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  • asp:Button is not calling server-side function

    - by Richard Neil Ilagan
    Hi guys, I know that there has been much discussion here about this topic, but none of the threads I got across helped me solve this problem. I'm hoping that mine is somewhat unique, and may actually merit a different solution. I'm instantiating an asp:Button inside a data-bound asp:GridView through template fields. Some of the buttons are supposed to call a server-side function, but for some weird reason, it doesn't. All the buttons do when you click them is fire a postback to the current page, doing nothing, effectively just reloading the page. Below is a fragment of the code: <asp:GridView ID="gv" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false" CssClass="l2 submissions" ShowHeader="false"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate><asp:Panel ID="swatchpanel" CssClass='<%# Bind("status") %>' runat="server"></asp:Panel></ItemTemplate> <ItemStyle Width="50px" CssClass="sw" /> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:BoundField DataField="description" ReadOnly="true"> </asp:BoundField> <asp:BoundField DataField="owner" ReadOnly="true"> <ItemStyle Font-Italic="true" /> </asp:BoundField> <asp:BoundField DataField="last-modified" ReadOnly="true"> <ItemStyle Width="100px" /> </asp:BoundField> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Button ID="viewBtn" cssclass='<%# Bind("sid") %>' runat="server" Text="View" OnClick="viewBtnClick" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> The viewBtn above should call the viewBtnClick() function on server-side. I do have that function defined, along with a proper signature (object,EventArgs). One thing that may be of note is that this code is actually inside an ASCX, which is loaded in another ASCX, finally loaded into an ASPX. Any help or insight into the matter will be SO appreciated. Thanks! (oh, and please don't mind my trashy HTML/CSS semantics - this is still in a very,very early stage :p)

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  • PHP 5.3: Late static binding doesn't work for properties when defined in parent class while missing in child class

    - by DavidPesta
    Take a look at this example, and notice the outputs indicated. <?php class Mommy { protected static $_data = "Mommy Data"; public static function init( $data ) { static::$_data = $data; } public static function showData() { echo static::$_data . "<br>"; } } class Brother extends Mommy { } class Sister extends Mommy { } Brother::init( "Brother Data" ); Sister::init( "Sister Data" ); Brother::showData(); // Outputs: Sister Data Sister::showData(); // Outputs: Sister Data ?> My understanding was that using the static keyword would refer to the child class, but apparently it magically applies to the parent class whenever it is missing from the child class. (This is kind of a dangerous behavior for PHP, more on that explained below.) I have the following two things in mind for why I want to do this: I don't want the redundancy of defining all of the properties in all of the child classes. I want properties to be defined as defaults in the parent class and I want the child class definition to be able to override these properties wherever needed. The child class needs to exclude properties whenever the defaults are intended, which is why I don't define the properties in the child classes in the above example. However, if we are wanting to override a property at runtime (via the init method), it will override it for the parent class! From that point forward, child classes initialized earlier (as in the case of Brother) unexpectedly change on you. Apparently this is a result of child classes not having their own copy of the static property whenever it isn't explicitly defined inside of the child class--but instead of throwing an error it switches behavior of static to access the parent. Therefore, is there some way that the parent class could dynamically create a property that belongs to the child class without it appearing inside of the child class definition? That way the child class could have its own copy of the static property and the static keyword can refer to it properly, and it can be written to take into account parent property defaults. Or is there some other solution, good, bad, or ugly?

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  • markdown to HTML with customised WMD editor

    - by spirytus
    For my application I customized slightly the way WMD behaves so when user enters empty lines, these are reflected in HTML output as <br />'s. Now I came to a point when I should store it somewhere at backend and so after going thru SO posts for a while I'm not sure what is the best way to do it. I have few options and if you could point out which their pros/cons that would be much appreciated. send to server and store as markdown rather than HTML. To me obvious advantage would be keeping exactly same formatting as user originally entered. But then how can I convert it back to HTML for display to a client? It seems very troublesome to convert it on client side as even if it would be possible what would happen if JS would be disabled? If I wanted to do it on the server, then standard server side implementations of markup to HTML might be resource expensive. Would that be an issue in your opinion? Even if it wouldn't be the case then as I mentioned my WMD implementation is customised and those server side solutions wouldn't probably do the right conversion to markdown anyway and there always would be a risk that something would convert wrong. Send to server as converted HTML. Same as above.. conversion on client side would be difficult, server side same with possibility of getting it wrong. send original markdown and converted HTML and store both. No performance issues related to converting markdown to HTML on client side, nor on server side. Users would have always same markdown they originally entered and same HTML they originally saw in preview (possibly sanitized in php though). It would have to take twice that much storage space though and that is my biggest worry. I tend to lean towards 3rd solution as it seems simplest, but there is a worry of doubled storage space needed for this solution. Please bear in mind that my implementation of WMD is slightly modified and also I'm going with PHP/MySql server side implementation. So apart from 3 options I listed above, are there any other possible solutions to my problem? Did I miss anything important that would make one of the options above better then the rest? And what other pros/cons would apply to each solution I listed? Also how is it implemented on SO? I read somwhere that they using option 3, and so if its good enough for SO would be good enough for me :) but not sure if its true anyway, so how is it done? Also please forgive me, but at least for once I got to say that StackOverflow IS THE BEST DAMN RESOURCE ON THE WEB and I truly appreciate all the people trying to help others here! The site and users here are simply amazing!

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  • How to design a data model that deals with (real) contracts?

    - by Geoffrey
    I was looking for some advice on designing a data model for contract administration. The general life cycle of a contract is thus: Contract is created and in a "draft" state. It is viewable internally and changes may be made. Contract goes out to vendor, status is set to "pending" Contract is rejected by vendor. At this state, nothing can be done to the contract. No statuses may be added to the collection. Contract is accepted by vendor. At this state, nothing can be done to the contract. No statuses may be added to the collection. I obviously want to avoid a situation where the contract is accepted and, say, the amount is changed. Here are my classes: [EnforceNoChangesAfterDraftState] public class VendorContract { public virtual Vendor Vendor { get; set; } public virtual decimal Amount { get; set; } public virtual VendorContact VendorContact { get; set; } public virtual string CreatedBy { get; set; } public virtual DateTime CreatedOn { get; set; } public virtual FileStore Contract { get; set; } public virtual IList<VendorContractStatus> ContractStatus { get; set; } } [EnforceCorrectWorkflow] public class VendorContractStatus { public virtual VendorContract VendorContract { get; set; } public virtual FileStore ExecutedDocument { get; set; } public virtual string Status { get; set; } public virtual string Reason { get; set; } public virtual string CreatedBy { get; set; } public virtual DateTime CreatedOn { get; set; } } I've omitted the filestore class, which is basically a key/value lookup to find the document based on its guid. The VendorContractStatus is mapped as a many-to-one in Nhibernate. I then use a custom validator as described here. If anything but draft is returned in the VendorContractStatus collection, no changes are allowed. Furthermore the VendorContractStatus must follow the correct workflow (you can add a rejected after a pending, but you can't add anything else to the collection if a reject or accepted exists, etc.). All sounds alright? Well a colleague has argued that we should simply add an "IsDraft" bool property to VendorContract and not accept updates if IsDraft is false. Then we should setup a method inside of VendorContractStatus for updating the status, if something gets added after a draft, it sets the IsDraft property of VendorContract to false. I do not like this as it feels like I'm dirtying up the POCOs and adding logic that should persist in the validation area, that no rules should really exist in these classes and they shouldn't be aware of their states. Any thoughts on this and what is the better practice from a DDD perspective? From my view, if in the future we want more complex rules, my way will be more maintainable over the long run. Say we have contracts over a certain amount to be approved by a manager. I would think it would be better to have a one-to-one mapping with a VendorContractApproval class, rather than adding IsApproved properties, but that's just speculation. This might be splitting hairs, but this is the first real gritty enterprise software project we've done. Any advice would be appreciated!

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  • how to use window.onload?

    - by Patrick
    I'm refactoring a website using MVC. What was a set of huge pages with javascript, php, html etc etc is becoming a series of controllers and views. I'm trying to do it in a modular way so views are split in 'modules' that I can reuse in other pages when needed eg. "view/searchform displays only one div with the searchform "view/display_events displays a list of events and so on. One of the old pages was supposed to load a google map with a marker on it. Amongst the rest of the code, I can identify the relevant bits as follows <head> <script src="http://maps.google.com/maps?file=api&amp;v=2&amp;key=blablabla" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ function load() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible()) { var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); var point = new GLatLng(<?php echo ($info->lat && $info->lng) ? $info->lat .",". $info->lng : "51.502759,-0.126171"; ?>); map.setCenter(new GLatLng(<?php echo ($info->lat && $info->lng) ? $info->lat .",". $info->lng : "51.502759,-0.126171"; ?>), 15); map.addControl(new GLargeMapControl()); map.addControl(new GScaleControl()); map.addOverlay(new GMarker(point)); var marker = createMarker(point,GIcon(),"CIAO"); map.addOverlay(marker); } } //]]> </script> </head> ...then <body onload="load()" onunload="GUnload()"> ...and finally this div where the map should be displayed <div id="map" style="width: 440px; height: 300px"> </div> Don't know much about js, but my understanding is that a) I have to include the scripts in the view module I'm writing (directly in the HTML? I would prefer to load a separate script) b) I have to trigger that function using the equivalent of body onload... (obviously there's no body tag in my view. In my ignorance I've tried div onload=.... but didn't seem to be working :) What do you suggest I do? I've read about window.onload but don't know what's the correct syntax for that. please keep in mind that other parts of the page include other js functions (eg, google adsense) that are called after the footer.

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  • Strategies for "Always-Connected" Windows Client Data Architecture

    - by magz2010
    Hi. Let me start by saying: this is my 1st post here, this is a bit lenghty, and I havent done Windows Forms development in years....with that in mind please excuse me if this isn't directly a programming question and please bear with me as I really need the help!! I have been asked to develop a Windows Forms app for our company that talks to a central (local area network) Linux Server hosting a PostgreSQL database. The app is to allow users to authenticate themselves into the system and thereafter conduct the usual transactions with the PG database. Ordinarily, I would propose writing a webforms app against Mono, but the clients need to utilise local resources such as USB peripheral devices, so that is out of the question. While it might not seem clear, my questions are italised below: Dilemma #1: The application is meant to be always connected. How should I structure my DAL/BLL - Should this reside on the server or with the client? Dilemma #2: I have been reading up on Client Application Services (CAS), and it seems like a great fit for authentication, as everything is exposed via URIs. I know that a .NET Data Provider exists for PostgreSQL, but not too sure if CAS will all work on a Linux (Debian) server? Believe me, I would get my hands dirty and try myself, but I need to come up with a logical design first before resources are allocated to me for "trial purposes"! Dilemma #3: If the DAL/BLL is to reside on the server, is there any way I can create data services, and expose only these services to authenticated clients. There is a (security) requirement whereby a connection string with username and password to the database cannot be present on any client machines...even if security on the database side is quite rigid. I'm guessing that the only way for this to work would be to create the various CRUD data service methods that are exposed by an ASP.NET app, and have the WindowsForms make a request for data or persist data to the ASP.NET app (thru a URI) and have that return a resultset or value. Would I be correct in assuming this? Should I be looking into WCF Data Services? and will WCF work with a non-SQL Server database? Thank you for taking the time out to read this, but know that I am desperately seeking any advice on this! THANKS A MILLION!!!!

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  • Spring MVC, REST, and HATEOAS

    - by SingleShot
    I'm struggling with the correct way to implement Spring MVC 3.x RESTful services with HATEOAS. Consider the following constraints: I don't want my domain entities polluted with web/rest constructs. I don't want my controllers polluted with view constructs. I want to support multiple views. Currently I have a nicely put together MVC app without HATEOAS. Domain entities are pure POJOs without any view or web/rest concepts embedded. For example: class User { public String getName() {...} public String setName(String name) {...} ... } My controllers are also simple. They provide routing and status, and delegate to Spring's view resolution framework. Note my application supports JSON, XML, and HTML, yet no domain entities or controllers have embedded view information: @Controller @RequestMapping("/users") class UserController { @RequestMapping public ModelAndView getAllUsers() { List<User> users = userRepository.findAll(); return new ModelAndView("users/index", "users", users); } @RequestMapping("/{id}") public ModelAndView getUser(@PathVariable Long id) { User user = userRepository.findById(id); return new ModelAndView("users/show", "user", user); } } So, now my issue - I'm not sure of a clean way to support HATEOAS. Here's an example. Let's say when the client asks for a User in JSON format, it comes out like this: { firstName: "John", lastName: "Smith" } Let's also say that when I support HATEOAS, I want the JSON to contain a simple "self" link that the client can then use to refresh the object, delete it, or something else. It might also have a "friends" link indicating how to get the user's list of friends: { firstName: "John", lastName: "Smith", links: [ { rel: "self", ref: "http://myserver/users/1" }, { rel: "friends", ref: "http://myserver/users/1/friends" } ] } Somehow I want to attach links to my object. I feel the right place to do this is in the controller layer as the controllers all know the correct URLs. Additionally, since I support multiple views, I feel like the right thing to do is somehow decorate my domain entities in the controller before they are converted to JSON/XML/whatever in Spring's view resolution framework. One way to do this might be to wrap the POJO in question with a generic Resource class that contains a list of links. Some view tweaking would be required to crunch it into the format I want, but its doable. Unfortunately nested resources could not be wrapped in this way. Other things that come to mind include adding links to the ModelAndView, and then customizing each of Spring's out-of-the-box view resolvers to stuff links into the generated JSON/XML/etc. What I don't want is to be constantly hand-crafting JSON/XML/etc. to accommodate various links as they come and go during the course of development. Thoughts?

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  • Blit Queue Optimization Algorithm

    - by martona
    I'm looking to implement a module that manages a blit queue. There's a single surface, and portions of this surface (bounded by rectangles) are copied to elsewhere within the surface: add_blt(rect src, point dst); There can be any number of operations posted, in order, to the queue. Eventually the user of the queue will stop posting blits, and ask for an optimal set of operations to actually perform on the surface. The task of the module is to ensure that no pixel is copied unnecessarily. This gets tricky because of overlaps of course. A blit could re-blit a previously copied pixel. Ideally blit operations would be subdivided in the optimization phase in such a way that every block goes to its final place with a single operation. It's tricky but not impossible to put this together. I'm just trying to not reinvent the wheel. I looked around on the 'net, and the only thing I found was the SDL_BlitPool Library which assumes that the source surface differs from the destination. It also does a lot of grunt work, seemingly unnecessarily: regions and similar building blocks are a given. I'm looking for something higher-level. Of course, I'm not going to look a gift horse in the mouth, and I also don't mind doing actual work... If someone can come forward with a basic idea that makes this problem seem less complex than it does right now, that'd be awesome too. EDIT: Thinking about aaronasterling's answer... could this work? Implement customized region handler code that can maintain metadata for every rectangle it contains. When the region handler splits up a rectangle, it will automatically associate the metadata of this rectangle with the resulting sub-rectangles. When the optimization run starts, create an empty region handled by the above customized code, call this the master region Iterate through the blt queue, and for every entry: Let srcrect be the source rectangle for the blt beng examined Get the intersection of srcrect and master region into temp region Remove temp region from master region, so master region no longer covers temp region Promote srcrect to a region (srcrgn) and subtract temp region from it Offset temp region and srcrgn with the vector of the current blt: their union will cover the destination area of the current blt Add to master region all rects in temp region, retaining the original source metadata (step one of adding the current blt to the master region) Add to master region all rects in srcrgn, adding the source information for the current blt (step two of adding the current blt to the master region) Optimize master region by checking if adjacent sub-rectangles that are merge candidates have the same metadata. Two sub-rectangles are merge candidates if (r1.x1 == r2.x1 && r1.x2 == r2.x2) | (r1.y1 == r2.y1 && r1.y2 == r2.y2). If yes, combine them. Enumerate master region's sub-rectangles. Every rectangle returned is an optimized blt operation destination. The associated metadata is the blt operation`s source.

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  • XML and XSD - use element name as replacement of xsi:type for polymorphism

    - by disown
    Taking the W3C vehicle XSD as an example: <schema xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" targetNamespace="http://cars.example.com/schema" xmlns:target="http://cars.example.com/schema"> <complexType name="Vehicle" abstract="true"/> <complexType name="Car"> <complexContent> <extension base="target:Vehicle"/> ... </complexContent> </complexType> <complexType name="Plane"> <complexContent> <extension base="target:Vehicle"/> <sequence> <element name="wingspan" type="integer"/> </sequence> </complexContent> </complexType> </schema> , and the following definition of 'meansOfTravel': <complexType name="MeansOfTravel"> <complexContent> <sequence> <element name="transport" type="target:Vehicle"/> </sequence> </complexContent> </complexType> <element name="meansOfTravel" type="target:MeansOfTravel"/> With this definition you need to specify the type of your instance using xsi:type, like this: <meansOfTravel> <transport xsi:type="Plane"> <wingspan>3</wingspan> </transport> </meansOfTravel> I would just like to acheive a 'name of type' - 'name of element' mapping so that this could be replaced with just <meansOfTravel> <plane> <wingspan>3</wingspan> </plane> </meansOfTravel> The only way I could do this until now is by making it explicit: <complexType name="MeansOfTravel"> <sequence> <choice> <element name="plane" type="target:Plane"/> <element name="car" type="target:Car"/> </choice> </sequence> </complexType> <element name="meansOfTravel" type="target:MeansOfTravel"/> But this means that I have to list all possible sub-types in the 'MeansOfTravel' complex type. Is there no way of making the XML parser assume that you mean a 'Plane' if you call the element 'plane'? Or do I have to make the choice explicit? I would just like to keep my design DRY - if you have any other suggestions (like groups or so) - i would love to hear them.

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  • CKEdtior not displaying

    - by user1708468
    I am trying to integrate CKEditor into a MVC application. As far as I can tell all I should really have to do is. Add the following to my master page. <script type="text/javascript" src="../../ckeditor/ckeditor.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../../ckeditor/adapters/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/jscript" src="../../Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.js"></script> Then on my view itself. I have the following code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#news').ckeditor(); }); </script> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <p> <label for="title">Title:</label> <%=Html.TextBox("title")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("title", "*") %> </p> <p> <label for="news">News:</label> <%=Html.TextArea("news")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("news", "*") %> </p> <p> <label for="publishedDate">Publication Date:</label> <%= Html.TextBox("publishedDate") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("publishedDate", "*") %> </p> <p> <input type="submit" value="Create" /> </p> </fieldset> Please bear in mind I am not trying to get this to actually DO anything postback wise. Just to actually render in the first place. Can someone point out exactly what it is I am doing wrong? Oh and if it helps any VS is also giving me the following warning: Warning 1 Error updating JScript IntelliSense: ..Cut to Protect the innocent..\ckeditor\ckeditor.js: 'getFirst()' is null or not an object @ 15:180 ..Cut to Protect the innocent..\Views\Shared\Admin.Master 1 1 ilaTraining

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  • Linq To Xml problems using XElement's method Elements(XName)

    - by Dorian McHensie
    Hello everyone. I have a problem using Linq To Xml. A simple code. I have this XML: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <data xmlns="http://www.xxx.com" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.xxx.com/directory file.xsd"> <contact> <name>aaa</name> <email>[email protected]</email> <birthdate>2002-09-22</birthdate> <telephone>000:000000</telephone> <description>Description for this contact</description> </contact> <contact> <name>sss</name> <email>[email protected]</email> <birthdate>2002-09-22</birthdate> <telephone>000:000000</telephone> <description>Description for this contact</description> </contact> <contact> <name>bbb</name> <email>[email protected]</email> <birthdate>2002-09-22</birthdate> <telephone>000:000000</telephone> <description>Description for this contact</description> </contact> <contact> <name>ccc</name> <email>[email protected]</email> <birthdate>2002-09-22</birthdate> <telephone>000:000000</telephone> <description>Description for this contact</description> </contact> I want to get every contact mapping it on an object Contact. To do this I use this fragment of code: XDocument XDoc = XDocument.Load(System.Web.HttpRuntime.AppDomainAppPath + this.filesource); XElement XRoot = XDoc.Root; //XElement XEl = XElement.Load(this.filesource); var results = from e in XRoot.Elements("contact") select new Contact((string)e.Element("name"), (string)e.Element("email"), "1-1-1", null, null); List<Contact> cntcts = new List<Contact>(); foreach (Contact cntct in results) { cntcts.Add(cntct); } Contact[] c = cntcts.ToArray(); // Encapsulating element Elements<Contact> final = new Elements<Contact>(c); Ok just don't mind that all: focus on this: When I get the root node, it is all right, I get it correctly. When I use the select directive I try to get every node saying: from e in XRoot.Elements("contact") OK here's the problem: if I use: from e in XRoot.Elements() I get all contact nodes, but if I use: from e in XRoot.Elements("contact") I GET NOTHING: Empty SET. OK you tell me: Use the other one: OK I DO SO, let's use: from e in XRoot.Elements(), I get all nodes anyway, THAT's RIGHT BUT HERE COMES THE OTHER PROBLEM: When Saying: select new Contact((string)e.Element("name"), (string)e.Element("email"), "1-1-1", null, null); I Try to access <name>, <email>... I HAVE TO USE .Element("name") AND IT DOES NOT WORK TOO!!!!!!!!WHAT THE HELL IS THIS????????????? IT SEEMS THAT I DOES NOT MATCH THE NAME I PASS But how is it possible. I know that Elements() function takes, overloaded, one argument that is an XName which is mapped onto a string. Please consider that the code I wrote come from an example, It should work. Please somebody help me. THANKS IN ADVANCE

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  • PHP Regex: How to match anything except a pattern between two tags

    - by Ryan
    Hello, I am attempting to match a string which is composed of HTML. Basically it is an image gallery so there is a lot of similarity in the string. There are a lot of <dl> tags in the string, but I am looking to match the last <dl>(.?)+</dl> combo that comes before a </div>. The way I've devised to do this is to make sure that there aren't any <dl's inside the <dl></dl> combo I'm matching. I don't care what else is there, including other tags and line breaks. I decided I had to do it with regular expressions because I can't predict how long this substring will be or anything that's inside it. Here is my current regex that only returns me an array with two NULL indicies: preg_match_all('/<dl((?!<dl).)+<\/dl>(?=<\/div>)/', $foo, $bar) As you can see I use negative lookahead to try and see if there is another <dl> within this one. I've also tried negative lookbehind here with the same results. I've also tried using +? instead of just + to no avail. Keep in mind that there's no pattern <dl><dl></dl> or anything, but that my regex is either matching the first <dl> and the last </dl> or nothing at all. Now I realize . won't match line breaks but I've tried anything I could imagine there and it still either provides me with the NULL indicies or nearly the whole string (from the very first occurance of <dl to </dl></div>, which includes several other occurances of <dl>, exactly what I didn't want). I honestly don't know what I'm doing incorrectly. Thanks for your help! I've spent over an hour just trying to straighten out this one problem and it's about driven me to pulling my hair out.

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  • Benchmark of Java Try/Catch Block

    - by hectorg87
    I know that going into a catch block has some significance cost when executing a program, however, I was wondering if entering a try{} block also had any impact so I started looking for an answer in google with many opinions, but no benchmarking at all. Some answers I found were: Java try/catch performance, is it recommended to keep what is inside the try clause to a minimum? Try Catch Performance Java Java try catch blocks However they didn't answer my question with facts, so I decided to try it for myself. Here's what I did. I have a csv file with this format: host;ip;number;date;status;email;uid;name;lastname;promo_code; where everything after status is optional and will not even have the corresponding ; , so when parsing a validation has to be done to see if the value is there, here's where the try/catch issue came to my mind. The current code that in inherited in my company does this: StringTokenizer st=new StringTokenizer(line,";"); String host = st.nextToken(); String ip = st.nextToken(); String number = st.nextToken(); String date = st.nextToken(); String status = st.nextToken(); String email = ""; try{ email = st.nextToken(); }catch(NoSuchElementException e){ email = ""; } and it repeats what it's done for email with uid, name, lastname and promo_code. and I changed everything to: if(st.hasMoreTokens()){ email = st.nextToken(); } and in fact it performs faster. When parsing a file that doesn't have the optional columns. Here are the average times: --- Trying:122 milliseconds --- Checking:33 milliseconds however, here's what confused me and the reason I'm asking: When running the example with values for the optional columns in all 8000 lines of the CSV, the if() version still performs better than the try/catch version, so my question is Does really the try block does not have any performance impact on my code? The average times for this example are: --- Trying:105 milliseconds --- Checking:43 milliseconds Can somebody explain what's going on here? Thanks a lot

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  • Create attribute in existing XML

    - by user560411
    Hello. I have the following php code that inserts data into XML and works correctly. However, I want to add an ID number like below <CD id="xxxx"> My question is how can i add an ID into CD for this to work ? I use form to parse the id. ** the main code ** <?php $CD = array( 'TITLE' => $_POST['title'], 'BAND' => $_POST['band'], 'YEAR' => $_POST['year'], ); $doc = new DOMDocument(); $doc->load( 'insert.xml' ); $doc->formatOutput = true; $r = $doc->getElementsByTagName("CATEGORIES")->item(0); $b = $doc->createElement("CD"); $TITLE = $doc->createElement("TITLE"); $TITLE->appendChild( $doc->createTextNode( $CD["TITLE"] ) ); $b->appendChild( $TITLE ); $BAND = $doc->createElement("BAND"); $BAND->appendChild( $doc->createTextNode( $CD["BAND"] ) ); $b->appendChild( $BAND ); $YEAR = $doc->createElement("YEAR"); $YEAR->appendChild( $doc->createTextNode( $CD["YEAR"] ) ); $b->appendChild( $YEAR ); $r->appendChild( $b ); $doc->save("insert.xml"); ?> the XML file <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <MY_CD> <CATEGORIES> <CD> <TITLE>NEVER MIND THE BOLLOCKS</TITLE> <BAND>SEX PISTOLS</BAND> <YEAR>1977</YEAR> </CD> <CD> <TITLE>NEVERMIND</TITLE> <BAND>NIRVANA</BAND> <YEAR>1991</YEAR> </CD> </CATEGORIES> </MY_CD>

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  • .htaccess mod_rewrite URL query

    - by 1001001
    I was hoping someone could help me out. I'm building a CRM application and need help modifying the .htaccess file to clean up the URLs. I've read every post regarding .htaccess and mod_rewrite and I've even tried using http://www.generateit.net/mod-rewrite/ to obtain the results with no success. Here is what I am attempting to do. Let's call the base URL www.domain.com We are using php with a mysql back-end and some jQuery and javascript In that "root" folder is my .htaccess file. I'm not sure if I need a .htaccess file in each subdirectory or if one in the root is enough. We have several actual directories of files including "crm", "sales", "finance", etc. First off we want to strip off all the ".php" extensions which I am able to do myself thanks to these posts. However, the querying of the company and contact IDs are where I am stuck. Right now if I load www.domain.com/crm/companies.php it displays all the companies in a list. If I click on one of the companies it uses javascript to call a "goto_company(x)" jQuery script that writes a form and submit that form based on the ID (x) of the company. This works fine and keeps the links clean as all the end user sees is www.domain.com/crm/company.php. However you can't navigate directly to a company. So we added a few lines in PHP to see if the POST is null and try a GET instead allowing us to do www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 which displays company #40 out of the database. I need to rewrite this link, and all other associated links to www.domain.com/crm/company/40 I've tried everything and nothing seems to work. Keep in mind that I need to do this for "contacts" and also on the sales portion of the app will need to do something for "deals". To summarize here's what I am looking to do: Change www.domain.com/crm/dash.php to www.domain.com/crm/dash Change www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 to www.domain.com/crm/company/40 Change www.domain.com/crm/contact.php?contactID=27 to www.domain.com/crm/contact/27 Change www.domain.com/sales/dash.php to www.domain.com/sales/dash Change www.domain.com/sales/deal.php?dealID=6 to www.domain.com/sales/deal/6 (40, 27, and 6 are just arbitrary numbers as examples) Just for reference, when I used the generateit.net/mod-rewrite site using www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 as an example, here is what it told me to put in my .htaccess file: Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^crm/company/([^/]*)$ /crm/company.php?companyID=$1 [L] Needless to say that didn't work.

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  • Counting point size based on chart area during zooming/unzoomin

    - by Gacek
    Hi folks. I heave a quite simple task. I know (I suppose) it should be easy, but from the reasons I cannot understand, I try to solve it since 2 days and I don't know where I'm making the mistake. So, the problem is as follows: - we have a chart with some points - The chart starts with some known area and points have known size - we would like to "emulate" the zooming effect. So when we zoom to some part of the chart, the size of points is getting proportionally bigger. In other words, the smaller part of the chart we select, the bigger the point should get. So, we have something like that. We know this two parameters: initialArea; // Initial area - area of the whole chart, counted as width*height initialSize; // initial size of the points Now lets assume we are handling some kind of OnZoom event. We selected some part of the chart and would like to count the current size of the points float CountSizeOnZoom() { float currentArea = CountArea(...); // the area is counted for us. float currentSize = initialSize * initialArea / currentArea; return currentSize; } And it works. But the rate of change is too fast. In other words, the points are getting really big too soon. So I would like the currentSize to be invertly proportional to currentArea, but with some scaling coefficient. So I created the second function: float CountSizeOnZoom() { float currentArea = CountArea(...); % the area is counted for us. // Lets assume we want the size of points to change ten times slower, than area of the chart changed. float currentSize = initialSize + 0.1f* initialSize * ((initialArea / currentArea) -1); return currentSize; } Lets do some calculations in mind. if currentArea is smaller than initialArea, initialArea/currentArea > 1 and then we add "something" small and postive to initialSize. Checked, it works. Lets check what happens if we would un-zoom. currentArea will be equal to initialArea, so we would have 0 at the right side (1-1), so new size should be equal to initialSize. Right? Yeah. So lets check it... and it doesn't work. My question is: where is the mistake? Or maybe you have any ideas how to count this scaled size depending on current area in some other way?

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  • Storing a NTFS Security Descriptor in C

    - by Doori Bar
    My goal is to store a NTFS Security Descriptor in its identical native state. The purpose is to restore it on-demand. I managed to write the code for that purpose, I was wondering if anybody mind to validate a sample of it? (The for loop represents the way I store the native descriptor) This sample only contains the flag for "OWNER", but my intention is to apply the same method for all of the security descriptor flags. I'm just a beginner, would appreciate the heads up. Thanks, Doori Bar #define _WIN32_WINNT 0x0501 #define WINVER 0x0501 #include <stdio.h> #include <windows.h> #include "accctrl.h" #include "aclapi.h" #include "sddl.h" int main (void) { DWORD lasterror; PSECURITY_DESCRIPTOR PSecurityD1, PSecurityD2; HANDLE hFile; PSID owner; LPTSTR ownerstr; BOOL ownerdefault; int ret = 0; unsigned int i; hFile = CreateFile("c:\\boot.ini", GENERIC_READ | ACCESS_SYSTEM_SECURITY, FILE_SHARE_READ, NULL, OPEN_EXISTING, FILE_FLAG_BACKUP_SEMANTICS, NULL); if (hFile == INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE) { fprintf(stderr,"CreateFile() failed. Error: INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE\n"); return 1; } lasterror = GetSecurityInfo(hFile, SE_FILE_OBJECT, OWNER_SECURITY_INFORMATION , &owner, NULL, NULL, NULL, &PSecurityD1); if (lasterror != ERROR_SUCCESS) { fprintf(stderr,"GetSecurityInfo() failed. Error: %lu;\n", lasterror); ret = 1; goto ret1; } ConvertSidToStringSid(owner,&ownerstr); printf("ownerstr of PSecurityD1: %s\n", ownerstr); /* The for loop represents the way I store the native descriptor */ PSecurityD2 = malloc( GetSecurityDescriptorLength(PSecurityD1) * sizeof(unsigned char) ); for (i=0; i < GetSecurityDescriptorLength(PSecurityD1); i++) ((unsigned char *) PSecurityD2)[i] = ((unsigned char *) PSecurityD1)[i]; if (IsValidSecurityDescriptor(PSecurityD2) == 0) { fprintf(stderr,"IsValidSecurityDescriptor(PSecurityD2) failed.\n"); ret = 2; goto ret2; } if (GetSecurityDescriptorOwner(PSecurityD2,&owner,&ownerdefault) == 0) { fprintf(stderr,"GetSecurityDescriptorOwner() failed."); ret = 2; goto ret2; } ConvertSidToStringSid(owner,&ownerstr); printf("ownerstr of PSecurityD2: %s\n", ownerstr); ret2: free(owner); free(ownerstr); free(PSecurityD1); free(PSecurityD2); ret1: CloseHandle(hFile); return ret; }

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  • Is there a programming language with be semantics close to English ?

    - by ivo s
    Most languages allow to 'tweek' to certain extend parts of the syntax (C++,C#) and/or semantics that you will be using in your code (Katahdin, lua). But I have not heard of a language that can just completely define how your code will look like. So isn't there some language which already exists that has such capabilities to override all syntax & define semantics ? Example of what I want to do is basically from the C# code below: foreach(Fruit fruit in Fruits) { if(fruit is Apple) { fruit.Price = fruit.Price/2; } } I want do be able to to write the above code in my perfect language like this: Check if any fruits are Macintosh apples and discount the price by 50%. The advantages that come to my mind looking from a coder's perspective in this "imaginary" language are: It's very clear what is going on (self descriptive) - it's plain English after all even kid would understand my program Hides all complexities which I have to write in C#. But why should I care to learn that if statements, arithmetic operators etc since there are already implemented The disadvantages that I see for a coder who will maintain this program are: Maybe you would express this program differently from me so you may not get all the information that I've expressed in my sentence Programs can be quite verbose and hard to debug but if possible to even proximate this type of syntax above maybe more people would start programming right? That would be amazing I think. I can go to work and just write an essay to draw a square on a winform like this: Create a form called MyGreetingForm. Draw a square with in the middle of MyGreetingFormwith a side of 100 points. In the middle of the square write "Hello! Click here to continue" in Arial font. In the above code the parser must basically guess that I want to use the unnamed square from the previous sentence, it'd be hard to write such a smart parser I guess, yet it's so simple what I want to do. If the user clicks on square in the middle of MyGreetingForm show MyMainForm. In the above code 'basically' the compiler must: 1)generate an event handler 2) check if there is any square in the middle of the form and if there is - 3) hide the form and show another form It looks very hard to do but it doesn't look impossible IMO to me at least approximate this (I can personally generate a parser to perform the 3 steps above np & it's basically the same that it has to do any way when you add even in c# a.MyEvent=+handler; so I don't see a problem here) so I'm thinking maybe somebody already did something like this ? Or is there some practical burden of complexity to create such a 'essay style' programming language which I can't see ? I mean what's the worse that can happen if the parser is not that good? - your program will crash so you have to re-word it:)

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  • [NHibernate and ASP.NET MVC] How can I implement a robust session-per-request pattern in my project,

    - by Guillaume Gervais
    I'm currently building an ASP.NET MVC project, with NHibernate as its persistance layer. For now, some functionnalities have been implemented, but only use local NHibernate sessions: each method that accessed the database (read or write) needs to instanciate its own NHibernate session, with the "using()" directive. The problem is that I want to leverage NHibernate's Lazy-Loading capabilities to improve the performance of my project. This implies an open NHibernate session per request until the view is rendered. Furthermore, simultaneous request must be supported (multiple Sessions at the same time). How can I achieve that as cleanly as possible? I searched the Web a little bit and learned about the session-per-request pattern. Most of the implementations I saw used some sort of Http* (HttpContext, etc.) object to store the session. Also, using the Application_BeginRequest/Application_EndRequest functions is complicated, since they get fired for each HTTP request (aspx files, css files, js files, etc.), when I only want to instanciate a session once per request. The concern that I have is that I don't want my views or controllers to have access to NHibernate sessions (or, more generally, NHibernate namespaces and code). That means that I do not want to handle sessions at the controller level nor the view one. I have a few options in mind. Which one seems the best ? Use interceptors (like in GRAILS) that get triggered before and after the controller action. These would open and close sessions/transactions. Is it possible in the ASP.NET MVC world? Use the CurrentSessionContext Singleton provided by NHibernate in a Web context. Using this page as an example, I think this is quite promising, but that still requires filters at the controller level. Use the HttpContext.Current.Items to store the request session. This, coupled with a few lines of code in Global.asax.cs, can easily provide me with a session on the request level. However, it means that dependencies will be injected between NHibernate and my views (HttpContext). Thank you very much!

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  • How to Transfer Large File from MS Word Add-In (VBA) to Web Server?

    - by Ian Robinson
    Overview I have a Microsoft Word Add-In, written in VBA (Visual Basic for Applications), that compresses a document and all of it's related contents (embedded media) into a zip archive. After creating the zip archive it then turns the file into a byte array and posts it to an ASMX web service. This mostly works. Issues The main issue I have is transferring large files to the web site. I can successfully upload a file that is around 40MB, but not one that is 140MB (timeout/general failure). A secondary issue is that building the byte array in the VBScript Word Add-In can fail by running out of memory on the client machine if the zip archive is too large. Potential Solutions I am considering the following options and am looking for feedback on either option or any other suggestions. Option One Opening a file stream on the client (MS Word VBA) and reading one "chunk" at a time and transmitting to ASMX web service which assembles the "chunks" into a file on the server. This has the benefit of not adding any additional dependencies or components to the application, I would only be modifying existing functionality. (Fewer dependencies is better as this solution should work in a variety of server environments and be relatively easy to set up.) Question: Are there examples of doing this or any recommended techniques (either on the client in VBA or in the web service in C#/VB.NET)? Option Two I understand WCF may provide a solution to the issue of transferring large files by "chunking" or streaming data. However, I am not very familiar with WCF, and am not sure what exactly it is capable of or if I can communicate with a WCF service from VBA. This has the downside of adding another dependency (.NET 3.0). But if using WCF is definitely a better solution I may not mind taking that dependency. Questions: Does WCF reliably support large file transfers of this nature? If so, what does this involve? Any resources or examples? Are you able to call a WCF service from VBA? Any examples?

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  • Zend Framework-where should this root.php file go for MVC?

    - by Joel
    Hi guys, I'm converting over a web-app to use the MVC structure of Zend Framework. I have a root.php include file that contains most of the database info, and some static variables that are used in the program. I'm not sure if some of this should be in the application.ini of in a model that is called by the init() function in a controller, or in the bootstrap or what? Any help would be much appreciated! root.php (include file at the top of every php page): <?php /*** //Configuration file */ ## Site Configuration starts ## define("SITE_ROOT" , dirname(__FILE__)); define("SITE_URL" , "http://localhost/monkeycalendarapp/monkeycalendarapp/public"); define('DB_HOST', "localhost"); define('DB_USER', "root"); define('DB_PASS', "xxx"); define('DB_NAME', "xxxxx"); define("PROJECT_NAME" , "Monkey Mind Manager (beta 2.2)"); //site title define("CALENDAR_WIDTH" , "300"); //left mini calendar width define("CALENDAR_HEIGHT" , "150"); //left mini calendar height $page_title = 'Event List'; $stylesheet_name = 'style.css'; //default stylesheet define("SITE_URL_AJAX" , SITE_URL . "/ajax-tooltip"); define("JQUERY" , SITE_URL . "/jquery-ui-1.7.2"); $a_times = array("12:00","12:30","01:00","01:30","02:00","02:30","03:00","03:30","04:00","04:30","05:00","05:30","06:00","06:30","07:00","07:30","08:00","08:30","09:00","09:30","10:00","10:30","11:00","11:30"); //PTLType Promotional timeline type $a_ptlType= array(1=>"Gigs","To-Do","Completed"); $a_days = array("Su","Mo","Tu","We","Th","Fr","Sa"); $a_timesMerd = array("12:00am","12:30am","01:00am","01:30am","02:00am","02:30am","03:00am","03:30am","04:00am","04:30am","05:00am","05:30am","06:00am","06:30am","07:00am","07:30am","08:00am","08:30am","09:00am","09:30am","10:00am","10:30am","11:00am","11:30am","12:00pm","12:30pm","01:00pm","01:30pm","02:00pm","02:30pm","03:00pm","03:30pm","04:00pm","04:30pm","05:00pm","05:30pm","06:00pm","06:30pm","07:00pm","07:30pm","08:00pm","08:30pm","09:00pm","09:30pm","10:00pm","10:30pm","11:00pm","11:30pm"); //Setting stylesheet for this user. $AMPM=array("am"=>"am","pm"=>"pm"); include(SITE_ROOT . "/includes/functions/general.php"); include(SITE_ROOT . "/includes/db.php"); session_start(); if(isset($_SESSION['userData']['UserID'])) { $s_userID = $_SESSION['userData']['UserID']; } $stylesheet_name = stylesheet(); ini_set('date.timezone', 'GMT'); date_default_timezone_set('GMT'); if($s_userID) { ini_set('date.timezone', $_SESSION['userData']['timezone']); date_default_timezone_set($_SESSION['userData']['timezone']); } ?>

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  • NEED your opinion on .net Profile class VS session vars

    - by Ted
    To save trips to sql db in my older apps, I store *dozens of data points about the current user in an array and then store the array in a session. For example, info that might be used repeatedly during user’s session might be stored… Dim a(7) as string a(0) = “FirstName” a(1) = “LastName” a(2) = “Address” a(3) = “Address2” a(4) = “City” a(5) = “State” a(6) = “Zip” session.add(“s_a”, a) *Some apps have an array 100 in size. That is something I learned in my asp classic days. Referencing the correct index can be laborsome and I find it difficult to go back and add another data point in the array grouped with like data. For example, suppose I need to add Middle Initial to the array as a design alteration. Unless I redo the whole index mapping, I have to stick Middle Initial in the next open slot, which might be in the 50s. NOW, I am considering doing something easier to reference each time (eliminating the need to know the index of the value wanted). So I am looking to do this… session.add(“Firstname”, “FirstName”) session.add(“Lastname”, “LastName”) session.add(“Address”, “Address”) etc. BUT, before I do this, I would like some guidance. I am afraid this might be less efficient, even though easier to use. I don’t know if a new session object is created for each data point or if there is only one session object, and I am adding a name/value pair to that object? If I am adding a name/value pair to a single object, that seems like a good idea. Does anyone know? Or is there a more preferred way? Built-in Profile class? Re: Profile class I have an internal debate about scope. It seems that the .net Profile class is good for storing app-SPECIFIC user settings (i.e. style theme, object display properties, user role, etc.) The examples I give are information whose values are selected/edited by the user to customize the application experience. This information is not typically stored/edited elsewhere in the app db. But when you have data that 1) is stored already in the app db and 2) can be altered by other users (in this case: company reps may update client's status, address, etc.), then the persistence of the Profile data may be an issue. In this case, the Profile would need to be reset at the beginning and dropped like a session.abandon at the end of each user's session to prevent reloading info that had since been edited by someone. I believe this is possible, but not sure Currently, I use the session array to store both scopes, app-specific and user-specific data. If my session plan is good, I think I will create a class to set/get values from the session also. I appreciate your thoughts. I would like to know how others have handled this type of situation. Thanks.

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  • Database Schema Versioning Strategies

    - by Jack Ryan
    I work on a project that uses a reasonably large database, the live version weighing in at somewhere around 60-80GB. The live database is the only real definitive source of our schema, and because of its size duplicating this database is too slow to be done often. This means we have ended up developing our database schema in a pretty ad hoc way, using sql compare to migrate changes from dev dbs to the live system, and only wiping our dev dbs every month or two. I am hoping to get some pointers on how to improve our database development work flow so that we have a little more control. Some things to think about: Currently nobody is really in charge of the database schema, all developers can change it if they need to, though generally these decisions are talked about before they are done. There are stored procedures, functions, and views in the database. These should probably be dumped to files so they can be reloaded on every build. Schema changes should probably be checked in as scripts. We have started to do this recently. However all our scripts must then be numbered (because there may be dependencies between them), and must be re runnable (because our build script currently runs them all in order). This makes them hard to read because they are full of conditionals that check whether tables or columns already exist. This is a step that is often forgotten by developers. Getting a new database should be quick and easy. This is currently a big problem, it takes several hours to get a copy of last nights backup and restore it onto a dev machine. Some mechanism needs to be in place to allow developers to update static data. We have tables that contain data that is never updated through the application, but does potentially need to be changed when we do a new release (often this drives dropdowns). The whole thing needs to be runnable as part of a build script. Are there any tools that can be used to help to do this? Eventually I would like to be at a point where a new DB can be built from scratch without copying any data from the live system. I don't mind writing some scripts to glue all the steps together but each part should be easily editable so that we continue to use it rather than make changes directly on DBs.

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  • javascript multidimensional array?

    - by megapool020
    Hi there, I hope I can make myself clear in English and in what I want to create. I first start with what I want. I want to make a IBANcalculator that can generate 1-n IBANnumbers and also validate a given IBANnumber. IBANnumbers are used in many countries for payment and the tool I want to make can be used to generate the numbers for testing purpose. On wikipedia (Dutch site) I found a list with countries and their way of defining the IBANnumber. What I want to do it to make a kind of an array that holds all the countries with their name, the code, there IBANlength, the bankingformat and the account format. The array needs to be used to: Generate a select list (for selecting a country) used to check part for generating numbers used to check part for validating number I don't know if an array is the best way, but that's so far the most knowledge I have. I allready made a table like this that holds the info (this table isn't used anyware, but it was a good way for me to show you what I have in mind about how the structure is): <table> <tr> <td>countryname</td> <td>country code</td> <td>valid IBAN length</td> <td>Bank/Branch Code (check1, bank, branch)</td> <td>Account Number (check2, number, check3)</td> <tr> <tr> <td>Andorra</td> <td>AD</td> <td>24</td> <td>0 4n 4n</td> <td>0 12 0 </td> <tr> <tr> <td>België</td> <td>BE</td> <td>16</td> <td>0 3n 0 </td> <td>0 7n 2n</td> <tr> <tr> <td>Bosnië-Herzegovina</td> <td>BA</td> <td>20</td> <td>0 3n 3n</td> <td>0 8n 2n</td> <tr> </table> and many more ;-) I hope someone can help me with this. Tnx in advance

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  • JUnit for Functions with Void Return Values

    - by RobotNerd
    I've been working on a Java application where I have to use JUnit for testing. I am learning it as I go. So far I find it to be useful, especially when used in conjunction with the Eclipse JUnit plugin. After playing around a bit, I developed a consistent method for building my unit tests for functions with no return values. I wanted to share it here and ask others to comment. Do you have any suggested improvements or alternative ways to accomplish the same goal? Common Return Values First, there's an enumeration which is used to store values representing test outcomes. public enum UnitTestReturnValues { noException, unexpectedException // etc... } Generalized Test Let's say a unit test is being written for: public class SomeClass { public void targetFunction (int x, int y) { // ... } } The JUnit test class would be created: import junit.framework.TestCase; public class TestSomeClass extends TestCase { // ... } Within this class, I create a function which is used for every call to the target function being tested. It catches all exceptions and returns a message based on the outcome. For example: public class TestSomeClass extends TestCase { private UnitTestReturnValues callTargetFunction (int x, int y) { UnitTestReturnValues outcome = UnitTestReturnValues.noException; SomeClass testObj = new SomeClass (); try { testObj.targetFunction (x, y); } catch (Exception e) { UnitTestReturnValues.unexpectedException; } return outcome; } } JUnit Tests Functions called by JUnit begin with a lowercase "test" in the function name, and they fail at the first failed assertion. To run multiple tests on the targetFunction above, it would be written as: public class TestSomeClass extends TestCase { public void testTargetFunctionNegatives () { assertEquals ( callTargetFunction (-1, -1), UnitTestReturnValues.noException); } public void testTargetFunctionZeros () { assertEquals ( callTargetFunction (0, 0), UnitTestReturnValues.noException); } // and so on... } Please let me know if you have any suggestions or improvements. Keep in mind that I am in the process of learning how to use JUnit, so I'm sure there are existing tools available that might make this process easier. Thanks!

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