "<p class=\"topicu\">Not a valid URL.</p>\n"; } else { show_loginform(); } if (!isLoggedIn()) { if (isset($_POST['cmdlogin'])) { if (checkLogin($_POST['username'], $_POST['password'])) { show_userbox(); } else { echo "Incorrect Login information !"; show_loginform(); } } else { show_loginform(); } } else { show_userbox(); } require_once "footer.php"; ?>

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  • Confusion on C++ Python extensions. Things like getting C++ values for python values.

    - by Matthew Mitchell
    I'm wanted to convert some of my python code to C++ for speed but it's not as easy as simply making a C++ function and making a few function calls. I have no idea how to get a C++ integer from a python integer object. I have an integer which is an attribute of an object that I want to use. I also have integers which are inside a list in the object which I need to use. I wanted to test making a C++ extension with this function: def setup_framebuffer(surface,flip=False): #Create texture if not done already if surface.texture is None: create_texture(surface) #Render child to parent if surface.frame_buffer is None: surface.frame_buffer = glGenFramebuffersEXT(1) glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_EXT, c_uint(int(surface.frame_buffer))) glFramebufferTexture2DEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_EXT, GL_COLOR_ATTACHMENT0_EXT, GL_TEXTURE_2D, surface.texture, 0) glPushAttrib(GL_VIEWPORT_BIT) glViewport(0,0,surface._scale[0],surface._scale[1]) glMatrixMode(GL_PROJECTION) glLoadIdentity() #Load the projection matrix if flip: gluOrtho2D(0,surface._scale[0],surface._scale[1],0) else: gluOrtho2D(0,surface._scale[0],0,surface._scale[1]) That function calls create_texture, so I will have to pass that function to the C++ function which I will do with the third argument. This is what I have so far, while trying to follow information on the python documentation: #include <Python.h> #include <GL/gl.h> static PyMethodDef SpamMethods[] = { ... {"setup_framebuffer", setup_framebuffer, METH_VARARGS,"Loads a texture from a Surface object to the OpenGL framebuffer."}, ... {NULL, NULL, 0, NULL} /* Sentinel */ }; static PyObject * setup_framebuffer(PyObject *self, PyObject *args){ bool flip; PyObject *create_texture, *arg_list,*pyflip,*frame_buffer_id; if (!PyArg_ParseTuple(args, "OOO", &surface,&pyflip,&create_texture)){ return NULL; } if (PyObject_IsTrue(pyflip) == 1){ flip = true; }else{ flip = false; } Py_XINCREF(create_texture); //Create texture if not done already if(texture == NULL){ arglist = Py_BuildValue("(O)", surface) result = PyEval_CallObject(create_texture, arglist); Py_DECREF(arglist); if (result == NULL){ return NULL; } Py_DECREF(result); } Py_XDECREF(create_texture); //Render child to parent frame_buffer_id = PyObject_GetAttr(surface, Py_BuildValue("s","frame_buffer")) if(surface.frame_buffer == NULL){ glGenFramebuffersEXT(1,frame_buffer_id); } glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_EXT, surface.frame_buffer)); glFramebufferTexture2DEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_EXT, GL_COLOR_ATTACHMENT0_EXT, GL_TEXTURE_2D, surface.texture, 0); glPushAttrib(GL_VIEWPORT_BIT); glViewport(0,0,surface._scale[0],surface._scale[1]); glMatrixMode(GL_PROJECTION); glLoadIdentity(); //Load the projection matrix if (flip){ gluOrtho2D(0,surface._scale[0],surface._scale[1],0); }else{ gluOrtho2D(0,surface._scale[0],0,surface._scale[1]); } Py_INCREF(Py_None); return Py_None; } PyMODINIT_FUNC initcscalelib(void){ PyObject *module; module = Py_InitModule("cscalelib", Methods); if (m == NULL){ return; } } int main(int argc, char *argv[]){ /* Pass argv[0] to the Python interpreter */ Py_SetProgramName(argv[0]); /* Initialize the Python interpreter. Required. */ Py_Initialize(); /* Add a static module */ initscalelib(); }

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  • any suggestions on this css print problem

    - by user225269
    I have this code on my print.css: #header, #tae, #nav, .noprint {display: none;} width: 100%; margin: 0; float: none; In order not to display the elements within those div tags. But I don't know with the code below why it isn't cooperating. If I place the div tags on it. And then I hit the print button. I see no output. Here it is: <div id="tae"> <table border="0" align="center" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" class="bg1"> <tr> <td class="text1" style="height: 50px;">xd627 information management system</td> </tr> <tr> <td class="bg5"><table border="0" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0" style="height: 62px; padding-top: 15px;"> <tr align="center"> <td><a href="userpage.php" class="link1">Homepage</a></td> <td><a href="RegStuds.php" class="link1">Database</a></td> <td><a href="#" class="link1">About</a></td> <td>&nbsp;</td> <td>&nbsp;</td> <td>&nbsp;</td> </tr> </table></td> </tr> <tr> <td valign="top" class="bg6">&nbsp;</td> </tr> <tr> <td><table width="780" border="0" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0"> <tr valign="top"> <td width="20">&nbsp;</td> <td width="297"><table width="100%" border="0" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0"> <tr> <td><img src="images/spacer.gif" alt="" width="30" height="30" /></td> </tr> </tr> <tr> <td class="text2"> </div> <div id="max"> <?php //some php code in here showing a mysql table. ?> </div> What's wrong with my code? Does the php script depend on the one where I put the div tag in? What do I do? All I want to show up in my page when printed is the mysql table. I'm using Universal Document Converter to simulate printing.

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  • jQuery hide/show with select tag

    - by Ozzy
    I'm relative new to jQuery and I've been asked to create a hide/show function with a select tag. The function pretty much would be when you click on one of the options in the select tag it will open a div associate with the div of course. To be honest I have no idea how approach this function. I need help urgently, I have already tried many online but none have seem to work. Find below the html code. Thanks. <div class="adwizard"> <select id="selectdrop" name="selectdrop" class="adwizard-bullet"> <option value="adwizard">AdWizard</option> <option value="collateral">Collateral Ordering Tool</option> <option value="ebrochure">eBrochures</option> <option value="brand">Brand Center</option> <option value="funtees">FunTees</option> </select> </div> <div class="panels"> <div id="adwizard" class="sub-box showhide"> <img src="../images/bookccl/img-adwizard.gif" width="95" height="24" alt="AdWizard" /> <p>Let Carnival help you grow your business with our great tools! Lor ipsum dolor sit amet. <a href="https://www.carnivaladwizard.com/home.asp">Learn More</a></p> </div> <div id="collateral" class="sub-box showhide"> <p>The Collateral Ordering Tool makes it easy for you to order destination brochures and the sales DVD for that upcoming event. <a href="http://carnival.litorders.com/workplace.asp">Learn More</a></p> </div> <div id="ebrochure" class="sub-box showhide"> <img src="../images/bookccl/img-ebrochure.gif" width="164" height="39" alt="Brochures" /> <p>Show your clients that you're listening to their specific vacation needs by delivering relevant planning info quickly. <a href="http://productiontrade.carnivalbrochures.com/start.aspx">Learn More</a></p> </div> <div id="brand" class="sub-box showhide"> <p>Carnival Brand Center is where you'll find information on our strategy, guidlines, templates and artwork. <a href="https://carnival.monigle2.net/user_info.asp?login_type=agent">Learn More</a></p> </div> <div id="funtees" class="sub-box showhide"> <img src="../images/bookccl/img-funtees.gif" width="164" height="39" alt="Funtees" /> <p>Create your very own Fun Design shirts to commemorate that special occasion aboard a Carnival "Fun Ship!" <a href="http://carnival.victorydyo.com/">Learn More</a></p> </div> </div><!-- ends .panel --> <a class="view" href="#">See All Marketing Tools</a> </div>

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  • [C] Texture management / pointer question

    - by ndg
    I'm working on a texture management and animation solution for a small side project of mine. Although the project uses Allegro for rendering and input, my question mostly revolves around C and memory management. I wanted to post it here to get thoughts and insight into the approach, as I'm terrible when it comes to pointers. Essentially what I'm trying to do is load all of my texture resources into a central manager (textureManager) - which is essentially an array of structs containing ALLEGRO_BITMAP objects. The textures stored within the textureManager are mostly full sprite sheets. From there, I have an anim(ation) struct, which contains animation-specific information (along with a pointer to the corresponding texture within the textureManager). To give you an idea, here's how I setup and play the players 'walk' animation: createAnimation(&player.animations[0], "media/characters/player/walk.png", player.w, player.h); playAnimation(&player.animations[0], 10); Rendering the animations current frame is just a case of blitting a specific region of the sprite sheet stored in textureManager. For reference, here's the code for anim.h and anim.c. I'm sure what I'm doing here is probably a terrible approach for a number of reasons. I'd like to hear about them! Am I opening myself to any pitfalls? Will this work as I'm hoping? anim.h #ifndef ANIM_H #define ANIM_H #define ANIM_MAX_FRAMES 10 #define MAX_TEXTURES 50 struct texture { bool active; ALLEGRO_BITMAP *bmp; }; struct texture textureManager[MAX_TEXTURES]; typedef struct tAnim { ALLEGRO_BITMAP **sprite; int w, h; int curFrame, numFrames, frameCount; float delay; } anim; void setupTextureManager(void); int addTexture(char *filename); int createAnimation(anim *a, char *filename, int w, int h); void playAnimation(anim *a, float delay); void updateAnimation(anim *a); #endif anim.c void setupTextureManager() { int i = 0; for(i = 0; i < MAX_TEXTURES; i++) { textureManager[i].active = false; } } int addTextureToManager(char *filename) { int i = 0; for(i = 0; i < MAX_TEXTURES; i++) { if(!textureManager[i].active) { textureManager[i].bmp = al_load_bitmap(filename); textureManager[i].active = true; if(!textureManager[i].bmp) { printf("Error loading texture: %s", filename); return -1; } return i; } } return -1; } int createAnimation(anim *a, char *filename, int w, int h) { int textureId = addTextureToManager(filename); if(textureId > -1) { a->sprite = textureManager[textureId].bmp; a->w = w; a->h = h; a->numFrames = al_get_bitmap_width(a->sprite) / w; printf("Animation loaded with %i frames, given resource id: %i\n", a->numFrames, textureId); } else { printf("Texture manager full\n"); return 1; } return 0; } void playAnimation(anim *a, float delay) { a->curFrame = 0; a->frameCount = 0; a->delay = delay; } void updateAnimation(anim *a) { a->frameCount ++; if(a->frameCount >= a->delay) { a->frameCount = 0; a->curFrame ++; if(a->curFrame >= a->numFrames) { a->curFrame = 0; } } }

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  • PHP HTML table is too wide

    - by typoknig
    I have a table that I cannot get to size correctly. The table populates with information from a database via a loop. Sometimes if the data is too long the table extends past where it should. When the data is that long I want the data to wrap in the cells so the table stays where it should. I have tried the normal table data but it isn't working. Any ideas? <?php echo "<table> <tr> <th>id</th> <th>700-number</th> <th>First name</th> <th>Last name</th> <th>Email</th> <th>Response</th> <th>Created On</th> </tr>"; $num = mysql_num_rows($result); for ($i = 0; $i < $num; $i++) { $row = mysql_fetch_array($result); $id = $row['id']; $school_id = $row['school_id']; $fname = $row['first_name']; $lname = $row['last_name']; $email = $row['email']; $attending = ($row['attending'] == 0) ? 'No' : 'Yes'; $date = $row['created_on']; $class = (($i % 2) == 0) ? "td2" : "td1"; echo "<tr>"; echo "<td class=" . $class . ">$id</td>"; echo "<td class=" . $class . ">$school_id</td>"; echo "<td class=" . $class . ">$fname</td>"; echo "<td class=" . $class . ">$lname</td>"; echo "<td class=" . $class . ">$email</td>"; echo "<td class=" . $class . ">$attending</td>"; echo "<td class=" . $class . ">$date</td>"; echo "</tr>"; } ?> </table>

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  • How add loading image using jquery?

    - by user244394
    I'm working on a form, <form id="myform" class="form"> </form> that gets submitted to the server using jquery ajax. How can I refresh the form on success to show the updated form information and add a spinner until the form loads? here is my html and jquery snippet <div class="container"> <div class="page-header"> <div class="span2"> <!--Sidebar content--> <img src="img/emc_logo.png" title="EMC" > </div> <div class="span6"> <h2 class="form-wizard-heading">Configuration</h2> </div> </div> <form id="myform" class="form"> </form> </div> <!-- /container --> <!-- Modal --> <div id="myModal" class="modal hide fade" tabindex="-1" role="dialog" aria-labelledby="myModalLabel" aria-hidden="true"> <div class="modal-header"> <button type="button" class="close" data-dismiss="modal" aria-hidden="true">&times;</button> <h3 id="myModalLabel">Configuration Changes</h3> <p><span class="label label-important">Please review your changes before submitting. Submitting the changes will result in rebooting the cluster</span></p> </div> <div class="modal-body"> <table class="table table-condensed table-striped" id="display"></table> </div> <div class="modal-footer"> <button id="cancel" class="btn" data-dismiss="modal" aria-hidden="true">Close</button> <button id="save" class="btn btn-primary">Save changes</button> </div> </div> //Jquery part $(document).ready(function () { $('input').hover(function () { $(this).popover('show') }); // On mouseout destroy popout $('input').mouseout(function () { $(this).popover('destroy') }); $('#myform').on('submit', function (ev) { ev.preventDefault(); var data = $(this).serializeObject(); json_data = JSON.stringify(data); $('#myModal').modal('show'); $.each(data, function (key, val) { var tablefeed = $('<tr><td>' + key + '</td><td id="' + key + '">' + val + '</td><tr>').appendTo('#display'); }); $(".modal-body").html(tablefeed); }); $("#cancel").click(function () { $("#display").empty(); }); $(function () { $("#save").click(function () { // validate and process form here alert("button submitted" + json_data); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "somefile.json.", data: json_data, contentType: 'application/json', success: function (data, textStatus, xhr) { console.log(arguments); console.log(xhr.status); alert("Your form has been submitted: " + textStatus + xhr.status); }, error: function (jqXHR, textStatus, errorThrown) { alert(jqXHR.responseText + " - " + errorThrown + " : " + jqXHR.status); } }); }); }); });

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  • JPA2 adding referential contraint to table complicates criteria query with lazy fetch, need advice

    - by Quaternion
    Following is a lot of writing for what I feel is a pretty simple issue. Root of issue is my ignorance, not looking so much for code but advice. Table: Ininvhst (Inventory-schema inventory history) column ihtran (inventory history transfer code) using an old entity mapping I have: @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "IHTRAN") private String ihtran; ihtran is really a foreign key to table Intrnmst ("Inventory Transfer Master" which contains a list of "transfer codes"). This was not expressed in the database so placed a referential constraint on Ininvhst re-generating JPA2 entity classes produced: @JoinColumn(name = "IHTRAN", referencedColumnName = "TMCODE", nullable = false) @ManyToOne(optional = false) private Intrnmst intrnmst; Now previously I was using JPA2 to select the records/(Ininvhst entities) from the Ininvhst table where "ihtran" was one of a set of values. I used in.value() to do this... here is a snippet: cq = cb.createQuery(Ininvhst.class); ... In in = cb.in(transactionType); //Get in expression for transacton types for (String s : transactionTypes) { //has a value in = in.value(s);//check if the strings we are looking for exist in the transfer master } predicateList.add(in); My issue is that the Ininvhst used to contain a string called ihtran but now it contains Ininvhst... So I now need a path expression: this.predicateList = new ArrayList<Predicate>(); if (transactionTypes != null && transactionTypes.size() > 0) { //list of strings has some values Path<Intrnmst> intrnmst = root.get(Ininvhst_.intrnmst); //get transfermaster from Ininvhst Path<String> transactionType = intrnmst.get(Intrnmst_.tmcode); //get transaction types from transfer master In<String> in = cb.in(transactionType); //Get in expression for transacton types for (String s : transactionTypes) { //has a value in = in.value(s);//check if the strings we are looking for exist in the transfer master } predicateList.add(in); } Can I add ihtran back into the entity along with a join column that is both references "IHTRAN"? Or should I use a projection to somehow return Ininvhst along with the ihtran string which is now part of the Intrnmst entity. Or should I use a projection to return Ininvhst and somehow limit Intrnmst just just the ihtran string. Further information: I am using the resulting list of selected Ininvhst objects in a web application, the class which contains the list of Ininvhst objects is transformed into a json object. There are probably quite a few serialization methods that would navigate the object graph the problem is that my current fetch strategy is lazy so it hits the join entity (Intrnmst intrnmst) and there is no Entity Manager available at that point. At this point I have prevented the object from serializing the join column but now I am missing a critical piece of data. I think I've said too much but not knowing enough I don't know what you JPA experts need. What I would like is my original object to have both a string object and be able to join on the same column (ihtran) and have it as a string too, but if this isn't possible or advisable I want to hear what I should do and why. Pseudo code/English is more than fine.

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  • Spring @Autowired messageSource working in Controller but not in other classes?

    - by Jayaprakash
    New updates: As I could not succeed in configuring messageSource through annotations, I attempted to configure messageSource injection through servlet-context.xml. I still have messageSource as null. Please let me know if you need any more specific info, and I will provide. Thanks for your help in advance. servlet-context.xml <beans:bean id="message" class="com.mycompany.myapp.domain.common.message.Message"> <beans:property name="messageSource" ref="messageSource" /> </beans:bean> Spring gives the below information message about spring initialization. INFO : org.springframework.context.annotation.ClassPathBeanDefinitionScanner - JSR-330 'javax.inject.Named' annotation found and supported for component scanning INFO : org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory - Overriding bean definition for bean 'message': replacing [Generic bean: class [com.mycompany.myapp.domain.common.message.Message]; scope=singleton; abstract=false; lazyInit=false; autowireMode=0; dependencyCheck=0; autowireCandidate=true; primary=false; factoryBeanName=null; factoryMethodName=null; initMethodName=null; destroyMethodName=null; defined in file [C:\springsource\tc-server-developer-2.1.0.RELEASE\spring-insight-instance\wtpwebapps\myapp\WEB-INF\classes\com\mycompany\myapp\domain\common\message\Message.class]] with [Generic bean: class [com.mycompany.myapp.domain.common.message.Message]; scope=; abstract=false; lazyInit=false; autowireMode=0; dependencyCheck=0; autowireCandidate=true; primary=false; factoryBeanName=null; factoryMethodName=null; initMethodName=null; destroyMethodName=null; defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/spring/appServlet/servlet-context.xml]] INFO : org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.AutowiredAnnotationBeanPostProcessor - JSR-330 'javax.inject.Inject' annotation found and supported for autowiring INFO : org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory - Pre-instantiating singletons in org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory@1c7caac5: defining beans [org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping#0,org.springframework.format.support.FormattingConversionServiceFactoryBean#0,org.springframework.validation.beanvalidation.LocalValidatorFactoryBean#0,org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter#0,org.springframework.web.servlet.handler.MappedInterceptor#0,org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.HttpRequestHandlerAdapter,org.springframework.web.servlet.resource.ResourceHttpRequestHandler#0,org.springframework.web.servlet.handler.SimpleUrlHandlerMapping#0,xxxDao,message,xxxService,jsonDateSerializer,xxxController,homeController,org.springframework.context.annotation.internalConfigurationAnnotationProcessor,org.springframework.context.annotation.internalAutowiredAnnotationProcessor,org.springframework.context.annotation.internalRequiredAnnotationProcessor,org.springframework.context.annotation.internalCommonAnnotationProcessor,tilesViewResolver,tilesConfigurer,messageSource,org.springframework.web.servlet.handler.MappedInterceptor#1,localeResolver,org.springframework.web.servlet.view.ContentNegotiatingViewResolver#0,validator,resourceBundleLocator,messageInterpolator]; parent: org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory@4f47af3 I have the below definition for message source in 3 classes. In debug mode, I can see that in class xxxController, messageSource is initialized to org.springframework.context.support.ReloadableResourceBundleMessageSource. I have annotated Message class with @Component and xxxHibernateDaoImpl with @Repository. I also included context namespace definition in servlet-context.xml. But in Message class and xxxHibernateDaoImpl class, the messageSource is still null. Why is Spring not initializing messageSource in the two other classes though in xxxController classes, it initializes correctly? @Controller public class xxxController{ @Autowired private ReloadableResourceBundleMessageSource messageSource; } @Component public class Message{ @Autowired private ReloadableResourceBundleMessageSource messageSource; } @Repository("xxxDao") public class xxxHibernateDaoImpl{ @Autowired private ReloadableResourceBundleMessageSource messageSource; } <beans:beans xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-3.0.xsd"> <beans:bean id="messageSource" class="org.springframework.context.support.ReloadableResourceBundleMessageSource"> <beans:property name="basename" value="/resources/messages/messages" /> </beans:bean> <context:component-scan base-package="com.mycompany.myapp"/> </beans>

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  • Problem with large number of markers on the map...

    - by bobetko
    I am working on an Android app that already exists on iPhone. In the app, there is a Map activity that has (I counted) around 800 markers in four groups marked by drawable in four different colors. Each group can be turned on or off. Information about markers I have inside List. I create a mapOverlay for each group, then I attach that overlay to the map. I strongly believe that coding part I did properly. But I will attach my code anyway... The thing is, my Nexus One can't handle map with all those markers. It takes around 15 seconds just to draw 500 markers. Then when all drawn, map is not quite smooth. It is sort of hard to zoom and navigate around. It can be done, but experience is bad and I would like to see if something can be done there. iPhone seems doesn't have problems showing all these markers. It takes roughly about 1-2 seconds to show all of them and zooming and panning is not that bad. Slow down is noticeable but still acceptable. I personally think it is no good to draw all those markers, but app is designed by somebody else and I am not supposed to make any drastic changes. I am not sure what to do here. It seems I will have to come up with different functionality, maybe use GPS location, if known, and draw only markers within some radius, or, if location not known, use center of the screen(map) and draw markers around that. I will have to have reasonable explanation for my bosses in case I make these changes. I appreciate if anybody has any idas. And the code: ... for (int m = 0; m < ArrList.size(); m++) { tName = ArrList.get(m).get("name").toString(); tId = ArrList.get(m).get("id").toString(); tLat = ArrList.get(m).get("lat").toString();; tLng = ArrList.get(m).get("lng").toString();; try { lat = Double.parseDouble(tLat); lng = Double.parseDouble(tLng); p1 = new GeoPoint( (int) (lat * 1E6), (int) (lng * 1E6)); OverlayItem overlayitem = new OverlayItem(p1, tName, tId); itemizedoverlay.addOverlay(overlayitem); } catch (NumberFormatException e) { Log.d(TAG, "NumberFormatException" + e); } } mapOverlays.add(itemizedoverlay); mapView.postInvalidate(); ................................ public class HelloItemizedOverlay extends ItemizedOverlay<OverlayItem> { private ArrayList<OverlayItem> mOverlays = new ArrayList<OverlayItem>(); private Context mContext; public HelloItemizedOverlay(Drawable defaultMarker, Context context) { super(boundCenterBottom(defaultMarker)); mContext = context; } public void addOverlay(OverlayItem overlay) { mOverlays.add(overlay); populate(); } @Override protected OverlayItem createItem(int i) { return mOverlays.get(i); } @Override public int size() { return mOverlays.size(); } @Override protected boolean onTap(int index) { final OverlayItem item = mOverlays.get(index); ... EACH MARKER WILL HAVE ONCLICK EVENT THAT WILL PRODUCE CLICABLE ... BALOON WITH MARKER'S NAME. return true; } }

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  • MVC design in Cocoa - are all 3 always necessary? Also: naming conventions, where to put Controller

    - by Nektarios
    I'm new to MVC although I've read a lot of papers and information on the web. I know it's somewhat ambiguous and there are many different interpretations of MVC patterns.. but the differences seem somewhat minimal My main question is - are M, V, and C always going to be necessary to be doing this right? I haven't seen anyone address this in anything I've read. Examples (I'm working in Cocoa/Obj-c although that shouldn't much matter).. 1) If I have a simple image on my GUI, or a text entry field that is just for a user's convenience and isn't saved or modified, these both would be V (view) but there's no M (no data and no domain processing going on), and no C to bridge them. So I just have some aspects that are "V" - seems fine 2) I have 2 different and visible windows that each have a button on them labeled as "ACTIVATE FOO" - when a user clicks the button on either, both buttons press in and change to say "DEACTIVATE FOO" and a third window appears with label "FOO". Clicking the button again will change the button on both windows to "ACTIVATE FOO" and will remove the third "FOO" window. In this case, my V consists of the buttons on both windows, and I guess also the third window (maybe all 3 windows). I definitely have a C, my Controller object will know about these buttons and windows and will get their clicks and hold generic states regarding windows and buttons. However, whether I have 1 button or 10 button, my window is called "FOO" or my window is called "BAR", this doesn't matter. There's no domain knowledge or data here - just control of views. So in this example, I really have "V" and "C" but no "M" - is that ok? 3) Final example, which I am running in to the most. I have a text entry field as my View. When I enter text in this, say a number representing gravity, I keep it in a Model that may do things like compute physics of a ball while taking in to account my gravity parameter. Here I have a V and an M, but I don't understand why I would need to add a C - a controller would just accept the signals from the View and pass it along to the Model, and vice versa. Being as the C is just a pure passthrough, it's really "junk" code and isn't making things any more reusable in my opinion. In most situations, when something changes I will need to change the C and M both in nearly identical ways. I realize it's probably an MVC beginner's mistake to think most situations call for only V and M.. leads me in to next subject 4) In Cocoa / Xcode / IB, I guess my Controllers should always be an instantiated object in IB? That is, I lay all of my "V" components in IB, and for each collection of View objects (things that are related) I should have an instantiated Controller? And then perhaps my Models should NOT be found in IB, and instead only found as classes in Xcode that tie in with Controller code found there. Is this accurate? This could explain why you'd have a Controller that is not really adding value - because you are keeping consistent.. 5) What about naming these things - for my above example about FOO / BAR maybe something that ends in Controller would be the C, like FancyWindowOpeningController, etc? And for models - should I suffix them with like GravityBallPhysicsModel etc, or should I just name those whatever I like? I haven't seen enough code to know what's out there in the wild and I want to get on the right track early on Thank you in advance for setting me straight or letting me know I'm on the right track. I feel like I'm starting to get it and most of what I say here makes sense, but validation of my guessing would help me feel confident..

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  • PHP script causes segmentation fault then the browser asks me to download the .php file with nothing in it?

    - by John
    I've noticed an unusual problem with some of my php programs. Sometimes when visiting a page like profile.edit.php, the browser throws a dialogue box asking to download profile.edit.php page. When I download it, there's nothing in the file. profile.edit.php is supposed to be a web form that edits user information. I've noticed this on some of my other php pages as well. I look in my apache error logs, and I see a segmentation fault message: [Mon Mar 08 15:40:10 2010] [notice] child pid 480 exit signal Segmentation fault (11) And also, the issue may or may not appear depending on which server I deploy my application too. Additonal Details This doesn't happen all the time though. It only happens sometimes. For example, profile.edit.php will load properly. But as soon as I hit the save button (form action="profile.edit.php?save=true"), then the page asks me to download profile.edit.php. Could it be that sometimes my php scripts consume too much resources? Sample code Upon save action, my profile.edit.php includes a data_access_object.php file. I traced the code in data_access_object.php to this line here if($params[$this->primaryKey]) { $q = "UPDATE $this->tableName SET ".implode(', ', $fields)." WHERE ".$this->primaryKey." = ?$this->primaryKey"; $this->bind($this->primaryKey, $params[$this->primaryKey], $this->tblFields[$this->primaryKey]['mysqlitype']); } else { $q = "INSERT $this->tableName SET ".implode(', ', $fields); } // Code executes perfectly up to this point // echo 'print this'; exit; // if i uncomment this line, profile.edit.php will actually show 'print this'. If I leave it commented, the browser will ask me to download profile.edit.php if(!$this->execute($q)){ $this->errorSave = -3; return false;} // When I jumped into the function execute(), every line executed as expected, right up to the return statement. And if it helps, here's the function execute($sql) in data_access_object.php function execute($sql) { // find all list types and explode them // eg. turn ?listId into ?listId0,?listId1,?listId2 $arrListParam = array_bubble_up('arrayName', $this->arrBind); foreach($arrListParam as $listName) if($listName) { $explodeParam = array(); $arrList = $this->arrBind[$listName]['value']; foreach($arrList as $key=>$val) { $newParamName = $listName.$key; $this->bind($newParamName,$val,$this->arrBind[$listName]['type']); $explodeParam[] = '?'.$newParamName; } $sql = str_replace("?$listName", implode(',',$explodeParam), $sql); } // replace all ?varName with ? for syntax compliance $sqlParsed = preg_replace('/\?[\w\d_\.]+/', '?', $sql); $this->stmt->prepare($sqlParsed); // grab all the parameters from the sql to create bind conditions preg_match_all('/\?[\w\d_\.]+/', $sql, $matches); $matches = $matches[0]; // store bind conditions $types = ''; $params = array(); foreach($matches as $paramName) { $types .= $this->arrBind[str_replace('?', '', $paramName)]['type']; $params[] = $this->arrBind[str_replace('?', '', $paramName)]['value']; } $input = array('types'=>$types) + $params; // bind it if(!empty($types)) call_user_func_array(array($this->stmt, 'bind_param'), $input); $stat = $this->stmt->execute(); if($GLOBALS['DEBUG_SQL']) echo '<p style="font-weight:bold;">SQL error after execution:</p> ' . $this->stmt->error.'<p>&nbsp;</p>'; $this->arrBind = array(); return $stat; }

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  • Node.js, Cygwin and Socket.io walk into a bar... Node.js throws ENOBUFS and everyone dies...

    - by A Wizard Did It
    I'm hoping someone here can help me out, I'm not having much luck figuring this out myself. I'm running node.js version 0.3.1 on Cygwin. I'm using Connect and Socket.io. I seem to be having some random problems with DNS or something, I haven't quite figured it out. The end result is that I the server is running fine, but when a browser attempts to connect to it the initial HTTP Request works, Socket.io connects, and then the server dies (output below). I don't think it has anything to do with the HTTP request because the server gets a lot data posted to it, and it was receiving requests and responding up until my connection that killed it. I've googled around and the closest thing I've found is DNS being set improperly. It's a network program meant to run only on an internal network, so I've set the nameserver x.x.x.x in my /etc/resolv.conf to the internal DNS. I've also added nameserver 8.8.8.8 in addition. I'm not sure what else to check, but would be grateful of any help. In node.exe.stackdump Exception: STATUS_ACCESS_VIOLATION at eip=610C51B9 eax=00000000 ebx=00000001 ecx=00000000 edx=00000308 esi=00000000 edi=010FCCB0 ebp=010FCAEC esp=010FCAC4 program=\\?\E:\cygwin\usr\local\bin\node.exe, pid 3296, thread unknown (0xBEC) cs=0023 ds=002B es=002B fs=0053 gs=002B ss=002B Stack trace: Frame Function Args 010FCAEC 610C51B9 (00000000, 00000000, 00000000, 00000000) 010FCBFC 610C5B55 (00000000, 00000000, 00000000, 00000000) 010FCCBC 610C693A (FFFFFFFF, FFFFFFFF, 750334F3, FFFFFFFE) 010FCD0C 61027CB2 (00000002, F4B994D5, 010FCE64, 00000002) 010FCD98 76306B59 (00000002, 010FCDD4, 763069A4, 00000002) End of stack trace Node Output: node.js:50 throw e; // process.nextTick error, or 'error' event on first tick ^ Error: ENOBUFS, No buffer space available at doConnect (net.js:642:19) at net.js:803:9 at dns.js:166:30 at IOWatcher.callback (dns.js:48:15) EDIT I'm hitting an LDAP server using http.createClient immediately after a client connects to get information, and that seems to be where the problem is that is causing ENOBUFS. I've edited the source to include && errno != ENOBUFS which now prevents the server from dying, however now the LDAP request isn't working. I'm not sure what the problem is that would cause that though. As I mentioned this is an internal only application, so I set the DNS servers in /etc/resolv.conf to the DNS servers that are being applied to the host machine. Not sure if this is part of the issue? EDIT 2 Here's some output from gdb --args ./node_g --debug ../myscript.js. I'm not sure if this is related to ENOBUFS, however, as it seems to be disconnecting immediately after connection with Socket.io [New thread 672.0x100] Error: dll starting at 0x76e30000 not found. Error: dll starting at 0x76250000 not found. Error: dll starting at 0x76e30000 not found. Error: dll starting at 0x76f50000 not found. [New thread 672.0xc90] [New thread 672.0x448] debugger listening on port 5858 [New thread 672.0xbf4] 14 Jan 18:48:57 - socket.io ready - accepting connections [New thread 672.0xed4] [New thread 672.0xd68] [New thread 672.0x1244] [New thread 672.0xf14] 14 Jan 18:49:02 - Initializing client with transport "websocket" assertion "b[1] == 0" failed: file "../src/node.cc", line 933, function: ssize_t node::DecodeWrite(char*, size_t, v8::Handle<v8::Value>, node::encoding) Program received signal SIGABRT, Aborted. 0x7724f861 in ntdll!RtlUpdateClonedSRWLock () from /cygdrive/c/Windows/system32/ntdll.dll (gdb) backtrace #0 0x7724f861 in ntdll!RtlUpdateClonedSRWLock () from /cygdrive/c/Windows/system32/ntdll.dll #1 0x7724f861 in ntdll!RtlUpdateClonedSRWLock () from /cygdrive/c/Windows/system32/ntdll.dll #2 0x75030816 in WaitForSingleObjectEx () from /cygdrive/c/Windows/syswow64/KernelBase.dll #3 0x0000035c in ?? () #4 0x00000000 in ?? () (gdb)

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  • extensible database design: automatic ALTER TABLE or serialize() field BLOB ?

    - by mario
    I want an adaptable database scheme. But still use a simple table data gateway in my application, where I just pass an $data[] array for storing. The basic columns are settled in the initial table scheme. There will however arise a couple of meta fields later (ca 10-20). I want some flexibility there and not adapt the database manually each time, or -worse- change the application logic just because of new fields. So now there are two options which seem workable yet not overkill. But I'm not sure about the scalability or database drawbacks. (1) Automatic ALTER TABLE. Whenever the $data array is to be saved, the keys are compared against the current database columns. New columns get defined before the $data is INSERTed into the table. Actually seems simple enough in test code: function save($data, $table="forum") { // columns if ($new_fields = array_diff(array_keys($data), known_fields($table))) { extend_schema($table, $new_fields, $data); } // save $columns = implode("`, `", array_keys($data)); $qm = str_repeat(",?", count(array_keys($data)) - 1); echo ("INSERT INTO `$table` (`$columns`) VALUES (?$qm);"); function known_fields($table) { return unserialize(@file_get_contents("db:$table")) ?: array("id"); function extend_schema($table, $new_fields, $data) { foreach ($new_fields as $field) { echo("ALTER TABLE `$table` ADD COLUMN `$field` VARCHAR;"); Since it is mostly meta information fields, adding them just as VARCHAR seems sufficient. Nobody will query by them anyway. So the database is really just used as storage here. However, while I might want to add a lot of new $data fields on the go, they will not always be populated. (2) serialize() fields into BLOB. Any new/extraneous meta fields could be opaque to the database. Simply sorting out the virtual fields from the real database columns is simple. And the meta fields can just be serialize()d into a blob/text field then: function ext_save($data, $table="forum") { $db_fields = array("id", "content", "flags", "ext"); // disjoin foreach (array_diff(array_keys($data),$db_fields) as $key) { $data["ext"][$key] = $data[$key]; unset($data[$key]); } $data["ext"] = serialize($data["ext"]); Unserializing and unpacking this 'ext' column on read queries is a minor overhead. The advantage is that there won't be any sparsely filled columns in the database, so I guess it's compacter and faster than the AUTO ALTER TABLE approach. Of course, this method prevents ever using one of the new fields in a WHERE or GROUP BY clause. But I think none of the possible meta fields (user_agent, author_ip, author_img, votes, hits, last_modified, ..) would/should ever be used there anyway. So I currently prefer the 'ext' blob approach, even if it's a one-way ticket. How are such columns called usually? (looking for examples/doc) Would you use XML serialization for (very theoretical) in-database queries? The adapting table scheme seems a "cleaner" interface, even if most columns might remain empty then. How does that impact speed? How many such sparse VARCHAR fields can MySQL/innodb stomach? But most importantly: Is there any standard implementation for this? A pseudo ORM with automatic ALTER TABLE tricks? Storing a simple column list seems workable, but something like pdo::getColumnMeta would be more robust.

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  • Looking for best practise for writing a serial device communication app in C#

    - by cdotlister
    I am pretty new to serial comms, but would like advise on how to best achieve a robust application which speak to and listens to a serial device. I have managed to make use of System.IO.serialport, and successfully connected to, sent data to and recieved from my device. The way things work is this. My application connects to the Com Port and opens the port.... I then connect my device to the com port, and it detects a connectio to the PC, so sends a bit of text. it's really just copyright info, as well as the version of the firmware. I don't do anything with that, except display it in my 'activity' window. The device then waits. I can then query information, but sending a command such as 'QUERY PARAMETER1'. It then replies with something like: 'QUERY PARAMETER1\r\n\r\n76767\r\n\r\n' I then process that. I can then update it by sending 'SET PARAMETER1 12345', and it will reply with 'QUERY PARAMETER1\r\n\r\n12345\r\n\r\n'. All pretty basic. So, what I have done is created a Communication Class. this call is called in it's own thread, and sends data back to the main form... and also allows me to send messages to it. Sending data is easy. Recieving is a bit more tricky. I have employed the use of the datarecieved event, and when ever data comes in, I echo that to my screen. My problem is this: When I send a command, I feel I am being very dodgy in my handling. What I am doing is, lets say I am sending 'QUERY PARAMETER1'. I send the command to the device, I then put 'PARAMETER1' into a global variable, and I do a Thread.Sleep(100). On the data recieved, I then have a bit of logic that checks the incoming data, and sees if the string CONTAINS the value in the gloabl variable. As the reply may be 'QUERY PARAMETER1\r\n\r\n76767\r\n\r\n', it sees that it contains my parameter, parses the string, and returns the value I am looking for, but placing it into another global variable. My sending method was sleeping for 100ms. It then wakes, and checks the returned global variable. If it has data... then I'm happy, and I process the data. Problem is... if the sleep is too short.. it will fail. And I feel it's flakey.. putting stuff into variables.. then waiting... The other option is to use ReadLine instead, but that's very blocking. So I remove the datarecieved method, and instead... just send the data... then call ReadLine(). That may give me better results. There's no time, except when we connect initially, that data comes from the device, without me requesting it. So, maybe readline will be simpler and safer? Is this known as 'Blocking' reads? Also, can I set a timeout? Hopefully someone can guide me.

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  • Strange performance behaviour for 64 bit modulo operation

    - by codymanix
    The last three of these method calls take approx. double the time than the first four. The only difference is that their arguments doesn't fit in integer anymore. But should this matter? The parameter is declared to be long, so it should use long for calculation anyway. Does the modulo operation use another algorithm for numbersmaxint? I am using amd athlon64 3200+, winxp sp3 and vs2008. Stopwatch sw = new Stopwatch(); TestLong(sw, int.MaxValue - 3l); TestLong(sw, int.MaxValue - 2l); TestLong(sw, int.MaxValue - 1l); TestLong(sw, int.MaxValue); TestLong(sw, int.MaxValue + 1l); TestLong(sw, int.MaxValue + 2l); TestLong(sw, int.MaxValue + 3l); Console.ReadLine(); static void TestLong(Stopwatch sw, long num) { long n = 0; sw.Reset(); sw.Start(); for (long i = 3; i < 20000000; i++) { n += num % i; } sw.Stop(); Console.WriteLine(sw.Elapsed); } EDIT: I now tried the same with C and the issue does not occur here, all modulo operations take the same time, in release and in debug mode with and without optimizations turned on: #include "stdafx.h" #include "time.h" #include "limits.h" static void TestLong(long long num) { long long n = 0; clock_t t = clock(); for (long long i = 3; i < 20000000LL*100; i++) { n += num % i; } printf("%d - %lld\n", clock()-t, n); } int main() { printf("%i %i %i %i\n\n", sizeof (int), sizeof(long), sizeof(long long), sizeof(void*)); TestLong(3); TestLong(10); TestLong(131); TestLong(INT_MAX - 1L); TestLong(UINT_MAX +1LL); TestLong(INT_MAX + 1LL); TestLong(LLONG_MAX-1LL); getchar(); return 0; } EDIT2: Thanks for the great suggestions. I found that both .net and c (in debug as well as in release mode) does't not use atomically cpu instructions to calculate the remainder but they call a function that does. In the c program I could get the name of it which is "_allrem". It also displayed full source comments for this file so I found the information that this algorithm special cases the 32bit divisors instead of dividends which was the case in the .net application. I also found out that the performance of the c program really is only affected by the value of the divisor but not the dividend. Another test showed that the performance of the remainder function in the .net program depends on both the dividend and divisor. BTW: Even simple additions of long long values are calculated by a consecutive add and adc instructions. So even if my processor calls itself 64bit, it really isn't :( EDIT3: I now ran the c app on a windows 7 x64 edition, compiled with visual studio 2010. The funny thing is, the performance behavior stays the same, although now (I checked the assembly source) true 64 bit instructions are used.

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  • Put/Post json not working with ODataController if Model has Int64

    - by daryl
    I have this Data Object with an Int64 column: [TableAttribute(Name="dbo.vw_RelationLineOfBusiness")] [DataServiceKey("ProviderRelationLobId")] public partial class RelationLineOfBusiness { #region Column Mappings private System.Guid _Lineofbusiness; private System.String _ContractNumber; private System.Nullable<System.Int32> _ProviderType; private System.String _InsuredProviderType; private System.Guid _ProviderRelationLobId; private System.String _LineOfBusinessDesc; private System.String _CultureCode; private System.String _ContractDesc; private System.Nullable<System.Guid> _ProviderRelationKey; private System.String _ProviderRelationNbr; **private System.Int64 _AssignedNbr;** When I post/Put object through my OData controller using HttpClient and NewtsonSoft: partial class RelationLineOfBusinessController : ODataController { public HttpResponseMessage PutRelationLineOfBusiness([FromODataUri] System.Guid key, Invidasys.VidaPro.Model.RelationLineOfBusiness entity) the entity object is null and the error in my modelstate : "Cannot convert a primitive value to the expected type 'Edm.Int64'. See the inner exception for more details." I noticed when I do a get on my object using the below URL: Invidasys.Rest.Service/VidaPro/RelationLineOfBusiness(guid'c6824edc-23b4-4f76-a777-108d482c0fee') my json looks like the following - I noticed that the AssignedNbr is treated as a string. { "odata.metadata":"Invidasys.Rest.Service/VIDAPro/$metadata#RelationLineOfBusiness/@Element", "Lineofbusiness":"ba129c95-c5bb-4e40-993e-c28ca86fffe4","ContractNumber":null,"ProviderType":null, "InsuredProviderType":"PCP","ProviderRelationLobId":"c6824edc-23b4-4f76-a777-108d482c0fee", "LineOfBusinessDesc":"MEDICAID","CultureCode":"en-US","ContractDesc":null, "ProviderRelationKey":"a2d3b61f-3d76-46f4-9887-f2b0c8966914","ProviderRelationNbr":"4565454645", "AssignedNbr":"1000000045","Ispar":true,"ProviderTypeDesc":null,"InsuredProviderTypeDesc":"Primary Care Physician", "StartDate":"2012-01-01T00:00:00","EndDate":"2014-01-01T00:00:00","Created":"2014-06-13T10:59:33.567", "CreatedBy":"Michael","Updated":"2014-06-13T10:59:33.567","UpdatedBy":"Michael" } When I do a PUT with httpclient the JSON is showing up in my restful services as the following and the json for the AssignedNbr column is not in quotes which results in the restful services failing to build the JSON back to an object. I played with the JSON and put the AssignedNbr in quotes and the request goes through correctly. {"AssignedNbr":1000000045,"ContractDesc":null,"ContractNumber":null,"Created":"/Date(1402682373567-0700)/", "CreatedBy":"Michael","CultureCode":"en-US","EndDate":"/Date(1388559600000-0700)/","InsuredProviderType":"PCP", "InsuredProviderTypeDesc":"Primary Care Physician","Ispar":true,"LineOfBusinessDesc":"MEDICAID", "Lineofbusiness":"ba129c95-c5bb-4e40-993e-c28ca86fffe4","ProviderRelationKey":"a2d3b61f-3d76-46f4-9887-f2b0c8966914", "ProviderRelationLobId":"c6824edc-23b4-4f76-a777-108d482c0fee","ProviderRelationNbr":"4565454645","ProviderType":null, "ProviderTypeDesc":null,"StartDate":"/Date(1325401200000-0700)/","Updated":"/Date(1408374995760-0700)/","UpdatedBy":"ED"} The reason we wanted to expose our business model as restful services was to hide any data validation and expose all our databases in format that is easy to develop against. I looked at the DataServiceContext to see if it would work and it does but it uses XML to communicate between the restful services and the client. Which would work but DataServiceContext does not give the level of messaging that HttpRequestMessage/HttpResponseMessage gives me for informing users on the errors/missing information with their post. We are planning on supporting multiple devices from our restful services platform but that requires that I can use NewtonSoft Json as well as Microsoft's DataContractJsonSerializer if need be. My question is for a restful service standpoint - is there a way I can configure/code the restful services to take in the AssignedNbr as in JSON as without the quotes. Or from a JSON standpoint is their a way I can get the JSON built without getting into the serializing business nor do I want our clients to have deal with custom serializers if they want to write their own apps against our restful services. Any suggestions? Thanks.

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  • Make interchangeable class types via pointer casting only, without having to allocate any new objects?

    - by HostileFork
    UPDATE: I do appreciate "don't want that, want this instead" suggestions. They are useful, especially when provided in context of the motivating scenario. Still...regardless of goodness/badness, I've become curious to find a hard-and-fast "yes that can be done legally in C++11" vs "no it is not possible to do something like that". I want to "alias" an object pointer as another type, for the sole purpose of adding some helper methods. The alias cannot add data members to the underlying class (in fact, the more I can prevent that from happening the better!) All aliases are equally applicable to any object of this type...it's just helpful if the type system can hint which alias is likely the most appropriate. There should be no information about any specific alias that is ever encoded in the underlying object. Hence, I feel like you should be able to "cheat" the type system and just let it be an annotation...checked at compile time, but ultimately irrelevant to the runtime casting. Something along these lines: Node<AccessorFoo>* fooPtr = Node<AccessorFoo>::createViaFactory(); Node<AccessorBar>* barPtr = reinterpret_cast< Node<AccessorBar>* >(fooPtr); Under the hood, the factory method is actually making a NodeBase class, and then using a similar reinterpret_cast to return it as a Node<AccessorFoo>*. The easy way to avoid this is to make these lightweight classes that wrap nodes and are passed around by value. Thus you don't need casting, just Accessor classes that take the node handle to wrap in their constructor: AccessorFoo foo (NodeBase::createViaFactory()); AccessorBar bar (foo.getNode()); But if I don't have to pay for all that, I don't want to. That would involve--for instance--making a special accessor type for each sort of wrapped pointer (AccessorFooShared, AccessorFooUnique, AccessorFooWeak, etc.) Having these typed pointers being aliased for one single pointer-based object identity is preferable, and provides a nice orthogonality. So back to that original question: Node<AccessorFoo>* fooPtr = Node<AccessorFoo>::createViaFactory(); Node<AccessorBar>* barPtr = reinterpret_cast< Node<AccessorBar>* >(fooPtr); Seems like there would be some way to do this that might be ugly but not "break the rules". According to ISO14882:2011(e) 5.2.10-7: An object pointer can be explicitly converted to an object pointer of a different type.70 When a prvalue v of type "pointer to T1" is converted to the type "pointer to cv T2", the result is static_cast(static_cast(v)) if both T1 and T2 are standard-layout types (3.9) and the alignment requirements of T2 are no stricter than those of T1, or if either type is void. Converting a prvalue of type "pointer to T1" to the type "pointer to T2" (where T1 and T2 are object types and where the alignment requirements of T2 are no stricter than those of T1) and back to its original type yields the original pointer value. The result of any other such pointer conversion is unspecified. Drilling into the definition of a "standard-layout class", we find: has no non-static data members of type non-standard-layout-class (or array of such types) or reference, and has no virtual functions (10.3) and no virtual base classes (10.1), and has the same access control (clause 11) for all non-static data members, and has no non-standard-layout base classes, and either has no non-static data member in the most-derived class and at most one base class with non-static data members, or has no base classes with non-static data members, and has no base classes of the same type as the first non-static data member. Sounds like working with something like this would tie my hands a bit with no virtual methods in the accessors or the node. Yet C++11 apparently has std::is_standard_layout to keep things checked. Can this be done safely? Appears to work in gcc-4.7, but I'd like to be sure I'm not invoking undefined behavior.

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  • mySQL to .XSL help

    - by kielie
    hi guys, I have to create a script that takes a mySQL table, and exports it into .XSL format, and then saves that file into a specified folder on the web host. I got it working, but now I can't seem to get it to automatically save the file to the location without prompting the user. It needs to run every day at a specified time, so it can save the previous days leads into a .XSL file on the web host. Here is the code: <?php // DB TABLE Exporter // // How to use: // // Place this file in a safe place, edit the info just below here // browse to the file, enjoy! // CHANGE THIS STUFF FOR WHAT YOU NEED TO DO $dbhost = "-"; $dbuser = "-"; $dbpass = "-"; $dbname = "-"; $dbtable = "-"; // END CHANGING STUFF $cdate = date("Y-m-d"); // get current date // first thing that we are going to do is make some functions for writing out // and excel file. These functions do some hex writing and to be honest I got // them from some where else but hey it works so I am not going to question it // just reuse // This one makes the beginning of the xls file function xlsBOF() { echo pack("ssssss", 0x809, 0x8, 0x0, 0x10, 0x0, 0x0); return; } // This one makes the end of the xls file function xlsEOF() { echo pack("ss", 0x0A, 0x00); return; } // this will write text in the cell you specify function xlsWriteLabel($Row, $Col, $Value ) { $L = strlen($Value); echo pack("ssssss", 0x204, 8 + $L, $Row, $Col, 0x0, $L); echo $Value; return; } // make the connection an DB query $dbc = mysql_connect( $dbhost , $dbuser , $dbpass ) or die( mysql_error() ); mysql_select_db( $dbname ); $q = "SELECT * FROM ".$dbtable." WHERE date ='$cdate'"; $qr = mysql_query( $q ) or die( mysql_error() ); // Ok now we are going to send some headers so that this // thing that we are going make comes out of browser // as an xls file. // header("Pragma: public"); header("Expires: 0"); header("Cache-Control: must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0"); header("Content-Type: application/force-download"); header("Content-Type: application/octet-stream"); header("Content-Type: application/download"); //this line is important its makes the file name header("Content-Disposition: attachment;filename=export_".$dbtable.".xls "); header("Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary "); // start the file xlsBOF(); // these will be used for keeping things in order. $col = 0; $row = 0; // This tells us that we are on the first row $first = true; while( $qrow = mysql_fetch_assoc( $qr ) ) { // Ok we are on the first row // lets make some headers of sorts if( $first ) { foreach( $qrow as $k => $v ) { // take the key and make label // make it uppper case and replace _ with ' ' xlsWriteLabel( $row, $col, strtoupper( ereg_replace( "_" , " " , $k ) ) ); $col++; } // prepare for the first real data row $col = 0; $row++; $first = false; } // go through the data foreach( $qrow as $k => $v ) { // write it out xlsWriteLabel( $row, $col, $v ); $col++; } // reset col and goto next row $col = 0; $row++; } xlsEOF(); exit(); ?> I tried using, fwrite to accomplish this, but it didn't seem to go very well, I removed the header information too, but nothing worked. Here is the original code, as I found it, any help would be greatly appreciated. :-) Thanx in advance. :-)

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  • How to cope with developing against a poor 3rd party API/application?

    - by wsanville
    I'm a web developer, and my organization has recently started to use a proprietary ASP.NET CMS for our web sites. I was excited to get started using the CMS, thinking it would bring a lot of value to our end users and be fun to work with, since my skills are a good match for the types of projects we're using it for. That was about a year ago. Since then, we've ran into all kinds of issues, from blatant bugs in the product, to nasty edge cases in the APIs, to extremely poor documentation for developers. On about a weekly basis, we are forced to pursue workarounds and rewrite some of the out of the box functionality, and even find some of the basic features unusable. In many cases, since this is a closed source application (and obfuscated of course), there's nothing we can do as developers to solve these issues. So my question is, how does one attempt to develop a good application in such a scenario? The application mostly works when using the the exact out of the box behavior, or using one of the company's starter sites. However, my attempts to use the underlying APIs to implement slightly different, yet reasonable behavior has proved to be extremely time consuming (not to mention just as buggy), given the lack of good information about the APIs. I've given this a lot of thought, and my conflicting viewpoints are the following: Strongly advise against any customization to the CMS, as development time will rise exponentially, or even have an extremely high chance of failing. While this is accurate, I do not want to give the impression that I am not willing to code my own solutions to problems and take the initiative to implement something difficult or complex. I don't want to be perceived as someone who is not motivated, lazy, or not knowledgeable to do anything complex, because this is simply not the case. I love coding my own solutions, trying new/difficult things, I just dislike the vendor app we're using. Continue on the path I'm on now, which is hacking my way past all issues I encounter and try my best to deliver an application that meets the needs and specs exactly. My goals are to make it as seamless and easy to use as possible to the end user, even when integrating the CMS with our other applications internally. The problem I'm finding with this approach is it is very time consuming. I open support cases with the vendor on a regular basis to solve issues and to gain knowledge of their APIs, but this is extremely time consuming, and in some cases it leads to dead ends. I post on the vendors forums on a regular basis but have become frustrated as most of my posts get 0 replies. So, what would you, a reasonable developer, do in this case? How can I make the best of the situation? And just for fun, here are some of the code smells and anti-patterns I've dealt with using the product (aside from their own code blatantly failing): Use of StringBuilder to concatenate a giant string that is hard coded and does not change. They use it to concatenate their Javascript and write it out into the body tags of their pages. Methods that accept object or Microsoft.VisualBasic.Collection as the parameters. In the case of the VB Collection, the data is not a list of any kind, it's used instead of making a class. Methods that return a Hashtable of VB Collections Method names of the form MethodName_v45, MethodName_v20, etc... Multiple classes with the same name in different namespaces with different functionality/behavior. Intellisense that reads "Note: this parameter is non functional" Complete lack of coding standards, API is filled with magic numbers and magic strings. Properties with a getter of type object that accepts totally different things, like enum or strings, and throw exceptions at runtime when you pass in something not supported. And much, much, more...

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