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  • Getting wierd issue with TO_NUMBER function in Oracle

    - by Fazal
    I have been getting an intermittent issue when executing to_number function in the where clause on a varchar2 column if number of records exceed a certain number n. I used n as there is no exact number of records on which it happens. On one DB it happens after n was 1 million on another when it was 0.1. million. E.g. I have a table with 10 million records say Table Country which has field1 varchar2 containing numberic data and Id If I do a query as an example select * from country where to_number(field1) = 23 and id 1 and id < 100000 This works But if i do the query select * from country where to_number(field1) = 23 and id 1 and id < 100001 It fails saying invalid number Next I try the query select * from country where to_number(field1) = 23 and id 2 and id < 100001 It works again As I only got invalid number it was confusing, but in the log file it said Memory Notification: Library Cache Object loaded into SGA Heap size 3823K exceeds notification threshold (2048K) KGL object name :with sqlplan as ( select c006 object_owner, c007 object_type,c008 object_name from htmldb_collections where COLLECTION_NAME='HTMLDB_QUERY_PLAN' and c007 in ('TABLE','INDEX','MATERIALIZED VIEW','INDEX (UNIQUE)')), ws_schemas as( select schema from wwv_flow_company_schemas where security_group_id = :flow_security_group_id), t as( select s.object_owner table_owner,s.object_name table_name, d.OBJECT_ID from sqlplan s,sys.dba_objects d It seems its related to SGA size, but google did not give me much help on this. Does anyone have any idea about this issue with TO_NUMBER or oracle functions for large data?

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  • django join-like expansion of queryset

    - by jimbob
    I have a list of Persons each which have multiple fields that I usually filter what's upon, using the object_list generic view. Each person can have multiple Comments attached to them, each with a datetime and a text string. What I ultimately want to do is have the option to filter comments based on dates. class Person(models.Model): name = models.CharField("Name", max_length=30) ## has ~30 other fields, usually filtered on as well class Comment(models.Model): date = models.DateTimeField() person = models.ForeignKey(Person) comment = models.TextField("Comment Text", max_length=1023) What I want to do is get a queryset like Person.objects.filter(comment__date__gt=date(2011,1,1)).order_by('comment__date') send that queryset to object_list and be able to only see the comments ordered by date with only so many objects on a page. E.g., if "Person A" has comments 12/3/11, 1/2/11, 1/5/11, "Person B" has no comments, and person C has a comment on 1/3, I would see: "Person A", 1/2 - comment "Person C", 1/3 - comment "Person A", 1/5 - comment I would strongly prefer not to have to switch to filtering based on Comments.objects.filter(), as that would make me have to largely repeat large sections of code in the both the view and template. Right now if I tried executing the following command, I will get a queryset returning (PersonA, PersonC, PersonA), but if I try rendering that in a template each persons comment_set will contain all their comments even if they aren't in the date range. Ideally they're would be some sort of functionality where I could expand out a Person queryset's comment_set into a larger queryset that can be sorted and ordered based on the comment and put into a object_list generic view. This normally is fairly simple to do in SQL with a JOIN, but I don't want to abandon the ORM, which I use everywhere else.

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  • Testing ActionFilterAttributes with MSpec

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I'm currently trying to grasp MSpec, mainly to learn new ways of (T/B)DD to be able to make an educated decision on which technology to use. Previously, I've mostly (read: only) used the built-in MSTest framework with Moq, so BDD is quite new for me. I'm writing an ASP.NET MVC app, and I want to implement PRG. Last time I did this, I used action filters to export and import ModelState via TempData, so that I could return a RedirectResult and the validation errors would still be there when the user got the view. I tested that scenario by verifying two things: a) That the ExportModelStateAttribute I had written was applied (among tests for my controller) b) That the attribute worked (among tests for action filter attributes) However, in BDD I've understood I should be even more concerned with behavior, and even less with implementation. This means I should probably just verify that the model state is in tempdata when the action has finished executing - not necessarily that it's done via an attribute. To further complicate things, attributes are not run when calling the action directly in the test, so I can't just call the action and see if the job's been done. How should I spec/test this in MSpec?

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  • Does cout need to be terminated with a semicolon ?

    - by Philippe Harewood
    I am reading Bjarne Stroustrup's Programming : Principles and Practice Using C++ In the drill section for Chapter 2 it talks about various ways to look at typing errors when compiling the hello_world program #include "std_lib_facilities.h" int main() //C++ programs start by executing the function main { cout << "Hello, World!\n", // output "Hello, World!" keep_window_open(); // wait for a character to be entered return 0; } In particular this section asks: Think of at least five more errors you might have made typing in your program (e.g. forget keep_window_open(), leave the Caps Lock key on while typing a word, or type a comma instead of a semicolon) and try each to see what happens when you try to compile and run those versions. For the cout line, you can see that there is a comma instead of a semicolon. This compiles and runs (for me). Is it making an assumption ( like in the javascript question: Why use semicolon? ) that the statement has been terminated ? Because when I try for keep_terminal_open(); the compiler informs me of the semicolon exclusion.

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  • How to detect .NET WPF memory leak or GC long run?

    - by Néstor Sánchez A.
    I have the next very strange situation and problem: .NET 4.0 application for diagram editing (WPF). Runs ok in my PC: 8GM RAM, 3.0GHz, i7 quad-core. While creating objects (mostly diagram nodes and connectors, plus all the undo/redo information) the TaskManager show, as expected, some memory usage "jumps" (up and down). These mem-usage "jumps" also remains executing AFTER user interaction ended. Maybe this is the GC cleaning/regorganizing memory? To see what is going on, I've used the Ants mem profiler, but somewhat it prevents those "jumps" to happen after user interaction. PROBLEM: It Freezes/Hangs after seconds or minutes of usage in some slow/weak laptos/netbooks of my beta testers (under 2GHz of speed and under 2GB of RAM). I was thinking of a memory leak, but... EDIT: Also, there is the case that the memory usage grows and grows until collapse (only in slow machines). In a Windows XP Mode machine (VM in Win 7) with only 512MB of RAM Assigned it works fine without mem-usage "jumps" after user interaction (no GC cleaning?!). So, I really have a big trouble because I cannot reproduce the error, only see these strange behaviour (mem jumps), and the tool supposed to show me what is happening is hiding the problem (like the "observer's paradox"). Any ideas on what's happening and how to solve it?

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  • Python CGI Premature end of script error depending on script parameters.

    - by nickengland
    I have a python script which should parse a file and produce some output to disk, as well as returning a webpage linking to the outputted files. When run with a file posted from the HTML form I get no HTML output back, just a 500 error page and the error_log contains the line: [Mon Apr 19 15:03:23 2010] [error] [client xxx.xxx.121.79] Premature end of script headers: uploadcml.py, referer: http://xxx.ch.cam.ac.uk:9000/ However, the files which the script should be saving are indeed saved to disk. If I run it without any arguments, the script returns the correct HTML indicating no file was parsed. All the information I have found on the web about Premature end of script headers implies it is due to either a missing header, or lack of permissions on the python script but neither can apply to me. The first lines of the script are: #!/home/nwe23/bin/bin/python import cgitb; cgitb.enable() import cgi import pybel,openbabel import random print "Content-Type: text/html" print so when run, I can see no way for it to fail to output the header, and it DOES output the header when run without a file to parse, but when given a file produces the error(but still parsed the file and saves the output to disk!). Does anyone know how this is happening and what can be done to fix it? I have tried adding wrongly-indented gibberish (such as foobar) at various points in the file, and this results in adding an indent error to the error_log wherever it is, even if its the very last line in the script. The Premature script headers error remains though. Does this mean the script is executing all the way through?

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  • Importing into a Exported object with MEF

    - by Nathan W
    I'm sorry if this question has already been asked 100 times, but I'm really struggling to get it to work. Say I have have three projects. Core.dll Has common interfaces Shell.exe Loads all modules in assembly folder. References Core.dll ModuleA.dll Exports Name, Version of module. References Core.dll Shell.exe has a [Export] that contains an single instance of a third party application that I need to inject into all loaded modules. So far the code that I have in Shell.exe is: static void Main(string[] args) { ThirdPartyApp map = new ThirdPartyApp(); var ad = new AssemblyCatalog(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly()); var dircatalog = new DirectoryCatalog("."); var a = new AggregateCatalog(dircatalog, ad); // Not to sure what to do here. } class Test { [Export(typeof(ThirdPartyApp))] public ThirdPartyApp Instance { get; set; } [Import(typeof(IModule))] public IModule Module { get; set; } } I need to create a instance of Test, and load Instance with map from the Main method then load the Module from ModuleA.dll that is in the executing directory then [Import] Instance into the loaded module. In ModuleA I have a class like this: [Export(IModule)] class Module : IModule { [Import(ThirdPartyApp)] public ThirdPartyApp Instance {get;set;} } I know I'm half way there I just don't know how to put it all together, mainly with loading up test with a instance of map from Main. Could anyone help me with this.

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  • Remove redundant SQL code

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Code The following code calculates the slope and intercept for a linear regression against a slathering of data. It then applies the equation y = mx + b against the same result set to calculate the value of the regression line for each row. Can the two separate sub-selects be joined so that the data and its slope/intercept are calculated without executing the data gathering part of the query twice? SELECT AVG(D.AMOUNT) as AMOUNT, Y.YEAR * ymxb.SLOPE + ymxb.INTERCEPT as REGRESSION_LINE, Y.YEAR as YEAR, MAKEDATE(Y.YEAR,1) as AMOUNT_DATE FROM CITY C, STATION S, YEAR_REF Y, MONTH_REF M, DAILY D, (SELECT ((avg(t.AMOUNT * t.YEAR)) - avg(t.AMOUNT) * avg(t.YEAR)) / (stddev( t.AMOUNT ) * stddev( t.YEAR )) as CORRELATION, ((sum(t.YEAR) * sum(t.AMOUNT)) - (count(1) * sum(t.YEAR * t.AMOUNT))) / (power(sum(t.YEAR), 2) - count(1) * sum(power(t.YEAR, 2))) as SLOPE, ((sum( t.YEAR ) * sum( t.YEAR * t.AMOUNT )) - (sum( t.AMOUNT ) * sum(power(t.YEAR, 2)))) / (power(sum(t.YEAR), 2) - count(1) * sum(power(t.YEAR, 2))) as INTERCEPT FROM ( SELECT AVG(D.AMOUNT) as AMOUNT, Y.YEAR as YEAR, MAKEDATE(Y.YEAR,1) as AMOUNT_DATE FROM CITY C, STATION S, YEAR_REF Y, MONTH_REF M, DAILY D WHERE $X{ IN, C.ID, CityCode } AND SQRT( POW( C.LATITUDE - S.LATITUDE, 2 ) + POW( C.LONGITUDE - S.LONGITUDE, 2 ) ) < $P{Radius} AND S.STATION_DISTRICT_ID = Y.STATION_DISTRICT_ID AND Y.YEAR BETWEEN 1900 AND 2009 AND M.YEAR_REF_ID = Y.ID AND M.CATEGORY_ID = $P{CategoryCode} AND M.ID = D.MONTH_REF_ID AND D.DAILY_FLAG_ID <> 'M' GROUP BY Y.YEAR ) t ) ymxb WHERE $X{ IN, C.ID, CityCode } AND SQRT( POW( C.LATITUDE - S.LATITUDE, 2 ) + POW( C.LONGITUDE - S.LONGITUDE, 2 ) ) < $P{Radius} AND S.STATION_DISTRICT_ID = Y.STATION_DISTRICT_ID AND Y.YEAR BETWEEN 1900 AND 2009 AND M.YEAR_REF_ID = Y.ID AND M.CATEGORY_ID = $P{CategoryCode} AND M.ID = D.MONTH_REF_ID AND D.DAILY_FLAG_ID <> 'M' GROUP BY Y.YEAR Question How do I execute the duplicate bits only once per query, instead of twice? The duplicate bit is the WHERE clause: $X{ IN, C.ID, CityCode } AND SQRT( POW( C.LATITUDE - S.LATITUDE, 2 ) + POW( C.LONGITUDE - S.LONGITUDE, 2 ) ) < $P{Radius} AND S.STATION_DISTRICT_ID = Y.STATION_DISTRICT_ID AND Y.YEAR BETWEEN 1900 AND 2009 AND M.YEAR_REF_ID = Y.ID AND M.CATEGORY_ID = $P{CategoryCode} AND M.ID = D.MONTH_REF_ID AND D.DAILY_FLAG_ID <> 'M' Related http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1595659/how-to-eliminate-duplicate-calculation-in-sql Thank you!

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  • UITableView cell appearance update not working - iPhone

    - by Jack Nutkins
    I have this piece of code which I'm using to set the alpha and accessibility of one of my tables cells dependent on a value stored in user defaults: - (void) viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated{ [self reloadTableData]; } - (void) reloadTableData { if ([[userDefaults objectForKey:@"canDeleteReceipts"] isEqualToString:@"0"]) { NSIndexPath *path = [NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:0 inSection:8]; UITableViewCell *cell = [self.tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:path]; cell.contentView.alpha = 0.2; cell.userInteractionEnabled = NO; } else { NSIndexPath *path = [NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:0 inSection:8]; UITableViewCell *cell = [self.tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:path]; cell.contentView.alpha = 1; cell.userInteractionEnabled = YES; } if ([[userDefaults objectForKey:@"canDeleteMileages"] isEqualToString:@"0"]) { NSIndexPath *path = [NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:1 inSection:8]; UITableViewCell *cell = [self.tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:path]; cell.contentView.alpha = 0.2; cell.userInteractionEnabled = NO; } else { NSIndexPath *path = [NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:1 inSection:8]; UITableViewCell *cell = [self.tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:path]; cell.contentView.alpha = 1; cell.userInteractionEnabled = YES; } if ([[userDefaults objectForKey:@"canDeleteAll"] isEqualToString:@"0"]) { NSIndexPath *path = [NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:2 inSection:8]; UITableViewCell *cell = [self.tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:path]; cell.contentView.alpha = 0.2; cell.userInteractionEnabled = NO; NSLog(@"In Here"); } else { NSIndexPath *path = [NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:2 inSection:8]; UITableViewCell *cell = [self.tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:path]; cell.contentView.alpha = 1; cell.userInteractionEnabled = YES; } } The value stored in userDefaults is '0' so the cell in section 8 row 2 should be greyed out and disabled, however this doesn't happen and the cell is still selectable with an alpha of 1... The log statement 'In Here' is called so it seems to be executing the right code, but that code doesn't seem to be doing anything. Can anyone explain what I've done wrong? Thanks, Jack

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  • sql server mdf file database attachment

    - by jnsohnumr
    hello all i'm having a bear of a time getting visual studio 2010 (ultimate i think) to properly attach to my database. it was moved from original spot to #MYAPP#/#MYAPP#.Web/App_Data/#MDF_FILE#.mdf. I have three instances of sql server running on this machine. i have tried to replace the old mdf file with my new one and cannot get the connectionstring right for it. what i'm really wanting to do is to just open some DB instance, run a DB create script. Then I can have a DB that was generated via my edmx (generate database from model) in silverlight business application (c#) right now, when i go to server explorer in VS, choose add new connection, choose MS SQL Server Database FIle (SqlClient), choose my file location (app_data directory), use windows authentication, and hit the Test Connection button I get the following error: Unable to open the physical file "". Operating system error 5: "5(Access Denied.)". An attempt to attach to an auto-named database for file"" failed. A database with the same name exists, or specified file cannot be opened, or it is located on UNC share. The mdf file was created on the same machine by connecting to (local) on the sql server management studio, getting a new query, pasting in the SQL from the generated ddl file, adding a CREATE DATABASE [NcrCarDatabase]; GO before the pasted SQL, and executing the query. I then disconnected from the DB in management studio, closed management studio, navigated to the DATA directory for that instance, and copying the mdf and ldf files to my application's app_data folder. I am then trying to connect to the same file inside visual studio. I hope that gives more clarity to my problems :). Connection string is: Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=C:\SourceCode\NcrCarDatabase\NcrCarDatabase.Web\App_Data\NcrCarDatabase.mdf;Integrated Security=True;Connect Timeout=30;User Instance=True

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  • Google AJAX Transliteration API :- How do i translate many elements in page to some language at one

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, I have many elements on page and all of which i want to translate to some language. The language is not the same for all fields, that is, for 1st field it may be fr and for third field it may be en then again for 7th field it may be pa. Basically i wrote the code and it's working :- <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ google.load("language", "1"); window.onload = function(){ var elemPostTitles = document.getElementsByTagName("h4"); var flag = true; for(var i = 0 ; i < elemPostTitles.length ; i++){ while(flag == false){ } var postTitleElem = elemPostTitles[i]; var postContentElem = document.getElementById("postContent_" + i); var postTitle = postTitleElem.innerHTML; var postContent = postContentElem.innerHTML; var languageCode = document.getElementById("languageCode_" + i).value; google.language.detect(postTitle, function(result) { if (!result.error && result.language) { google.language.translate(postTitle, result.language, languageCode, function(result) { flag = true; if (result.translation) { postTitleElem.innerHTML = result.translation; } }); } }); flag = false; } As you can see, what i am trying to do is restrict the loop from traversing until the result of previous ajax call is receieved. If i don't do this only the last field gets translated. My code works nicely, but because of the infinite loop, i keep getting errors from Mozilla to "stop executing scripts". How do i get rid of this? Also, is my approach correct? Or some inbuilt function is available which can ease my task? Thanks in advance :)

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  • An online php debugger/code editor

    - by Zirak
    It's a simple deal: I'm sometimes in places where I don't have my laptop, and find myself with spare time and an idea for a project. But unfortunately, I can't do anything about it. I tried a variety of solutions, which include running IDEs (like phpstorm or Aptana) on a disc-on-key or cd (very slow and unappealing), trying several online solutions (like http://phpanywhere.net) and found that all of them are either buggy, overloaded or underloaded with features, just difficult to use, require FTP etc etc. All that is required here is a syntax highlighting and debugging alerts; no actual running of code. So the question is split into two: 1)Do you know of a good online php editor that you've used and enjoyed? 2)If no, then how would you go about making one? The second one seems a bit general, so I'll try and expand...It might be a good idea; if you can't find one, make one. The question is about the concept of making a syntax highlighter (shouldn't be too difficult), and the difficult part of catching php errors WITHOUT executing any php code. Thank you in advance.

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  • Determining when stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished

    - by alku83
    I have a UIWebView which loads up an HTML page. This page has two buttons on it, say Exit and Submit. I don't want users to be able to click the Exit button, so once the page has finished loading (ie. webViewDidFinishLoad is called), I use stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString to remove one of these buttons, by manipulating the HTML. I also disable user interaction on the UIWebView on webViewDidStartLoad, and enable it again on webViewDidFinishLoad. The problem I am finding is that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString takes a second or two to complete, and it seems to be done in it's own thread. So what is happening is that webViewDidFinishLoad is called, user interaction is enabled on the UIWebView, and if the user is quick, they can click the Exit button before stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished. As stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString seems to be on it's own thread with no way to know when it's finished (it doesnt call webViewDidFinishLoad), the only way to completely prevent users from tapping the Exit button that I can see is to only enable user interaction on the UIWebView after some delay, which is unreliable (how can I really know how long to delay for?). Am I correct in that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is done on it's on thread, and I have no way of being able to tell when it's finished? Any other suggestions for how to get around this problem? EDIT: In short, what I want to know is if it is possible to disable a UIWebView while stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is executing, and re-enable the UIWebView when the javascript is finished. EDIT 2: There's an article here which seems to imply you can somehow poll the JS engine to see when it's finished, but I can't find any other references saying the same thing: http://drnicwilliams.com/2008/11/10/to-webkit-or-not-to-webkit-within-your-iphone-app/ EDIT 3 Based on the answer from Brad Smith, it seems that I actually need to know when the UIWebView has finished loading itself after the javascript has executed. It's looking more and more like I just need to put a delay of sorts in there.

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  • Do applescript repeat loops reflect changes instantly?

    - by user1159454
    I'm making a script to open multiple folders in a directory, and it's not working as planned. I've tried outlining it and walking through the steps one by one pretending I'm the computer executing it but when I run it the outcome is very different. It uses repeat and repeat with a lot. The repeat repeats for as long as there is ANYTHING in a certain array (I mean List) and the repeat with is INSIDE of the first repeat, which repeats it's own loop with everything in the array at that time. Now, one of the actions of the repeat with loop is to change the array. Which I think would change the loop would it not? Example (foldList is A, B, C) repeat until {} repeat with folder_name in foldList do something set foldList to 1, 2, 3 end repeat end repeat What I would THINK that does is iterate through the first loop as "A", but before hitting the end it would change foldList to 1, 2, 3. So instead of going through the next loop as "B" I'd think it would go as "1" instead. But if it did that then I don't think my manual walkthrough would be off by so much. So I'm under the assumption that in Applescript when you're in a repeat with, regardless of changing the List you WILL end that loop on the last item of the first List (before the list was replaced.) Is this right?

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  • Corrupt UTF-8 Characters with PHP 5.2.10 and MySQL 5.0.81

    - by jkndrkn
    We have an application hosted on both a local development server and a live site. We are experiencing UTF-8 corruption issues and are looking to figure out how to resolve them. The system is run using symfony 1.0 with Propel. On our development server, we are running PHP 5.2.0 and MySQL 5.0.32. We do not experience corrupted UTF-8 characters there. On our live site, PHP 5.2.10 and MySQL 5.0.81 is running. On that server, certain characters such as ô´ and S are corrupted once they are stored in the database. The corrupted characters are showing up as either question marks or approximations of the original character with adjacent question marks. Examples of corruption: Uncorrupted: ô´ Corrupted: ô? Uncorrupted: S Corrupted: ? We are currently using the following techniques on both development and live servers: Executing the following queries prior to execution of any other queries: SET NAMES 'utf8' COLLATE 'utf8_unicode_ci' SET CHARSET 'utf8' Setting the <meta> Content-Type value to: <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> Adding the following to our .htaccess file: AddDefaultCharset utf-8 Using mb_* (multibyte) PHP functions where necessary. Being sure to set database columns to use utf8_unicode_ci collation. These techniques are sufficient for our development site, but do not work on the live site. On the live site I've also tried adding mysql_set_encoding('ut8', $mysql_connection) but this does not help either. I have found some evidence that newer versions of PHP and MySQL are mishandling UTF-8 character encodings.

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  • curl_multi_exec stops if one url is 404, how can I change that?

    - by Rob
    Currently, my cURL multi exec stops if one url it connects to doesn't work, so a few questions: 1: Why does it stop? That doesn't make sense to me. 2: How can I make it continue? EDIT: Here is my code: $SQL = mysql_query("SELECT url FROM shells") ; $mh = curl_multi_init(); $handles = array(); while($resultSet = mysql_fetch_array($SQL)){ //load the urls and send GET data $ch = curl_init($resultSet['url'] . $fullcurl); //Only load it for two seconds (Long enough to send the data) curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 5); curl_multi_add_handle($mh, $ch); $handles[] = $ch; } // Create a status variable so we know when exec is done. $running = null; //execute the handles do { // Call exec. This call is non-blocking, meaning it works in the background. curl_multi_exec($mh,$running); // Sleep while it's executing. You could do other work here, if you have any. sleep(2); // Keep going until it's done. } while ($running > 0); // For loop to remove (close) the regular handles. foreach($handles as $ch) { // Remove the current array handle. curl_multi_remove_handle($mh, $ch); } // Close the multi handle curl_multi_close($mh);

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  • How to report progress of a JavaScript function?

    - by LambyPie
    I have a JavaScript function which is quite long and performs a number of tasks, I would like to report progress to the user by updating the contents of a SPAN element with a message as I go. I tried adding document.getElementById('spnProgress').innerText = ... statements throughout the function code. However, whilst the function is executing the UI will not update and so you only ever see the last message written to the SPAN which is not very helpful. My current solution is to break the task up into a number of functions, at the end of each I set the SPAN message and then "trigger" the next one with a window.setTimeout call with a very short delay (say 10ms). This yields control and allows the browser to repaint the SPAN with the updated message before starting the next step. However I find this very messy and difficult to follow the code, I'm thinking there must be a better way. Does anyone have any suggestions? Is there any way to force the SPAN to repaint without having to leave the context of the function? Thanks

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  • How to specify MQ channel table location for .net web application using web.config

    - by Matt
    I've been going around in circles for a while on this one now. I'm trying to connect to a distributed queue manager using a supplied channel table file. I can get this to work if I specify the environmental variable MQCHLLIB and MQCHLTAB on my server. However the IBM documentation states that the .net config file can override these variables. Here is what I have placed in my web.config file: ... <configSections> <section name="CHANNELS" type="System.Configuration.NameValueSectionHandler" /> </configSections> <CHANNELS> <add key="ChannelDefinitionDirectory" value="C:\temp"></add> <add key="ChannelDefinitionFile" value="DSM_MOM_TEST.tab"></add> </CHANNELS> ... And here is the code that is executing: Hashtable properties = new Hashtable(); //Add managed connection type to parameters. const String connectionType = MQC.TRANSPORT_MQSERIES_CLIENT; properties.Add(MQC.TRANSPORT_PROPERTY, connectionType); return new MQQueueManager(queueManagerName, properties); queueManagerName is set to the generic queue manager "*Q101T". However this isn't working and I get an error returned: 2058 MQRC_Q_MGR_NAME_ERROR I've been unable to find any more documentation on how to get this to work other than the environmental variables and the standard mqclient.ini should be overriden by the channels stanza in the web.config. Is there something that I've missed in the code? Any tips would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Magento config XML for adding a controller action to a core admin controller

    - by N. B.
    I'm trying to add a custom action to a core controller by extending it in a local module. Below I have the class definition which resides in magento1_3_2_2/app/code/local/MyCompany/MyModule/controllers/Catalog/ProductController.php class MyCompany_MyModule_Catalog_ProductController extends Mage_Adminhtml_Catalog_ProductController { public function massAttributeSetAction(){ ... } } Here is my config file at magento1_3_2_2/app/code/local/MyCompany/MyModule/etc/config.xml: ... <global> <rewrite> <mycompany_mymodule_catalog_product> <from><![CDATA[#^/catalog_product/massAttributeSet/#]]></from> <to>/mymodule/catalog_product/massAttributeSet/</to> </mycompany_mymodule_catalog_product> </rewrite> <admin> <routers> <MyCompany_MyModule> <use>admin</use> <args> <module>MyCompany_MyModule</module> <frontName>MyModule</frontName> </args> </MyCompany_MyModule> </routers> </admin> </global> ... However, https://example.com/index.php/admin/catalog_product/massAttributeSet/ simply yields a admin 404 page. I know that the module is active - other code is executing fine. I feel it's simply a problem with my xml syntax. Am I going about this the write way? I'm hesitant because I'm not actually rewriting a controller method... I'm adding one entirely. However it does make sense in that, the original admin url won't respond to that action name and it will need to be redirected. I'm using Magento 1.3.2.2 Thanks for any guidance.

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  • Is it possible to have asynchronous processing

    - by prashant2361
    Hi, I have a requirement where I need to send continuous updates to my clients. Client is browser in this case. We have some data which updates every sec, so once client connects to our server, we maintain a persistent connection and keep pushing data to the client. I am looking for suggestions of this implementation at the server end. Basically what I need is this: 1. client connects to server. I maintain the socket and metadata about the socket. metadata contains what updates need to be send to this client 2. server process now waits for new client connections 3. One other process will have the list of all the sockets opened and will go through each of them and send the updates if required. Can we do something like this in Apache module: 1. Apache process gets the new connection. It maintains the state for the connection. It keeps the state in some global memory and returns back to root process to signify that it is done so that it can accept the new connection 2. the Apache process though has returned the status to root process but it is also executing in parallel where it going through its global store and sending updates to the client, if any. So can a Apache process do these things: 1. Have more than one connection associated with it 2. Asynchronously waiting for new connection and at the same time processing the previous connections? Regards Prashant

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2.0 + Implementation of a IRouteHandler goes not fire

    - by Peter
    Can anybody please help me with this as I have no idea why public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) is not executing. In my Global.asax.cs I have public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); routes.Add("ImageRoutes", new Route("Images/{filename}", new CustomRouteHandler())); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } //CustomRouteHandler implementation is below public class CustomRouteHandler : IRouteHandler { public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) { // IF I SET A BREAK POINT HERE IT DOES NOT HIT FOR SOME REASON. string filename = requestContext.RouteData.Values["filename"] as string; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(filename)) { // return a 404 HttpHandler here } else { requestContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.ContentType = GetContentType(requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.ToString()); // find physical path to image here. string filepath = requestContext.HttpContext.Server.MapPath("~/logo.jpg"); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.WriteFile(filepath); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.End(); } return null; } } Can any body tell me what I'm missing here. Simply public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) does not fire. I havn't change anything in the web.config either. What I'm missing here? Please help.

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  • Gem Load Error about whois command and removed cache

    - by Puru puru rin..
    Hello, I have an awesome trouble with Gem. After executing this command: rm -f /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/cache/* I can not do any thing. If I try for instance: gem cleanup I get this kind of answer: /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/gemwhois-0.1/lib/gemwhois.rb:3:in `require': no such file to load -- rubygems/commands/whois (LoadError) from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/gemwhois-0.1/lib/gemwhois.rb:3:in `<top (required)>' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/gemwhois-0.1/lib/rubygems_plugin.rb:2:in `require' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/gemwhois-0.1/lib/rubygems_plugin.rb:2:in `<top (required)>' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.9.1/rubygems.rb:1113:in `load' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.9.1/rubygems.rb:1113:in `block in <top (required)>' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.9.1/rubygems.rb:1105:in `each' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.9.1/rubygems.rb:1105:in `<top (required)>' from <internal:gem_prelude>:235:in `require' from <internal:gem_prelude>:235:in `load_full_rubygems_library' from <internal:gem_prelude>:334:in `const_missing' from /usr/local/bin/gem:12:in `<main>' It's the same for gem -v, of just gem command... I'm working of Snow Leopard. What should the best solution about you? Thanks a lot!

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  • LINQ-SQL Updating Multiple Rows in a single transaction

    - by RPM1984
    Hi guys, I need help re-factoring this legacy LINQ-SQL code which is generating around 100 update statements. I'll keep playing around with the best solution, but would appreciate some ideas/past experience with this issue. Here's my code: List<Foo> foos; int userId = 123; using (DataClassesDataContext db = new FooDatabase()) { foos = (from f in db.FooBars where f.UserId = userId select f).ToList(); foreach (FooBar fooBar in foos) { fooBar.IsFoo = false; } db.SubmitChanges() } Essentially i want to update the IsFoo field to false for all records that have a particular UserId value. Whats happening is the .ToList() is firing off a query to get all the FooBars for a particular user, then for each Foo object, its executing an UPDATE statement updating the IsFoo property. Can the above code be re-factored to one single UPDATE statement? Ideally, the only SQL i want fired is the below: UPDATE FooBars SET IsFoo = FALSE WHERE UserId = 123 EDIT Ok so looks like it cant be done without using db.ExecuteCommand. Grr...! What i'll probably end up doing is creating another extension method for the DLINQ namespace. Still require some hardcoding (ie writing "WHERE" and "UPDATE"), but at least it hides most of the implementation details away from the actual LINQ query syntax.

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  • Configuring TeamCity + NUnit unit tests so files can be loaded properly

    - by Dave
    In a nutshell, I have a solution that builds fine in the IDE, and the unit tests all run fine with the NUnit GUI (via the NUnitit VS2008 plugin). However, when I execute my TeamCity build runner, all unit tests that require file access (e.g. for running tests against specific XML files), I just get System.IO.DirectoryNotFoundExceptions. The reason for this is clear: it's looking for those supporting XML files loaded by various unit tests in the wrong folder. The way my unit tests are structured looks like this: +-- project folder +-- unit tests folder +-- test.xml +-- test.cs +-- project file.xaml +-- project file.xaml.cs All of my projects own their own UnitTests folder, which contains the .cs file and any XML files, XML Schemas, etc that are necessary to run the tests. So when I write my test.cs, I have it look for "test.xml" in the code because they are in the same folder (actually, I do something like ....\unit tests\test.xml, but that's kind of silly). As I said before, the tests run great in NUnit. But that's because the unit tests are part of the project. When running the unit tests from TeamCity, I am executing them against the assemblies that get copied to the main app's output folder. These unit test XML files should not be copied willy-nilly to the output folder just to make the tests pass. Can anyone suggest a better method of organizing my unit tests in each project (which are dependencies for the main app), such that I can execute the unit tests from NUnit and from the TeamCity build runner? The only other option I can come up with is to just put the testing XML data in code, rather than loading it from a file. I would rather not do this.

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  • SQL Server race condition issue with range lock

    - by Freek
    I'm implementing a queue in SQL Server (please no discussions about this) and am running into a race condition issue. The T-SQL of interest is the following: set transaction isolation level serializable begin tran declare @RecordId int declare @CurrentTS datetime2 set @CurrentTS=CURRENT_TIMESTAMP select top 1 @RecordId=Id from QueuedImportJobs with (updlock) where Status=@Status and (LeaseTimeout is null or @CurrentTS>LeaseTimeout) order by Id asc if @@ROWCOUNT> 0 begin update QueuedImportJobs set LeaseTimeout = DATEADD(mi,5,@CurrentTS), LeaseTicket=newid() where Id=@RecordId select * from QueuedImportJobs where Id = @RecordId end commit tran RecordId is the PK and there is also an index on Status,LeaseTimeout. What I'm basically doing is select a record of which the lease happens to be expired, while simultaneously updating the lease time with 5 minutes and setting a new lease ticket. So the problem is that I'm getting deadlocks when I run this code in parallel using a couple of threads. I've debugged it up to the point where I found out that the update statement sometimes gets executing twice for the same record. Now, I was under the impression that the with (updlock) should prevent this (it also happens with xlock btw, not with tablockx). So it actually look like there is a RangeS-U and a RangeX-X lock on the same range of records, which ought to be impossible. So what am I missing? I'm thinking it might have something to do with the top 1 clause or that SQL Server does not know that where Id=@RecordId is actually in the locked range? Deadlock graph: Table schema (simplified):

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