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  • Ajax Update Panel Not Displaying Updated Image in IE, Chrome and FireFox

    - by jmease
    I have a parent page with an Ajax Update Panel that contains an image and a button. There is a hyperlink that opens up a child page. When the child page is submitted, there is an onclientclick event that triggers a javascript function that clicks the button in the update panel on the parent page, the button's click event being the trigger for the panel as well as the event that updates the image URL. When I use this on my android tablet, it works perfectly. However, it doesn't work at all on any browser I've used on a PC (Windows XP). The Image URL updates, but the updated image doesn't display without refreshing the entire page. In IE, I can right click on the image and click Show Image and it updates. In Chrome and Firefox, I have to refresh the entire page. Why would an Ajax control only work properly on the Android OS and what could I be doing wrong that would cause the image not to redisplay on my PC without refreshing the page even though the image URL is clearly being updated properly. I suspect a caching issue, but don't know how to correct.

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  • Including Data From DropDownList Into Gridview

    - by Mike Keller
    I feel a little embarassed posting two questions relating to the same problem, but the first one ended up answering a question that I believe is unrelated to the solution so I'm leaving it up and outlining what I'm trying to accomplish with the hopes that someone can help out a .Net noob. What I need to be able to do is create a field in my gridview that contains a link that passes two variables. One is pulled from within the gridviews datasource and the other needs to be pulled from a textbox control outside the gridview. From what I've read so far you cannot use a hyperlinkfield for this as the datanavigateurlfields cannot be set to pull from anything but the gridview's data source. What I attempted to do was create a template field where in the itemtemplate I called: <a href="example.aspx?e=<%# Eval(ExampleList.SelectedItem.Value) %>">Test</a> That comes back with an error like this: DataBinding: 'System.Data.DataRowView' does not contain a property with the value 'TestData' Any clues to make this happen would be appreciated, like I said I'm pretty new to .Net so please be gentle. I tried to do my homework before posting this.

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  • What are your Programming Falacies/Myths?

    - by pms1969
    I recently started a new job and as is typical of all jobs, if you've left, you get blamed for everything. Not long after I started there was a change required for an app (web based) that we maintain, and it was quickly pointed out that the actual code for this site had been lost a long time ago, and the only changes we could make to the it were ones that required changes to mark-up [it was a pre-compiled site]. Being new, I needed a little help finding my way around the code, and enlisted the services of one of my colleagues. Made my changes, and then re-enlisted his help to deploy it. While prepping for the deployment (getting the app on the QA server) we discovered that there were actually 2 different, very similarly named, folders in our source repository. It transpired that for the last year or so, mark-up changes had been made to the site directly, and these were the only differences with the code in the slightly incorrectly named folder in source control. So we did have all the code, and can now properly support the site. This put me in mind of a trick we played on a junior programmer once in a previous job, where we told him he couldn't/shouldn't do a certain thing in code as this would likely bring the server to it's knees and cost the company thousands of pounds (a gag that last months :-). And another one in the first programming job I took on - the batch commission run was just going to crash once a month and there was nothing to be done about it, causing a call out, and call out compensation for the on-call guy (a bug I fixed as soon as I became the on-call guy - 2am call outs don't work for me). So I was wondering... What other programming fallacies/myths are out there that are worth sharing?

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  • Extend base class properties

    - by user1888033
    I need your help to extend my base class, here is the similar structure i have. public class ShowRoomA { public audi AudiModelA { get; set; } public benz benzModelA { get; set; } } public class audi { public string Name { get; set; } public string AC { get; set; } public string PowerStearing { get; set; } } public class benz { public string Name { get; set; } public string AC { get; set; } public string AirBag { get; set; } public string MusicSystem { get; set; } } //My Implementation class like this class Main() { private void UpdateDetails() { ShowRoomA ojbMahi = new ShowRoomA(); GetDetails( ojbMahi ); // this works fine } private void GetDetails(ShowRoomA objShowRoom) { objShowRoom = new objShowRoom(); objShowRoom.audi = new audi(); objShowRoom.audi.Name = "AUDIMODEL94CD698"; objShowRoom.audi.AC = "6 TON"; objShowRoom.audi.PowerStearing = "Electric"; objShowRoom.benz= new benz(); objShowRoom.audi.Name = "BENZMODEL34LCX"; objShowRoom.audi.AC = "8 TON"; objShowRoom.audi.AirBag = "Two (1+1)"; objShowRoom.audi.MusicSystem = "Poineer 3500W"; } } // Till this cool. // Now I got requirement for ShowRoomB with replacement of old audi and benz with new models and new other brand cars also added. // I don't want to modify GetDetails() method. by reusing this method additional logic i want to apply to my new extended model. // Here I struck in designing my new model of ShowRoomB (base of ShowRoomA) ... I have tried some thing like... but not sure. public class audiModelB:audi { public string JetEngine { get; set; } } public class benzModelB:benz { public string JetEngine { get; set; } } public class ShowRoomB { public audiModelB AudiModelB { get; set; } public benzModelB benzModelB { get; set; } } // My new code to Implementation class like this class Main() { private void UpdateDetails() { ShowRoomB ojbNahi = new ShowRoomB(); GetDetails( ojbNahi ); // this is NOT working! I know this object does not contain base class directly, still some what i want fill my new model with old properties. Kindly suggest here } } Can any one please give me solutions how to achieve my extending requirement for base class "ShowroomA" Really appreciated your time and suggestions. Thanks in advance,

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  • how can I store the current status of the game in cocos2d ?

    - by srikanth rongali
    I am writing a shooting game in cocos2d. And each enemy enters the screen after the current one is dead. I have stores the enemies and their properties in plist. I need to save the current state of the game. If any phone call comes the game should be started from the current state. So, I usedNsUserDefaults in this way, - (void) applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication*)application { ... NSUserDefaults *myDefaultOptions = [[myDefaultOptions stringForKey:@"enemyNumber"]intValue] ; //tempCount4 is the current Enemy number. It was declared in another class. I am using extern and using the value here. tempCount4 = [[myDefaultOptions stringForKey:@"enemyNumber"]intValue] ; } - (void)applicationWillTerminate:(UIApplication *)application { [[CCDirector sharedDirector] end]; [myDefaultOptions setObject:tempCount4 forKey:@"enemyNumber"]; } The control is not entering in to the (void)applicationWillTerminate:(UIApplication *)application when I pressed the Home button. And when I touched the game icon on the screen the game is running from first screen and in log (terminal )it is not showing any values. And what should I store to resume my game from stored state. Can you explain where I was wrong ? Thank You.

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  • Zend Framework: How to display multiple actions, each requiring different authorizations levels, on

    - by Iain
    Imagine I have 4 database tables, and an interface that presents forms for the management of the data in each of these tables on a single webpage (using the accordion design pattern to show only one form at a time). Each form is displayed with a list of rows in the table, allowing the user to insert a new row or select a row to edit or delete. AJAX is then used to send the request to the server. A different set of forms must be displayed to different users, based on the application ACL. My question is: In terms of controllers, actions, views, and layouts, what is the best architecture for this interface? For example, so far I have a controller with add, edit and delete actions for each table. There is an indexAction for each, but it's an empty function. I've also extended Zend_Form for each table. To display the forms, I then in the IndexController pass the Forms to it's view, and echo each form. Javascript then takes care of populating the form and sending requests to the appropraite add/edit/delete action of the appropriate controller. This however doesn't allow for ACL to control the display or not of Forms to different users. Would it be better to have the indexAction instantiate the form, and then use something like $this-render(); to render each view within the view of the indexAction of the IndexController? Would ACL then prevent certain views from being rendered? Cheers.

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  • C++ Recursive function that reverses the order of an array's indexes between two bounds

    - by CPT Kirk
    I am trying to write a recursive function that has three arguments; an array and two array indexes. The function should reverse the order of the values between the two indexes. I would like to understand what is happening instead of just being told an answer. Here is my code so far: #include <iostream> using namespace std; char switchAroo(char a[], int b1, int b2); int main() { char a[6] {'A', 'B', 'C', 'D', 'E', '\0'}; cout << a; switchAroo(a, 2, 5); return 0; } char switchAroo(char a [], int b1, int b2) { char temp; if (b1 == b2) cout << "The array after switchAroo is " << a << endl; else { temp = a[b1]; a[b1] = a[b2]; a[b2] = temp; b1++; b2--; return switchAroo(a, b1, b2); } } I am getting the following warning code: warning C4715: 'switchAroo' : not all control paths return a value Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Design issue when having classes implement different interfaces to restrict client actions

    - by devoured elysium
    Let's say I'm defining a game class that implements two different views: interface IPlayerView { void play(); } interface IDealerView { void deal(); } The view that a game sees when playing the game, and a view that the dealer sees when dealing the game (this is, a player can't make dealer actions and a dealer can't make player actions). The game definition is as following: class Game : IPlayerView, IDealerView { void play() { ... } void deal() { ... } } Now assume I want to make it possible for the players to play the game, but not to deal it. My original idea was that instead of having public Game GetGame() { ... } I'd have something like public IPlayerView GetGame() { ... } But after some tests I realized that if I later try this code, it works: IDealerView dealerView = (IDealerView)GameClass.GetGame(); this works as lets the user act as the dealer. Am I worrying to much? How do you usually deal with this patterns? I could instead make two different classes, maybe a "main" class, the dealer class, that would act as factory of player classes. That way I could control exactly what I would like to pass on the the public. On the other hand, that turns everything a bit more complex than with this original design. Thanks

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  • JPA - Can I create an Entity class, using an @DiscriminatorValue, that doesn't have its own table?

    - by DaveyDaveDave
    Hi - this is potentially a bit complex, so I'll do my best to describe my situation - it's also my first post here, so please forgive formatting mistakes, etc! I'm using JPA with joined inheritance and a database structure that looks like: ACTION --------- ACTION_ID ACTION_MAPPING_ID ACTION_TYPE DELIVERY_CHANNEL_ACTION -------------------------- ACTION_ID CHANNEL_ID OVERRIDE_ADDRESS_ACTION -------------------------- ACTION_ID (various fields specific to this action type) So, in plain English, I have multiple different types of action, all share an ACTION_MAPPING, which is referenced from the 'parent' ACTION table. DELIVERY_CHANNEL_ACTION and OVERRIDE_ADDRESS_ACTION both have extra, supplementary data of their own, and are mapped to ACTION with a FK. Real-world, I also have a 'suppress' action, but this doesn't have any supplementary data of its own, so it doesn't have a corresponding table - all it needs is an ACTION_MAPPING, which is stored in the ACTION table. Hopefully you're with me so far... I'm creating a new project from scratch, so am pretty flexible in what I can do, but obviously would like to get it right from the outset! My current implementation, which works, has three entities loosely defined as follows: @Entity @Table(name="ACTION") @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.JOINED) @DiscriminatorValue("SUPPRESS") public class Action @Entity @Table(name="DELIVERY_CHANNEL_ACTION") @DiscriminatorValue("DELIVERY_CHANNEL") public class DeliveryChannelAction extends Action @Entity @Table(name="OVERRIDE_ADDRESS_ACTION") @DiscriminatorValue("OVERRIDE_ADDRESS") public class OverrideAddressAction extends Action That is - I have a concrete base class, Action, with a Joined inheritance strategy. DeliveryChannelAction and OverrideAddressAction both extend Action. What feels wrong here though, is that my Action class is the base class for these two actions, but also forms the concrete implementation for the suppress action. For the time being this works, but at some point more actions are likely to be added, and there's every chance that some of them will, like SUPPRESS, have no supplementary data, which will start to get difficult! So... what I would like to do, in the object model world, is to have Action be abstract, and create a SuppressAction class, which is empty apart from having a @DiscriminatorValue("SUPPRESS"). I've tried doing exactly what is described above, so, changing Action to: @Entity @Table(name="ACTION") @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.JOINED) public abstract class Action and creating: @DiscriminatorValue("SUPPRESS") public class SuppressAction extends Action but no luck - it seems to work fine for DeliveryChannelAction and OverrideAddressAction, but when I try to create a SuppressAction and persist it, I get: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Object: com.mypackage.SuppressAction[actionId=null] is not a known entity type. at org.eclipse.persistence.internal.sessions.UnitOfWorkImpl.registerNewObjectForPersist(UnitOfWorkImpl.java:4147) at org.eclipse.persistence.internal.jpa.EntityManagerImpl.persist(EntityManagerImpl.java:368) at com.mypackage.test.util.EntityTestUtil.createSuppressAction(EntityTestUtil.java:672) at com.mypackage.entities.ActionTest.testCRUDAction(ActionTest.java:27) which I assume is down to the fact that SuppressAction isn't registered as an entity, but I don't know how I can do that, given that it doesn't have an associated table. Any pointers, either complete answers or hints for things to Google (I'm out of ideas!), most welcome :) EDIT: to correct my stacktrace.

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  • Externally disabling signals for a Linux program.

    - by Harry
    Hello, On Linux, is it possible to somehow disable signaling for programs externally... that is, without modifying their source code? Context: I'm calling a C (and also a Java) program from within a bash script on Linux. I don't want any interruptions for my bash script, and for the other programs that the script launches (as foreground processes). While I can use a... trap '' INT ... in my bash script to disable the Ctrl C signal, this works only when the program control happens to be in the bash code. That is, if I press Ctrl C while the C program is running, the C program gets interrupted and it exits! This C program is doing some critical operation because of which I don't want it be interrupted. I don't have access to the source code of this C program, so signal handling inside the C program is out of question. #!/bin/bash trap 'echo You pressed Ctrl C' INT # A C program to emulate a real-world, long-running program, # which I don't want to be interrupted, and for which I # don't have the source code! # # File: y.c # To build: gcc -o y y.c # # #include <stdio.h> # int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { # printf("Performing a critical operation...\n"); # for(;;); // Do nothing forever. # printf("Performing a critical operation... done.\n"); # } ./y Regards, /HS

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  • Which way is preferred when doing asynchronous WCF calls?

    - by Mikael Svenson
    When invoking a WCF service asynchronous there seems to be two ways it can be done. 1. public void One() { WcfClient client = new WcfClient(); client.BegindoSearch("input", ResultOne, null); } private void ResultOne(IAsyncResult ar) { WcfClient client = new WcfClient(); string data = client.EnddoSearch(ar); } 2. public void Two() { WcfClient client = new WcfClient(); client.doSearchCompleted += TwoCompleted; client.doSearchAsync("input"); } void TwoCompleted(object sender, doSearchCompletedEventArgs e) { string data = e.Result; } And with the new Task<T> class we have an easy third way by wrapping the synchronous operation in a task. 3. public void Three() { WcfClient client = new WcfClient(); var task = Task<string>.Factory.StartNew(() => client.doSearch("input")); string data = task.Result; } They all give you the ability to execute other code while you wait for the result, but I think Task<T> gives better control on what you execute before or after the result is retrieved. Are there any advantages or disadvantages to using one over the other? Or scenarios where one way of doing it is more preferable?

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  • Calling base Text method on custom TextBox

    - by The Demigeek
    I'm trying to create a CurrencyTextBox that inherits from TextBox. I'm seeing some really weird behavior that I just don't understand. After lots of testing, I think I can summarize as follows: In the class code, when I access base.Text (to get the textbox's text), I'm actually getting the return value of my overridden Text property. I thought the base keyword would ensure that the underlying object's methods get called. To demonstrate: public class cTestTextBox : System.Windows.Forms.TextBox { string strText = ""; public cTestTextBox() { SetVal("AAA"); base.Text = "TEST"; } public override string Text { get { string s = strText; s = "++" + s + "++"; return s; } } public void SetVal(string val) { strText = val; } } Place this control on a form and set a breakpoint on the constructor. Run the app. Hover your mouse over the base.Text expression. Note that the tooltip shows you the value of the overridden property, not the base property. Execute the SetVal() statement and again hover your mouse over the base.Text expression. Note that the tooltop shows you the value of the overridden property, not the base property. How do I reliably access the Text property of the textbox from which I'm inheriting?

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  • Device drivers and Windows

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, I am trying to complete the picture of how the PC and the OS interacts together. And I am at point, where I am little out of guess when it comes to device drivers. Please, don´t write things like its too complicated, or you don´t need to know when using high programming laguage and winapi functions. I want to know, it´s for study purposes. So, the very basic structure of how OS and PC (by PC I mean of course HW) is how I see it is that all other than direct CPU commands, which can CPU do on itself (arithmetic operation, its registers access and memory access) must pass thru OS. Mainly becouse from ring level 3 you cannot use in and out intructions which are used for acesing other HW. I know that there is MMIO,but it must be set by port comunication first. It was not like this all the time. Even I am bit young to remember MSDOS, I know you could access HW directly, becouse there ws no limitation, no ring mode. So you could to write string to diplay use wheather DOS function, or directly acess video card memory and write it by yourself. But as OS developed, there is no longer this possibility. But it is fine, since OS now handles all the HW comunication, and frankly it more convinient and much more safe (I would say the only option) in multitasking environment. So nowdays you instead of using int instructions to use BIOS mapped function or DOS function you call dll which internally than handles everything you don´t need to know about. I understand this. I also undrstand that device drivers is the piece of code that runs in ring level 0, so it can do all the HW interactions. But what I don´t understand is connection between OS and device driver. Let´s take a example - I want to make a sound card make a sound. So I call windows API to acess sound card, but what happens than? Does windows call device drivers to do so? But if it does call device driver, does it mean, that all device drivers which can be called by winAPI function, must have routines named in some specific way? I mean, when I have new sound card, must its drivers have functions named same as the old one? So Windows can actually call the same function from its perspective? But if Windows have predefined sets of functions requored by device drivers, that it cannot use new drivers that doesent existed before last version of OS came out. Please, help me understand this mess. I am really getting mad. Thanks.

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  • Execute JavaScript from within a C# assembly

    - by ScottKoon
    I'd like to execute JavaScript code from within a C# assembly and have the results of the JavaScript code returned to the calling C# code. It's easier to define things that I'm not trying to do: I'm not trying to call a JavaScript function on a web page from my code behind. I'm not trying to load a WebBrowser control. I don't want to have the JavaScript perform an AJAX call to a server. What I want to do is write unit tests in JavaScript and have then unit tests output JSON, even plain text would be fine. Then I want to have a generic C# class/executible that can load the file containing the JS, run the JS unit tests, scrap/load the results, and return a pass/fail with details during a post-build task. I think it's possible using the old ActiveX ScriptControl, but it seems like there ought to be a .NET way to do this without using SilverLight, the DLR, or anything else that hasn't shipped yet. Anyone have any ideas? update: From Brad Abrams blog namespace Microsoft.JScript.Vsa { [Obsolete("There is no replacement for this feature. Please see the ICodeCompiler documentation for additional help. http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?linkid=14202")] Clarification: We have unit tests for our JavaScript functions that are written in JavaScript using the JSUnit framework. Right now during our build process, we have to manually load a web page and click a button to ensure that all of the JavaScript unit tests pass. I'd like to be able to execute the tests during the post-build process when our automated C# unit tests are run and report the success/failure alongside of out C# unit tests and use them as an indicator as to whether or not the build is broken.

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  • Can I do something like this?

    - by kumar
    <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<IEnumerable<StudentInfo>>" %> <% int i = 0; %> <% foreach(var e in Model){%> <div> <% if(i==0) { %> <% Html.RenderAction("student", "home", new { @et = e}); %> <% break; } %> <div> <span> <% Html.RenderAction("studentDetails", "home", new { @et = e }); %> </span> </div> </div> <%i++; } %> here my intension was to execute Renderction Student only once.. and Studentdetails should be multiple times.. but int value is allways taking i =0 bec each time page is loading its considering 0 allways.. can anybody tell me how to do this? thanks

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  • XmlSerializer construction with same named extra types

    - by NoizWaves
    Hey, I am hitting trouble constructing an XmlSerializer where the extra types contains types with the same Name (but unique Fullname). Below is an example that illustrated my scenario. Type definitions in external assembly I cannot manipulate: public static class Wheel { public enum Status { Stopped, Spinning } } public static class Engine { public enum Status { Idle, Full } } Class I have written and have control over: public class Car { public Wheel.Status WheelStatus; public Engine.Status EngineStatus; public static string Serialize(Car car) { var xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Car), new[] {typeof(Wheel.Status),typeof(Engine.Status)}); var output = new StringBuilder(); using (var sw = new StringWriter(output)) xs.Serialize(sw, car); return output.ToString(); } } The XmlSerializer constructor throws a System.InvalidOperationException with Message "There was an error reflecting type 'Engine.Status'" This exception has an InnerException of type System.InvalidOperationException and with Message "Types 'Wheel.Status' and 'Engine.Status' both use the XML type name, 'Status', from namespace ''. Use XML attributes to specify a unique XML name and/or namespace for the type." Given that I am unable to alter the enum types, how can I construct an XmlSerializer that will serialize Car successfully?

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  • Automatically use inclusion tags (?) in a template, depending on installed apps

    - by Ludwik Trammer
    The title may be a little confusing, but I don't know how else to call it. I would like to create a Django project with a large set of applications you could arbitrary turn on or off using INSTALLED_APPS option in settings.py (you would obviously also need to edit urls.py and run syncdb). After being turned on an app should be able to automatically: Register it's content in site-wide search. Luckily django-haystack has this built-in, so it's not a problem. Register cron jobs. django-cron does exactly that. Not a problem. Register a widget that should be displayed on the homepage. The homepage should include a list of boxes with widgets form different applications. I thought about inclusion tags, because you can put them anywhere on a page and they control both content and presentation. The problem is I don't know how to automatically get a list of inclusion tags provided by my applications, and display them one by one on a homepage. I need a way to register them somehow, and then display all registered tags.

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  • page variable in a repeater

    - by carrot_programmer_3
    Hi I'm having a bit of an issue with a asp.net repeater I'm building a categories carousel with the dynamic categories being output by a repeater. Each item is a LinkButton control that passes an argument of the category id to the onItemClick handler. a page variable is set by this handler to track what the selected category id is.... public String SelectedID { get { object o = this.ViewState["_SelectedID"]; if (o == null) return "-1"; else return (String)o; } set { this.ViewState["_SelectedID"] = value; } } problem is that i cant seem to read this value while iterating through the repeater as follows... <asp:Repeater ID="categoriesCarouselRepeater" runat="server" onitemcommand="categoriesCarouselRepeater_ItemCommand"> <ItemTemplate> <%#Convert.ToInt32(Eval("CategoryID")) == Convert.ToInt32(SelectedID) ? "<div class=\"selectedcategory\">":"<div>"%> <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" CommandName="select_category" CommandArgument='<%#Eval("CategoryID")%>' runat="server"><img src="<%#Eval("imageSource")%>" alt="category" /><br /> </div> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> calling <%=SelectedID%> in the item template works but when i try the following expression the value of SelectedID returns empty.. <%#Convert.ToInt32(Eval("CategoryID")) == Convert.ToInt32(SelectedID) ? "match" : "not a match"%> the value is being set as follows... protected void categoriesCarouselRepeater_ItemCommand(object source, RepeaterCommandEventArgs e) { SelectedID = e.CommandArgument); } Any ideas whats wrong here?

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  • How to query an .NET assembly's required framework (not CLR) version?

    - by Bonfire Burns
    Hi, we are using some kind of plug-in architecture in one of our products (based on .NET). We have to consider our customers or even 3rd party devs writing plug-ins for the product. The plug-ins will be .NET assemblies that are loaded by our product at run-time. We have no control about the quality or capabilities of the external plug-ins (apart from checking whether they implement the correct interfaces). So we need to implement some kind of safety check while loading the plug-ins to make sure that our product (and the hosting environment) can actually host the plug-in or deliver a meaningful error message ("The plug-in your are loading needs .NET version 42.42 - the hosting system is only on version 33.33."). Ideally the plug-ins would do this check internally, but our experience regarding their competence is so-so and in any case our product will get the blame, so we want to make sure that this "just works". Requiring the plug-in developers to provide the info in the metadata or to explicitly provide the information in the interface is considered "too complicated". I know about the Assembly.ImageRuntimeVersion property. But to my knowledge this tells me only the needed CLR version, not the framework version. And I don't want to check all of the assembly's dependencies and match them against a table of "framework version vs. available assemblies". Do you have any ideas how to solve this in a simple and maintainable fashion? Thanks & regards, Bon

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  • How to differentiate between method and function in a decorator?

    - by defnull
    I want to write a decorator that acts differently depending on whether it is applied to a function or to a method. def some_decorator(func): if the_magic_happens_here(func): # <---- Point of interest print 'Yay, found a method ^_^ (unbound jet)' else: print 'Meh, just an ordinary function :/' return func class MyClass(object): @some_decorator def method(self): pass @some_decorator def function(): pass I tried inspect.ismethod(), inspect.ismethoddescriptor() and inspect.isfunction() but no luck. The problem is that a method actually is neither a bound nor an unbound method but an ordinary function as long as it is accessed from within the class body. What I really want to do is to delay the actions of the decorator to the point the class is actually instantiated because I need the methods to be callable in their instance scope. For this, I want to mark methods with an attribute and later search for these attributes when the .__new__() method of MyClass is called. The classes for which this decorator should work are required to inherit from a class that is under my control. You can use that fact for your solution. In the case of a normal function the delay is not necessary and the decorator should take action immediately. That is why I wand to differentiate these two cases.

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  • Suggestions In Porting ASP.NET to MVC.NET - Is storing SiteConfiguration in Cache RESTful?

    - by DaveDev
    I've been tasked with porting/refactoring a Web Application Platform that we have from ASP.NET to MVC.NET. Ideally I could use all the existing platform's configurations to determine the properties of the site that is presented. Is it RESTful to keep a SiteConfiguration object which contains all of our various page configuration data in the System.Web.Caching.Cache? There are a lot of settings that need to be loaded when the user acceses our site so it's inefficient for each user to have to load the same settings every time they access. Some data the SiteConfiguration object contains is as follows and it determines what Master Page / site configuration / style / UserControls are available to the client, public string SiteTheme { get; set; } public string Region { private get; set; } public string DateFormat { get; set; } public string NumberFormat { get; set; } public int WrapperType { private get; set; } public string LabelFileName { get; set; } public LabelFile LabelFile { get; set; } // the following two are the heavy ones // PageConfiguration contains lots of configuration data for each panel on the page public IList<PageConfiguration> Pages { get; set; } // This contains all the configurations for the factsheets we produce public List<ConfiguredFactsheet> ConfiguredFactsheets { get; set; } I was thinking of having a URL structure like this: www.MySite1.com/PageTemplate/UserControl/ the domain determines the SiteConfiguration object that is created, where MySite1.com is SiteId = 1, MySite2.com is SiteId = 2. (and in turn, style, configurations for various pages, etc.) PageTemplate is the View that will be rendered and simply defines a layout for where I'm going to inject the UserControls Can somebody please tell me if I'm completely missing the RESTful point here? I'd like to refactor the platform into MVC because it's better to work in but I want to do it right but with a minimum of reinventing-the-wheel because otherwise it won't get approval. Any suggestions otherwise? Thanks

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  • In Javascript, what's better than try/catch for exiting an outer scope?

    - by gruseom
    In Javascript, I sometimes want to return a value from a scope that isn't the current function. It might be a block of code within the function, or it might be an enclosing function as in the following example, which uses a local function to recursively search for something. As soon as it finds a solution, the search is done and the whole thing should just return. Unfortunately, I can't think of a simpler way to do this than by hacking try/catch for the purpose: function solve(searchSpace) { var search = function (stuff) { solution = isItSolved(stuff); if (solution) { throw solution; } else { search(narrowThisWay(stuff)); search(narrowThatWay(stuff)); }; }; try { return search(searchSpace); } catch (solution) { return solution; }; }; I realize one could assign the solution to a local variable and then check it before making another recursive call, but my question is specifically about transfer of control. Is there a better way than the above? Perhaps involving label/break?

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  • Striped table rows in ASP.NET MVC (without using jQuery or equivalent)

    - by Richard Ev
    When using an ASP.NET WebForms ListView control to display data in an HTML table I use the following technique in to "stripe" the table rows: <ItemTemplate> <tr class="<%# Container.DisplayIndex % 2 == 0 ? "" : "alternate" %>"> <!-- table cells in here --> </tr> </ItemTemplate> With the following CSS: tr.alternate { background-color: #EFF5FB; } I have just gone through the ASP.NET MVC Movie Database Application tutorial and learnt that in MVC-land table rows can be (must be?) constructed as follows: <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <tr> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.Title) %> </td> <!-- and so on for the rest of the table cells... --> </tr> <% } %> What can I add to this code to stripe the rows of my table? Note: I know that this can be done using jQuery, I want to know if it can be done another way. Edit If jQuery (or equivalent) is in your opinion the best or most appropriate post, I'd be interested in knowing why.

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  • wget not completely processing the http call

    - by user578458
    Here is a wget command that executes a HTML / PHP stack report suite that is hosted by a third party - we don't have control over the PHP or HTML page wget --no-check-certificate --http-user=/myacc --http-password=mypass -O /tmp/myoutput.csv "https://myserver.mydomain.com/mymodule.php?myrepcode=9999&action=exportcsv&admin=myappuserid&password=myappuserpass&startdate=2011-01-16&enddate=2011-01-16&reportby=mypreferredview" All the elements are working perfectly: --http-user / --http-pass as offered by a browsers standard popup for username and password prompt -O /tmp/myoutput.csv - the output file of interest https://myserver.mydomain.com/mymodule.php?myrepcode=9999&action=exportcsv&admin=myappuserid&password=myappuserpass&startdate=2011-01-16&enddate=2011-01-16&reportby=mypreferredview" The file generated on the fly by the parameters myrepcode=9999 - a reference to the report in question action=exportcsv internally written in the function admin=myappuserid the third party operats SSL to access the site - then internal username and password stored in a database to access the functions of the site) password=myappuserpass startdate=2011-01-16 this and end data are parameters specific to the report 9999 enddate=2011-01-16 reportby=mypreferredview This is an option in the report that facilitates different levels of detail or aggregation The problem is that the reportby parameter is a radio button selection in a list of 5 selections (sure I enough the default is highest level of aggregation , I want the last one which is the most detailed) Here is a sample of the HTML page code for the options of reportby View by The Default My Least Preferred My Second Least Preferred My Third Least Preferred My Preferred No matter which of the reportby items I select in the wget statement - thedefault is always executed. Questions 1) Has anyone come across this notation in HTML (id=inputname[inputelement]) I spoke to a senior web developer and he has never seen this notation for inputs (id=inputname[inputelement]) - and w3schools do not appear familiar with this either based on an extensive search 2) Can a wget command select a none default radio item when executing the command ? This probably will be initially received with a "Use CURL" response- however the wget approach works very well in the limited environment I am operating in - particularly as I need to download 10000 of these such items. Thanks ahead of response

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  • What is the best way to get a reference to a spring bean in the backend layers?

    - by java_pill
    I have two spring config files and I'm specifying them in my web.xml as in below. web.xml snippet .. <context-param> <param-name>contextConfigLocation</param-name> <param-value>WEB-INF/classes/domain-context.xml WEB-INF/classes/client-ws.xml</param-value> </context-param> <listener> <listener-class>org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener</listener-class> </listener> .. From my domain object I have to invoke a Web Service Client and in order to get a reference to the Web Service client I do this: ApplicationContext context = new ClassPathXmlApplicationContext("client-ws.xml"); //b'cos I don't want to use WebApplicationContextUtils ProductServiceClient client = (ProductServiceClient) context.getBean("productClient"); .. client.find(prodID); //calls a Web Service .. However, I have concerns that looking up the client-ws.xml file and getting a reference to the ProductServiceClient bean is not efficient. I thought of getting it using WebApplicationContextUtils. However, I don't want my domain objects to have a dependency on the ServletContext (a web/control layer object) because WebApplicationContextUtils depends on ServletContext. What is the best way to get a reference to a spring bean in the backend layers? Thanks!

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