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  • Replacing XML reserved characters in SQL Server 2005

    - by Barn
    I'm working on a system that takes relational data from a sql server DB and uses SSIS to produce an XML extract using sql server 2005's 'FOR XML PATH' command and a schema. The problem lies with replacing the XML reserved characters. 'FOR XML PATH' is only replacing <, , and &, not ' and ", so I need a way of replacing these myself. I've tried pre-processing the fields in the database to replace XML reserved characters with their entitised equivalents (e.g. & becomes &amp;), but once these fields are used to construct XML using FOR XML the leading & is replaced with &amp;, so I end up with &amp;amp; where I should have &amp;. What I've tried so far is altering the element's contents after the XML has been constructed using XQuery inside SQL server like so: DECLARE @data VARCHAR(MAX) SET @data = CONVERT(VARCHAR(MAX), [my xml column].query(' data(/root/node_i_want)') SELECT @data = [function to replace quotes etc](@data) SET [my xml column].modify('replace value of (/root/node_i_want)[1] with sql:variable("@data")') but I get the same problem. Essentially, is there something wrong I'm doing with the above, or a way to tell FOR XML to entitise other characters, or something like that? Basically anything short of having to write a program to change the XML after it has been assembled in large batches and saved to files!

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  • How reliable is DateTime.Utc in Silverlight applications?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I have a silverlight application which users will be running in various time zones. The applications load their data from the server at one time, then cache it in IsolatedStorage. When I make changes to the data on the server, I want to be able to change the "last updated time" so that all applications download the newest data the next time they check this date. However, I'm a bit confused as to how to handle the time zone issue since a if the server is in New York and the update time is set to 2010-01-01 17:00:00 and a client in Seattle checks compares it to its local time of 2010-01-01 14:00:00 it won't update and will continue to provide old data for three more hours. My solution is to always post the update time in UTC time, not with the time on the server, then make the Silverlight app check with DateTime.UtcNow. Is this as easy as it sounds or are their issues with this, e.g. that timezones are not set correctly on computers and hence the SilverlightApp does not report the correct UTC time. Can anyone say from experience how likely it is that using DateTime.UtcNow like this for cache refreshing will work in all cases? If DateTime.UtcNow is not reliable, I will just use an incremented "DataVersion" integer but there are other scenarios in which getting time zone sychronization down would make it useful thoroughly understand how to solve this in silverlight apps.

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  • N-Tier Architecture - Structure with multiple projects in VB.NET

    - by focus.nz
    I would like some advice on the best approach to use in the following situation... I will have a Windows Application and a Web Application (presentation layers), these will both access a common business layer. The business layer will look at a configuration file to find the name of the dll (data layer) which it will create a reference to at runtime (is this the best approach?). The reason for creating the reference at runtime to the data access layer is because the application will interface with a different 3rd party accounting system depending on what the client is using. So I would have a separate data access layer to support each accounting system. These could be separate setup projects, each client would use one or the other, they wouldn't need to switch between the two. Projects: MyCompany.Common.dll - Contains interfaces, all other projects have a reference to this one. MyCompany.Windows.dll - Windows Forms Project, references MyCompany.Business.dll MyCompany.Web.dll - Website project, references MyCompany.Business.dll MyCompany.Busniess.dll - Business Layer, references MyCompany.Data.* (at runtime) MyCompany.Data.AccountingSys1.dll - Data layer for accounting system 1 MyCompany.Data.AccountingSys2.dll - Data layer for accounting system 2 The project MyCompany.Common.dll would contain all the interfaces, each other project would have a reference to this one. Public Interface ICompany ReadOnly Property Id() as Integer Property Name() as String Sub Save() End Interface Public Interface ICompanyFactory Function CreateCompany() as ICompany End Interface The project MyCompany.Data.AccountingSys1.dll and MyCompany.Data.AccountingSys2.dll would contain the classes like the following: Public Class Company Implements ICompany Protected _id As Integer Protected _name As String Public ReadOnly Property Id As Integer Implements MyCompany.Common.ICompany.Id Get Return _id End Get End Property Public Property Name As String Implements MyCompany.Common.ICompany.Name Get Return _name End Get Set(ByVal value as String) _name = value End Set End Property Public Sub Save() Implements MyCompany.Common.ICompany.Save Throw New NotImplementedException() End Sub End Class Public Class CompanyFactory Implements ICompanyFactory Public Function CreateCompany() As ICompany Implements MyCompany.Common.ICompanyFactory.CreateCompany Return New Company() End Function End Class The project MyCompany.Business.dll would provide the business rules and retrieve data form the data layer: Public Class Companies Public Shared Function CreateCompany() As ICompany Dim factory as New MyCompany.Data.CompanyFactory Return factory.CreateCompany() End Function End Class Any opinions/suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

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  • How does FallbackValue work with a MultiBiding?

    - by Will
    I ask because it doesn't seem to work. Assume we're binding to the following object: public class HurrDurr { public string Hurr {get{return null;}} public string Durr {get{return null;}} } Well, it would appear that if we used a MultiBinding against this the fallback value would be shown, right? <TextBlock> <TextBlock.Text> <MultiBinding StringFormat="{}{0} to the {1}" FallbackValue="Not set! It works as expected!)"> <Binding Path="Hurr"/> <Binding Path="Durr"/> </MultiBinding> </TextBlock.Text> </TextBlock> However the result is, in fact, " to the ". Even forcing the bindings to return DependencyProperty.UnsetValue doesn't work: <TextBlock xmnlns:base="clr-namespace:System.Windows;assembly=WindowsBase"> <TextBlock.Text> <MultiBinding StringFormat="{}{0} to the {1}" FallbackValue="Not set! It works as expected!)"> <Binding Path="Hurr" FallbackValue="{x:Static base:DependencyProperty.UnsetValue}" /> <Binding Path="Durr" FallbackValue="{x:Static base:DependencyProperty.UnsetValue}" /> </MultiBinding> </TextBlock.Text> </TextBlock> Tried the same with TargetNullValue, which was also a bust all the way around. So it appears that MultiBinding will never ever use FallbackValue. Is this true, or am I missing something?

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  • Sending email with attachments from C#, attachments arrive as Part 1.2 in Thunderbird

    - by Jon
    I have a C# application which emails out Excel spreadsheet reports via an Exchange 2007 server using SMTP. These arrive fine for Outlook users, but for Thunderbird and Blackberry users the attachments have been renamed as "Part 1.2". I found this article which describes the problem, but doesn't seem to give me a workaround. I don't have control of the Exchange server so can't make changes there. Is there anything I can do on the C# end? I have tried using short filenames and HTML encoding for the body but neither made a difference. My mail sending code is simply this: public static void SendMail(string recipient, string subject, string body, string attachmentFilename) { SmtpClient smtpClient = new SmtpClient(); NetworkCredential basicCredential = new NetworkCredential(MailConst.Username, MailConst.Password); MailMessage message = new MailMessage(); MailAddress fromAddress = new MailAddress(MailConst.Username); // setup up the host, increase the timeout to 5 minutes smtpClient.Host = MailConst.SmtpServer; smtpClient.UseDefaultCredentials = false; smtpClient.Credentials = basicCredential; smtpClient.Timeout = (60 * 5 * 1000); message.From = fromAddress; message.Subject = subject; message.IsBodyHtml = false; message.Body = body; message.To.Add(recipient); if (attachmentFilename != null) message.Attachments.Add(new Attachment(attachmentFilename)); smtpClient.Send(message); } Thanks for any help.

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  • Is there any danger in calling free() or delete instead of delete[]? [closed]

    - by Matt Joiner
    Possible Duplicate: ( POD )freeing memory : is delete[] equal to delete ? Does delete deallocate the elements beyond the first in an array? char *s = new char[n]; delete s; Does it matter in the above case seeing as all the elements of s are allocated contiguously, and it shouldn't be possible to delete only a portion of the array? For more complex types, would delete call the destructor of objects beyond the first one? Object *p = new Object[n]; delete p; How can delete[] deduce the number of Objects beyond the first, wouldn't this mean it must know the size of the allocated memory region? What if the memory region was allocated with some overhang for performance reasons? For example one could assume that not all allocators would provide a granularity of a single byte. Then any particular allocation could exceed the required size for each element by a whole element or more. For primitive types, such as char, int, is there any difference between: int *p = new int[n]; delete p; delete[] p; free p; Except for the routes taken by the respective calls through the delete-free deallocation machinery?

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  • Iteration speed of int vs long

    - by jqno
    I have the following two programs: long startTime = System.currentTimeMillis(); for (int i = 0; i < N; i++); long endTime = System.currentTimeMillis(); System.out.println("Elapsed time: " + (endTime - startTime) + " msecs"); and long startTime = System.currentTimeMillis(); for (long i = 0; i < N; i++); long endTime = System.currentTimeMillis(); System.out.println("Elapsed time: " + (endTime - startTime) + " msecs"); Note: the only difference is the type of the loop variable (int and long). When I run this, the first program consistently prints between 0 and 16 msecs, regardless of the value of N. The second takes a lot longer. For N == Integer.MAX_VALUE, it runs in about 1800 msecs on my machine. The run time appears to be more or less linear in N. So why is this? I suppose the JIT-compiler optimizes the int loop to death. And for good reason, because obviously it doesn't do anything. But why doesn't it do so for the long loop as well? A colleague thought we might be measuring the JIT compiler doing its work in the long loop, but since the run time seems to be linear in N, this probably isn't the case.

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  • WPF - Getting the value of one a DataGridCell from within DataTemplateSelector

    - by Andy T
    Hi, I'm using DataTemplateSelector with the WPFToolkit DataGrid. I want to select the editing template for one cell based on the value of another cell on the same row. The DataTemplateSelector's SelectTemplate method takes two arguments: one is the data item displayed by the grid row, the other is the grid cell. What I want to know is how to get the value of another cell from within the SelectTemplate method. However, I'm not sure of the correct way to get this information by accessing properties of the cell. public class RangeValuesEditTemplateSelector : DataTemplateSelector { public DataTemplate NumberTemplate{get; set;} public DataTemplate TextTemplate{get; set;} public override DataTemplate SelectTemplate(object item, DependencyObject container) { //TODO: need to find the correct way to populate the if condition below DataGridCell theCell = container as DataGridCell; if (theCell.something.somethingElse) { return NumberTemplate; }else{ return TextTemplate; } } } Can anyone help? Many thanks in advance. AT

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  • ASP.Net MVC Object Reference in Edit View when using DropDownListFor()

    - by hermiod
    This question is related to another I ask recently, it can be found here for some background information. Here is the code in the Edit ActionResult: public virtual ActionResult Edit(int id) { ///Set data for DropDownLists. ViewData["MethodList"] = tr.ListMethods(); ViewData["GenderList"] = tr.ListGenders(); ViewData["FocusAreaList"] = tr.ListFocusAreas(); ViewData["SiteList"] = tr.ListSites(); ViewData["TypeList"] = tr.ListTalkbackTypes(); ViewData["CategoryList"] = tr.ListCategories(); return View(tr.GetTalkback(id)); } I add lists to the ViewData to use in the dropdownlists, these are all IEnumerable and are all returning values. GetTalkback() returns an Entity framework object of type Talkback which is generated from the Talkback table. The DropDownListFor code is: <%: Html.DropDownListFor(model=>model.method_id,new SelectList(ViewData["MethodList"] as IEnumerable<SelectListItem>,"Value","Text",Model.method_id)) %> The record I am viewing has values in all fields. When I click submit on the View, I get an Object reference not set to an instance of an object. error on the above line. There are a number of standard fields in the form prior to this, so the error is only occurring on dropdown lists, and it is occurring on all of them. Any ideas? This is my first foray in to MVC, C#, and Entity so I am completely lost!

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  • Create Keyword Object Perl Microsoft::AdCenter

    - by toobsco42
    So I looked at the perldoc for the Microsoft::AdCenter module and it shows this as an example of how to create a keyword object: ~$ perldoc Microsoft::AdCenter #Create a Keyword object my $keyword = Microsoft::AdCenter::V7::CampaignManagementService::Keyword->new ->Text("some text") ->BroadMatchBid(Microsoft::AdCenter::V7::CampaignManagementService::Bid->new->Amount(0.1)) ->ExactMatchBid(Microsoft::AdCenter::V7::CampaignManagementService::Bid->new->Amount(0.1)); However, doesn't this violate the new policy of using only one match type per keyword? Campaign Management changes: "Previously, you would create a single Keyword object and specify a bid value for each match that you wanted to bid on (for example, exact match or phrase match). If you did not specify a bid value at the keyword-level, adCenter used the default bid value specified at the ad group level. Now, you must create a Keyword object for each match type that you want to bid on. For example, to bid on the keyword car by using exact match and phrase match, create a Keyword object and set the Text element to car and the ExactMatchBid element to a bid amount. Then, create a second Keyword object and set the Text element to car and PhraseMatchBid to a bid amount. When you add the keywords, you’ll get a unique keyword ID for each keyword and match-type combination."

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  • Rotate a feature Image in Open Layers - ReApply StyleMap to layer.

    - by Ozaki
    I have an open layers map. It adds and removes my "imageFeature" every 10secs or so. I have a JSON feed that gives me the rotation that I need, I have a request to get that rotation and set it as a variable of rotationv. Everything works but the fact when the image is recreated it does not update the rotation. My code is as follows: JSON request: var rotationv = (function () { rotationv = null; $.ajax({ 'async': false, 'global': true, 'url': urldefault, 'dataType': "json", 'success': function (data) { rotationv = data.rotation; } }); return rotationv })(); Creating image feature: imageFeature = new OpenLayers.Feature.Vector( new OpenLayers.Geometry.Point(mylon, mylat), { rotation: rotationv } ); The image is set in the styling elsewhere. Why does this not rotate my image? Debugging with firebug I now notice that "rotationv" is updating as per it should be. But when the point is destroyed then added again it does not apply the new rotation... Add: I realised that the "image" is applied as per the layer. So I need to figure out how to re apply the stylemap to the layer so it will trigger the "update" on the page. //redefine layer 2 so it can be updated - test.js is just a 0.0 ref// var layer2 = new OpenLayers.Layer.GML("Layer 2", "test.js", { format: OpenLayers.Format.GeoJSON, styleMap: styleMap }); But even if I add the above into my function still no luck. Included map.addLayers([layer2]); into the function as well. Edit: Attaching stylemap: var styleMap = new OpenLayers.StyleMap({ "default": new OpenLayers.Style({ rotation: rotationv, labelXOffset: "0", labelYOffset: "-15", graphicZIndex: 1 }) });

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  • WCF Service timeout in Callback

    - by Muckers Mate
    I'm trying to get to grips with WCF, in particular writing a WCF Service application with callback. I've setup the service, together with the callback contract but when the callback is called, the app is timing out. Essentially, from a client I'm setting a property within the service class. The Setter of this property, if it fails validation fires a callback and, well, this is timing out. I realise that this is probably to it not being an Asynchronous calback, but can someone please show me how to resolve this? Thanks // The call back (client-side) interface public interface ISAPUploadServiceReply { [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] void Reply(int stateCode); } // The Upload Service interface [ServiceContract(CallbackContract = typeof(ISAPUploadServiceReply))] public interface ISAPUploadService { int ServerState { [OperationContract] get; [OperationContract(IsOneWay=true)] set; And the implementation... public int ServerState { get { return serverState; } set { if (InvalidState(Value)) { var to = OperationContext.Current.GetCallbackChannel<ISAPUploadServiceReply>(); to.Reply(eInvalidState); } else serverState = value; } }

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  • jQuery Autocomplete plugin (Jorn Zaefferer's) - how to dynamically change the list of displayed valu

    - by Max Williams
    I'm using Jorn Zaefferer's Autocomplete query plugin, http://bassistance.de/jquery-plugins/jquery-plugin-autocomplete/ I have options set so it shows all the values when you click in the empty text field, a bit like a select, and the option is also set so that the user can only choose from the list of values used by the autocomplete (so it's kind of like a select but with autocomplete functionality). I have two radio buttons below the text field, which determine whether the user chooses from a long list or a short list of possible values. I want to update the values used in the autocomplete when one of these radio buttons is clicked. Currently i'm doing this in a not very clever way by calling autocomplete again on the same text field, with the different array of values, but this creates a situation where both are active at once, and i can see the long list peeking out from behind the short list. What i need to do is either a) dynamically change the values used in the autocomplete or b) remove (unbind?) the autocomplete from the text field before re-initialising it. Either of these would do tbh though option a) is kind of nicer. Any ideas anyone? Here's my current code: function initSubjectLongShortList(field, short_values, long_values){ $(".subject_short_long_list").change(function(){ updateSubjectAutocomplete(field, short_values, long_values); }); updateSubjectAutocomplete(field, short_values, long_values); } function updateSubjectAutocomplete(field, short_values, long_values){ if($(".subject_short_long_list:checked").attr('id') == "subject_long_list"){ initSubjectAutocomplete(field, long_values); } else { initSubjectAutocomplete(field, short_values); } } function initSubjectAutocomplete(field, values){ jQuery(field).autocomplete(values, { minChars: 0, //make it appear as soon as we click in the field max: 2000, scrollHeight: 400, matchContains: true, selectFirst: false }); } cheers, max

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  • Clean and accesible Other option (Check box and text box)

    - by Svish
    When I have a set of either check boxes or radio buttons I often need to have an Other choice. This check box or radio button is very often accompanied by a text box where the user is supposed to fill out what this Other is. How do you usually handle this set up? What kind of markup do you use? What do you require in your validation? Do you use java script for anything? For example: How do you make the form accessible? Do you use and how do you use the label tag, for example. Do you connect the check box and text box in any way with some javascript? For example, do you activate the text box when the check box is checked? Do you check or uncheck the check box automatically if the text box is filled out or cleared? Do you let validation fail with error messages if the check box is checked but the text box is not filled out, or if the text box is filled out but the check box is not checked? Or do you just consider it not filled out and not checked? Very unsure how to best deal with this issue, so any advice and examples are most welcome c",)

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  • Creating instance of a service-side DataContract class on client-side in WCF

    - by hgulyan
    Hi, I have my custom class Customer with its properties. I added DataContract mark above the class and DataMember to properties and it was working fine, but I'm calling a service class's function, passing customer instance as parameter and some of my properties get 0 values. While debugging I can see my properties values and after it gets to the function, some properties' values are 0. Why it can be so? There's no code between this two actions. DataContract mark workes fine, everything's ok. Any suggestions on this issue? I tried to change ByRef to ByVal, but it doesn't change anything. Why it would pass other values right and some of integer types just 0? Maybe the answer is simple, but I can't figure it out. Thank You. <DataContract()> Public Class Customer Private Type_of_clientField As Integer = -1 <DataMember(Order:=1)> Public Property type_of_client() As Integer Get Return Type_of_clientField End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) Type_of_clientField = value End Set End Property End Class <ServiceContract(SessionMode:=SessionMode.Allowed)> <DataContractFormat()> Public Interface CustomerService <OperationContract()> Function addCustomer(ByRef customer As Customer) As Long End Interface type_of_client properties value is 6 before I call addCustomer function. After it enters that function the value is 0. UPDATE: The issue is in instance creating. When I create an instance of a class on client side, that is stored on service side, some of my properties pass 0 or nothing, but when I call a function of a service class, that returns a new instance of that class, it works fine. What's is the difference? Could that be serialization issue?

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  • xp_smtp_sendmail blank space added to html randomly

    - by Igor Timofeyev
    I have a proc where I generate small html doc with a link and send it out via xp_smtp_sendmail proc. Link is generated based on query results and is long. This works in most cases. However, sometimes the link gets broken due to spaces being inserted into querystring variable names, i.e. &Na me=John. This might vary between email clients(same link works in Gmail, but might not work in comcast due to spaces. The space seems to be randomly inserted, so in each broken email link space might break other querystring variables. When I do PRINT from proc the link is clean, no spaces. Here's my sample of the mail proc being executed within main proc(that gets query results and generates html for @Message). The space seems to be inserted regardless of whether I encode the url or not. Thank you in advance for your help. I can send a cleaner version of the code if it's not displayed properly here. ....query results above SET @Message = NULL SET @Message = @Message + + '<br/>Dear ' + @FirstName + ' ' + @LastName + ',' + '<br/><br/>Recently you took "' + @Title + '". ' + 'In response to the question "What is it?" ' + 'you responded "' + @Response + '".' + '<br/><br/>Following up on previous mailing' + '<br/><br/>Please click on the link below' + '<br/><br/><a href="' + @Link + '">Please click here</a>' + '<br/><br/>plain text' + '<br/><br/>plain text,' + '<br/><br/>plain text<br/> plain text<br/> plain text<br/> plain text<br/> plain text<br/> plain text EXEC @rc = master.dbo.xp_smtp_sendmail @FROM = '[email protected]', @FROM_NAME = 'Any User', @TO = @Email, @priority = N'NORMAL', @subject = N'My email', @message = @Message, @messagefile = N'', @type = N'text/html', @attachment = N'', @attachments = N'', @codepage = 0, @server = 'smtp.server.any'

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  • Using jQuery, setting Draggable on an element prevents blur from firing when you click the draggable

    - by Danno
    Using jQuery, when you set a blur event on a text box and set another element as draggable, when you click the draggable element, the blur event does not fire in FireFox. IE is a little better, you get the blur event but you don't get the click event on the draggable element. If you don't specify the cancel: "" in the draggable constructor, you will get the blur event to fire, but then the element you want to drag is not draggable. jQuery v1.3.2 jQuery UI v1.7.2 The console.log lines are for FireFox's FireBug plugin. <HTML> <HEAD> <TITLE>Blur/Click Workbench</TITLE> <script src="js/jquery.js" type="text/javascript" ></script> <script src="js/ui/ui.core.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="js/ui/ui.draggable.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function blurring() { console.log('1 - blurring - ' + $( this ).attr('id')); } function clicking() { console.log('2 - clicking - ' + $( this ).attr('id')); } $(document).ready(function() { $( ".draggableTool" ).draggable( { cancel: "" } ); $( '.property' ).blur( blurring ); $( '#labelContainer' ).click( clicking ); }); </script> </HEAD> <BODY> <input type='text' class='property' id='tb1' /> <br /> <input type='text' class='property' id='tb2' /> <br /> <label class='draggableTool' id='labelContainer' style='height:20px;position:absolute;'> <textarea id='taLabel' style='height:100%;background-color:white;border:1px solid grey;'>Label</textarea> </label> </BODY> </HTML>

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  • How to implement reject in parallel approval workflow?

    - by Dmitry Martynov
    I develop a SharePoint workflow with a Replicator activity to replicate a custom activity for every approver. The custom activity implements an approval branch for a particular user. It has classic form with CreateTask, While, OnTaskChanged and CompleteTask activities. I setup UntilCondition on the replicator to cancel execution after one approver chooses to reject the approval and then workflow finishes. The problem happens with other uncompleted tasks which "hang" in their current state. User does not see this state when open the task. I put UpdateAllTasks after the replacator to set the task status to Cancelled. But since there is no event activities between CompleteTask (for the rejected task) and UpdateAllTasks, the UpdateAllTask activity set Cancelled for the rejected task also. The question, what can I do to flush the pending change made by CompleteTask before UpdateAllTasks? Or perhaps, there is another way to implement such workflow. I was thinking about the way to implement Cancel handler for the custom activity with UpdateTask. But I do not know how to implement it and tell to the cancel handler that it executes in the case of the rejection.

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  • Trying to save file from Flash to PHP using $GLOBALS["HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA"]

    - by jolyonruss
    Let me start by saying PHP isn't my forte, I'm usually reluctant to try working with it because of problems exactly like this. The code works fine on my local machine under MAMP and on my server, but doesn't on the clients server :'( So what am I trying to do, well - save an image from Flash onto the server, simple right?! I'm using the method described on this site here: http://designreviver.com/tutorials/actionscript-3-jpeg-encoder-revealed-saving-images-from-flash/ but have made a small alteration so that instead of echoing the jpg causing the browser to download it locally, I do an fwrite and an fclose to save it to the server. Here is my PHP: $imageFile = '../images/' . $_GET['name']; $imageHandle = fopen($imageFile, "w"); fwrite($imageHandle, $jpg); fclose($imageHandle); } ? I've dona a phpinfo() on my clients server and it's running 5.2.2 my host is running 5.2.11 I don't know if much can have changed in those 9 minor revisions? I've also read another question on here which suggests making suer always_populate_raw_post_data is set to ON, but it's set to OFF on all of the server environments I've been testing in. I'm doing some XML saving using file_get_contents('php://input') which I've tried but failed to get working with images. Any help would be gratefully received, I'm happy to post the AS3 as well but it's EXACTLY the same as example I've linked above and works locally. As far as I can tell the problem lies with the PHP. Cheers.

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  • CATiledLayer blanking tiles before drawing contents

    - by Greg Plesur
    All, I'm having trouble getting behavior that I want from CATiledLayer. Is there a way that I can trigger the tiles to redraw without having the side-effect that their areas are cleared to white first? I've already subclassed CATiledLayer to set fadeDuration to return 0. To be more specific, here are the details of what I'm seeing and what I'm trying to achieve: I have a UIScrollView with a big content size...~12000x800. Its content view is a UIView backed by a CATiledLayer. The UIView is rendered with a lot of custom-drawn lines Everything works fine, but the contents of the UIView sometimes change. When that happens, I'd like to redraw the tiles as seamlessly as possible. When I use setNeedsDisplay on the view, the tiles redraw but they are first cleared to white and there's a fraction-of-a-second delay before the new content is drawn. I've already subclassed CATiledLayer so that fadeDuration is set to 0. The behavior that I want seems like it should be possible...when you zoom in on the scrollview and the content gets redrawn at a higher resolution, there's no blanking before the redraw; the new content is drawn right on top of the old one. That's what I'm looking for. Thanks; I appreciate your ideas. Update: Just to follow up - I realized that the tiles weren't being cleared to white before the redraw, they're being taken out entirely; the white that I was seeing is the color of the view that's beneath my CATiledLayer-backed view. As a quick hack/fix, I put a UIImageView beneath the UIScrollView, and before triggering a redraw of the CATiledLayer-backed view I render its visible section into the UIImageView and let it show. This smooths out the redraw significantly. If anyone has a better solution, like keeping the redraw-targeted tiles from going away before being redrawn in the first place, I'd still love to hear it.

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  • WWW::Mechanize trouble with meta refresh from bank login

    - by J Miller
    I am trying to use perl's WWW::Mechanize to login to my bank and pull transaction information. After logging in through a browser to my bank (Wells Fargo), it briefly displays a temporary web page saying something along the lines of "please wait while we verify your identity". After a few seconds it proceeds to the bank's webpage where I can get my bank data. The only difference is that the URL contains several more "GET" parameters appended to the URL of the temporary page, which only had a sessionID parameter. I was able to successfully get WWW::Mechanize to login from the login page, but it gets stuck on the temporary page. There is a <meta http-equiv="Refresh"... tag in the header, so I tried $mech->follow_meta_redirect but it didn't get me past that temporary page either. Any help to get past this would be appreciated. Thanks in advance. Here is the barebones code that gets me stuck at the temporary page: #!/usr/bin/perl -w use strict; use WWW::Mechanize; my $mech = WWW::Mechanize->new(); $mech->agent_alias( 'Linux Mozilla' ); $mech->get( "https://www.wellsfargo.com" ); $mech->submit_form( form_number => 2, fields => { userid => "$userid", password => "$password" }, button => "btnSignon" );

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  • Problem between Glassfish and Spring Security Basic Authentication

    - by Raspayu
    Hi! I am enabling a simple HTTP Basic Authentication with Spring security in my project. My environment is an Glassfish Server (bundled with Netbeans), and almost everything works perfect: I have set up it to just ask for authentication with the POST method, with hardcoded users with "user-service", and it works with user names with no special characters. The problem comes when I set up an user with "@" or "." Here is the spring-security related part of my servlet.xml: <security:http> <security:intercept-url method="POST" pattern="/**" access="ROLE_USER" /> <security:http-basic/> </security:http> <security:authentication-manager alias="authenticationManager"> <security:authentication-provider user-service-ref="uservice"/> </security:authentication-manager> <security:user-service id="uservice"> <security:user name="[email protected]" password="pswd1" authorities="ROLE_USER" /> <security:user name="[email protected]" password="pswd2" authorities="ROLE_USER" /> <security:user name="pepe" password="pepito" authorities="ROLE_USER" /> </security:user-service> I have looked also for what did the browser send to the listening port, and it sends right the par "username:password" in base 64, so i think the problem is in my server(Glassfish v3). Does anyone have any idea? Thanks in advance! Raspayu

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  • Setting specified flags before serializing objects

    - by Bernard
    We have a schema that we serialize and deserialize into an object hierarchy. Some elements are optional in the schema. The xsd tool creates a cs file that inserts a property for each optional element. This property ends in "Specified", i.e. nameSpecified tells the serializer and deserializer to include the optional "name" element when processing. I'm trying to write a method that rips through the object hierarchy using reflection and if a property has a value and it has a "Specified" corresponding property, I want to set the Specified property to true. I've tried to do this using reflection, ie. foreach(PropertyInfo p in MyObject.GetType().GetNestedTypes().GetType().GetProperties() { if the field name ends in Specified check if there is a field with the same name without Specied. If there is, and that field name has a value, then set the field name that ends in Specified to true; } Its the middle bit that I'm having trouble with. I preferably don't want to rip through the hierarchy and create a list of properties ending in Specified and then rip through it again to see if the corresponding name without the ending "Specified" exists and then check if it has a value. And the rip through it again to update all the Specified fields to true. Seems a bit of a long way around :( Anyone have any bright ideas?

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  • MySQL Access denied error

    - by dancingbush
    I am trying to install mySQL on a Mac OS 10.8 and set up a user account. NOTE I am a abs beginner when it comes to using the command line in Terminal window. I used these instructions to install: http://www.macminivault.com/mysql-mountain-lion/ I set my own password for all users here: GRANT ALL ON *.* TO 'root'@'localhost' IDENTIFIED BY 'mypass' WITH GRANT OPTION; quit Every time i try to execute mySQL as a root user on the command line i get this: Ciarans-MacBook-Pro:~ callanmooneys$ mysql -u root ERROR 1045 (28000): Access denied for user 'root'@'localhost' (using password: NO) I read around on the net and tried various things including tried this to change password: mysqladmin -u root -pyourcurrentmysqlrootpassword password yournewmysqlrootpassword, it returns -> -> USE mysql -> If i simply type 'mysql' and launch the mySQL monitor then try to crete a user account: mysql> USE mysql ERROR 1044 (42000): Access denied for user ''@'localhost' to database 'mysql' mysql> Also tried answers on forum: access is denied for user 'root'@localhost mysql error 1045 returned '[email protected] command not found And MySQL - ERROR 1045 - Access denied: Ciarans-MacBook-Pro:~ callanmooneys$ mysqld_safe --skip-grant-tables 131105 21:44:41 mysqld_safe Logging to '/usr/local/mysql/data/Ciarans-MacBook-Pro.local.err'. 131105 21:44:41 mysqld_safe Starting mysqld daemon with databases from /usr/local/mysql/data /usr/local/mysql/bin/mysqld_safe: line 129: /usr/local/mysql/data/Ciarans-MacBook-Pro.local.err: Permission denied /usr/local/mysql/bin/mysqld_safe: line 166: /usr/local/mysql/data/Ciarans-MacBook-Pro.local.err: Permission denied 131105 21:44:41 mysqld_safe mysqld from pid file /usr/local/mysql/data/Ciarans-MacBook-Pro.local.pid ended /usr/local/mysql/bin/mysqld_safe: line 129: /usr/local/mysql/data/Ciarans-MacBook-Pro.local.err: Permission denied Ciarans-MacBook-Pro:~ callanmooneys$ mysql -u root ERROR 2002 (HY000): Can't connect to local MySQL server through socket '/tmp/mysql.sock' (2) Ciarans-MacBook-Pro:~ callanmooneys$ Feedback appreciated.

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  • Pattern for sharing data between views (MVP or MVVM)

    - by Dovix
    What is a good pattern for sharing data between related views?. I have an application where 1 form contains many small views, each views behaves independently from each other more or less (they communicate/interact via an event bus). Every so often I need to pass the same objects to the child views. Sometimes I need this same object to be passed to a child view and then the child passes it onto another child itself contains. What is a good approach to sharing this data between all the views contained within the parent form (view) ? I have looked into CAB and their approach and every "view" has a "root work item" this work item has dictionary that contains a shared "state" between the views that are contained. Is this the best approach? just a shared dictionary all the views under a root view can access? My current approach right now is to have a function on the view that allows one to set the object for that view. Something like view.SetCustomer(Customer c); then if the view contains a child view it knows to set it on the child view ala: this.childview1.SetCustomer(c); The application is written in C# 3.5, for winforms using MVP with structure map as a IoC/DI provider.

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