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• jBASE 4.1 Database Noobster Questions

  - by Steve Johnson

  I am a software developer with devlopment experience in C#, C++ .Net alongwith SQL Server 2005/08, Oracle and mysql. But somehow i dont get jBASE to work at Windows XP SP3 machine. My goal is setup user accounts, create database on a JBASE ainstallation, authenticate and backup/restore few table via a C++ program. And i dont need to do it with builtin backup/restore tools of jBASE. I am able to install jBASe 4.1 aling with all its accessories on my WINXPSP3 machine. I was able to run the jSlimserver and TEMENOUS server along with licnesing server. I was able to add the license key as well. But after that what i was supposed to do? i have no idea about it. The docs and online help doesnt answer a simple question of how to create a database! The google search results from the jbase site all go to the 404 Pages! Can a jBASE expert guide to the following steps: Create a jBASE database. Create users Authenticate via those users Connect to database Create tables and insert data. Connect via a C++ or C# program to connect to jBASE DB and backup/restore tables. I know that this is too much too ask but i dont get to get the JBASE system. I cant get it to work on my System somehow. Btw, jdc and jexloree doesnt seem to do anything. I have checked that enironmental variables for jBASE are setup correctly and i have verified them. There are no extra JRE or JDK installations on my system. Besides all that, only licensing client, slim server and temenous server seem to run and listen for connections and no other execuatable ever seems to work. A simple tutorial to achieve the objective will be highly appreciated. Also if anyone can point out the mistake that i have done or anything i might need to check, then please do so. I will be highly encouraged and obliged. Thanks Steve

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• Seeking for faster $.(':data(key)')

  - by PoltoS

  I'm writing an extension to jQuery that adds data to DOM elements using el.data('lalala', my_data); and then uses that data to upload elements dynamically. Each time I get new data from the server I need to update all elements having el.data('lalala') != null; To get all needed elements I use an extension by James Padolsey: $(':data(lalala)').each(...); Everything was great until I came to the situation where I need to run that code 50 times - it is very slow! It takes about 8 seconds to execute on my page with 3640 DOM elements var x, t = (new Date).getTime(); for (n=0; n < 50; n++) { jQuery(':data(lalala)').each(function() { x++; }); }; console.log(((new Date).getTime()-t)/1000); Since I don't need RegExp as parameter of :data selector I've tried to replace this by var x, t = (new Date).getTime(); for (n=0; n < 50; n++) { jQuery('*').each(function() { if ($(this).data('lalala')) x++; }); }; console.log(((new Date).getTime()-t)/1000); This code is faster (5 sec), but I want get more. Q Are there any faster way to get all elements with this data key? In fact, I can keep an array with all elements I need, since I execute .data('key') in my module. Checking 100 elements having the desired .data('lalala') is better then checking 3640 :) So the solution would be like for (i in elements) { el = elements[i]; .... But sometimes elements are removed from the page (using jQuery .remove()). Both solutions described above [$(':data(lalala)') solution and if ($(this).data('lalala'))] will skip removed items (as I need), while the solution with array will still point to removed element (in fact, the element would not be really deleted - it will only be deleted from the DOM tree - because my array will still have a reference). I found that .remove() also removes data from the node, so my solution will change into var toRemove = []; for (vari in elements) { var el = elements[i]; if ($(el).data('lalala')) .... else toRemove.push(i); }; for (var ii in toRemove) elements.splice(toRemove[ii], 1); // remove element from array This solution is 100 times faster! Q Will the garbage collector release memory taken by DOM elements when deleted from that array? Remember, elements have been referenced by DOM tree, we made a new reference in our array, then removed with .remove() and then removed from the array. Is there a better way to do this?

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• Java Builder pattern with Generic type bounds

  - by I82Much

  Hi all, I'm attempting to create a class with many parameters, using a Builder pattern rather than telescoping constructors. I'm doing this in the way described by Joshua Bloch's Effective Java, having private constructor on the enclosing class, and a public static Builder class. The Builder class ensures the object is in a consistent state before calling build(), at which point it delegates the construction of the enclosing object to the private constructor. Thus public class Foo { // Many variables private Foo(Builder b) { // Use all of b's variables to initialize self } public static final class Builder { public Builder(/* required variables */) { } public Builder var1(Var var) { // set it return this; } public Foo build() { return new Foo(this); } } } I then want to add type bounds to some of the variables, and thus need to parametrize the class definition. I want the bounds of the Foo class to be the same as that of the Builder class. public class Foo<Q extends Quantity> { private final Unit<Q> units; // Many variables private Foo(Builder<Q> b) { // Use all of b's variables to initialize self } public static final class Builder<Q extends Quantity> { private Unit<Q> units; public Builder(/* required variables */) { } public Builder units(Unit<Q> units) { this.units = units; return this; } public Foo build() { return new Foo<Q>(this); } } } This compiles fine, but the compiler is allowing me to do things I feel should be compiler errors. E.g. public static final Foo.Builder<Acceleration> x_Body_AccelField = new Foo.Builder<Acceleration>() .units(SI.METER) .build(); Here the units argument is not Unit<Acceleration> but Unit<Length>, but it is still accepted by the compiler. What am I doing wrong here? I want to ensure at compile time that the unit types match up correctly.

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• WinForms Menu Toolstrip Get Status

  - by Yeti

  So I have a project where there is some automatic initialization going on through some classes that are created automatically as global variables (yeah they are static instances). At a point inside this (it has no relation with the C# GUI for the user, so it isn't derived from any C# class) I need to see if a flag is set or not. I use toolstrip menu with checked and unchecked status in order to set or unset the flag. The problem is that I have difficulties to see if the flag is checked or not from this static class. My class is inside a different project/namespace and a DLL is created what later is linked to the GUI of the application. The GUI depends from this Manager class so making the Manager class to depend from the GUI is not an option. Nevertheless, I should be able to see its state knowing its name or through some other means. I have tried the following: if(Application.OpenForms[1].Owner.Controls["useLocalImageForInitToolStripMenuItem"].Enabled) { }; Now the problem is that on the upper code snippet I get a nasty error. So how do I do this? The toolstrip menu: The error: See the end of this message for details on invoking just-in-time (JIT) debugging instead of this dialog box. ***** Exception Text ******* System.ArgumentOutOfRangeException: Index was out of range. Must be non-negative and less than the size of the collection. Parameter name: index at System.Collections.ArrayList.get_Item(Int32 index) at System.Windows.Forms.FormCollection.get_Item(Int32 index) at Manager.MyMainManager.MyMainManager.RealTimeInit() in C:\Dropbox\My Dropbox\Public\Program Code\RoboCup\Manager\MyMainManager\MyMainManager.cs:line 494 at mainApp.MainForm.ButtonInitClick(Object sender, EventArgs e) in C:\Dropbox\My Dropbox\Public\Program Code\RoboCup\mainApp\MainForm.cs:line 389 at System.Windows.Forms.Control.OnClick(EventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.OnClick(EventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.OnMouseUp(MouseEventArgs mevent) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WmMouseUp(Message& m, MouseButtons button, Int32 clicks) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.ButtonBase.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.OnMessage(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam)

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• jQueryUI autocomplete - when no results are returned

  - by Brian M. Hunt

  I'm wondering how one can catch and add a custom handler when empty results are returned from the server when using jQueryUI autocomplete. There seem to be a few questions on this point related to the various jQuery plugins (e.g. jQuery autocomplete display “No data” error message when results empty), but I am wondering if there's a better/simpler way to achieve the same with the jQueryUI autocomplete. It seems to me this is a common use case, and I thought perhaps that jQueryUI had improved on the jQuery autocomplete by adding the ability to cleanly handle this situation. However I've not been able to find documentation of such functionality, and before I hack away at it I'd like to throw out some feelers in case others have seen this before. While probably not particularly influential, I can have the server return anything - e.g. HTTP 204: No Content to a 200/JSON empty list - whatever makes it easiest to catch the result in jQueryUI's autocomplete. My first thought is to pass a callback with two arguments, namely a request object and a response callback to handle the code, per the documentation: The third variation, the callback, provides the most flexibility, and can be used to connect any data source to Autocomplete. The callback gets two arguments: A request object, with a single property called "term", which refers to the value currently in the text input. For example, when the user entered "new yo" in a city field, the Autocomplete term will equal "new yo". A response callback, which expects a single argument to contain the data to suggest to the user. This data should be filtered based on the provided term, and can be in any of the formats described above for simple local data (String-Array or Object-Array with label/value/both properties). When the response callback receives no data, it inserts returns a special one-line object-array that has a label and an indicator that there's no data (so the select/focus recognize it as the indicator that no-data was returned). This seems overcomplicated. I'd prefer to be able to use a source: "http://...", and just have a callback somewhere indicating that no data was returned. Thank you for reading. Brian

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• Nhibernate one-to-many with table per subclass

  - by Wayne

  I am customizing N2CMS's database structure, and met with an issue. The two classes are listed below. public class Customer : ContentItem { public IList<License> Licenses { get; set; } } public class License : ContentItem { public Customer Customer { get; set; } } The nhibernate mapping are as follows. <class name="N2.ContentItem,N2" table="n2item"> <cache usage="read-write" /> <id name="ID" column="ID" type="Int32" unsaved-value="0" access="property"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <discriminator column="Type" type="String" /> </class> <subclass name="My.Customer,My" extends="N2.ContentItem,N2" discriminator-value="Customer"> <join table="Customer"> <key column="ItemID" /> <bag name="Licenses" generic="true" inverse="true"> <key column="CustomerID" /> <one-to-many class="My.License,My"/> </bag> </join> </subclass> <subclass name="My.License,My" extends="N2.ContentItem,N2" discriminator-value="License"> <join table="License" fetch="select"> <key column="ItemID" /> <many-to-one name="Customer" column="CustomerID" class="My.Customer,My" not-null="false" /> </join> </subclass> Then, when get an instance of Customer, the customer.Licenses is always empty, but actually there are licenses in the database for the customer. When I check the nhibernate log file, I find that the SQL query is like: SELECT licenses0_.CustomerID as CustomerID1_, licenses0_.ID as ID1_, licenses0_.ID as ID2_0_, licenses0_1_.CustomerID as CustomerID7_0_, FROM n2item licenses0_ inner join License licenses0_1_ on licenses0_.ID = licenses0_1_.ItemID WHERE licenses0_.CustomerID = 12 /* @p0 */ It seems that nhibernate believes that the CustomerID is in the 'n2item' table. I don't know why, but to make it work, I think the SQL should be something like this. SELECT licenses0_.ID as ID1_, licenses0_.ID as ID2_0_, licenses0_1_.CustomerID as CustomerID7_0_, FROM n2item licenses0_ inner join License licenses0_1_ on licenses0_.ID = licenses0_1_.ItemID WHERE licenses0_1_.CustomerID = 12 /* @p0 */ Could any one point out what's wrong with my mappings? And how can I get the correct licenses of one customer? Thanks in advance.

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• WCF Duplex net.tcp issues on win7

  - by Tom

  We have a WCF service with multiple clients to schedule operations amongst clients. It worked great on XP. Moving to win7, I can only connect a client to the server on the same machine. At this point, I'm thinking it's something to do with IPv6, but I'm stumped as to how to proceed. Client trying to connect to a remote server gives the following exception: System.ServiceModel.EndpointNotFoundException: Could not connect to net.tcp://10.7.11.14:18297/zetec/Service/SchedulerService/Scheduler. The connection attempt lasted for a time span of 00:00:21.0042014. TCP error code 10060: A connection attempt failed because the connected party did not properly respond after a period of time, or established connection failed because connected host has failed to respond 10.7.11.14:18297. --- System.Net.Sockets.SocketException: A connection attempt failed because the connected party did not properly respond after a period of time, or established connection failed because connected host has failed to respond 10.7.11.14:18297 The service is configured like so: <system.serviceModel> <services> <service name="SchedulerService" behaviorConfiguration="SchedulerServiceBehavior"> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost/zetec/Service/SchedulerService"/> </baseAddresses> </host> <endpoint address="net.tcp://localhost:18297/zetec/Service/SchedulerService/Scheduler" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration = "ConfigBindingNetTcp" contract="IScheduler" /> <endpoint address="net.tcp://localhost:18297/zetec/Service/SchedulerService/Scheduler" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration = "ConfigBindingNetTcp" contract="IProcessingNodeControl" /> </service> </services> <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding name = "ConfigBindingNetTcp" portSharingEnabled="True"> <security mode="None"/> </binding> </netTcpBinding > </bindings> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="SchedulerServiceBehavior"> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true" /> <serviceThrottling maxConcurrentSessions="100"/> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel> I've checked my firewall about a dozen times, but I guess there could be something I'm missing. Tried disabling windows firewall. I tried changing localhost to my ipv4 address to try to keep away from ipv6, I've tried removing any anti-ipv6 code.

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• How do I merge a transient entity with a session using Castle ActiveRecordMediator?

  - by Daniel T.

  I have a Store and a Product entity: public class Store { public Guid Id { get; set; } public int Version { get; set; } public ISet<Product> Products { get; set; } } public class Product { public Guid Id { get; set; } public int Version { get; set; } public Store ParentStore { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } In other words, I have a Store that can contain multiple Products in a bidirectional one-to-many relationship. I'm sending data back and forth between a web browser and a web service. The following steps emulates the communication between the two, using session-per-request. I first save a new instance of a Store: using (new SessionScope()) { // this is data from the browser var store = new Store { Id = Guid.Empty }; ActiveRecordMediator.SaveAndFlush(store); } Then I grab the store out of the DB, add a new product to it, and then save it: using (new SessionScope()) { // this is data from the browser var product = new Product { Id = Guid.Empty, Name = "Apples" }); var store = ActiveRecordLinq.AsQueryable<Store>().First(); store.Products.Add(product); ActiveRecordMediator.SaveAndFlush(store); } Up to this point, everything works well. Now I want to update the Product I just saved: using (new SessionScope()) { // data from browser var product = new Product { Id = Guid.Empty, Version = 1, Name = "Grapes" }; var store = ActiveRecordLinq.AsQueryable<Store>().First(); store.Products.Add(product); // throws exception on this call ActiveRecordMediator.SaveAndFlush(store); } When I try to update the product, I get the following exception: a different object with the same identifier value was already associated with the session: 00000000-0000-0000-0000-000000000000, of entity:Product" As I understand it, the problem is that when I get the Store out of the database, it also gets the Product that's associated with it. Both entities are persistent. Then I tried to save a transient Product (the one that has the updated info from the browser) that has the same ID as the one that's already associated with the session, and an exception is thrown. However, I don't know how to get around this problem. If I could get access to a NHibernate.ISession, I could call ISession.Merge() on it, but it doesn't look like ActiveRecordMediator has anything similar (SaveCopy threw the same exception). Does anyone know the solution? Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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• Lambda Expression to be used in Select() query

  - by jameschinnock

  Hi, I am trying to build a lambda expression, containing two assignments (as shown further down), that I can then pass to a Queryable.Select() method. I am trying to pass a string variable into a method and then use that variable to build up the lambda expression so that I can use it in a LINQ Select query. My reasoning behind it is that I have a SQL Server datasource with many column names, I am creating a charting application that will allow the user to select, say by typing in the column name, the actual column of data they want to view in the y-axis of my chart, with the x-axis always being the DateTime. Therefore, they can essentially choose what data they chart against the DateTime value (it’s a data warehouse type app). I have, for example, a class to store the retrieved data in, and hence use as the chart source of: public class AnalysisChartSource { public DateTime Invoicedate { get; set; } public Decimal yValue { get; set; } } I have (purely experimentaly) built an expression tree for the Where clause using the String value and that works fine: public void GetData(String yAxis) { using (DataClasses1DataContext db = new DataClasses1DataContext()) { var data = this.FunctionOne().AsQueryable<AnalysisChartSource>(); //just to get some temp data in.... ParameterExpression pe = Expression.Parameter(typeof(AnalysisChartSource), "p"); Expression left = Expression.MakeMemberAccess(pe, typeof(AnalysisChartSource).GetProperty(yAxis)); Expression right = Expression.Constant((Decimal)16); Expression e2 = Expression.LessThan(left, right); Expression expNew = Expression.New(typeof(AnalysisChartSource)); LambdaExpression le = Expression.Lambda(left, pe); MethodCallExpression whereCall = Expression.Call( typeof(Queryable), "Where", new Type[] { data.ElementType }, data.Expression, Expression.Lambda<Func<AnalysisChartSource, bool>>(e2, new ParameterExpression[] { pe })); } } However……I have tried a similar approach for the Select statement, but just can’t get it to work as I need the Select() to populate both X and Y values of the AnalysisChartSource class, like this: .Select(c => new AnalysisChartSource { Invoicedate = c.Invoicedate, yValue = c.yValue}).AsEnumerable(); How on earth can I build such an expression tree….or….possibly more to the point…..is there an easier way that I have missed entirely?

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• iPhone SDK: Audio Queue control

  - by codemercenary

  Hi all, I am new to the audio queue services so I have taken an example from a book called iPhone Cool Projects where it describes how to stream audio. I want to extend this to being able to play a continuous playlist of links to mp3 files like an internet radio. The problem with the example code it that it does not detect when a stream ends and does not call AudioQueueStop at any point, so I added a counter to number of buffers added to the queue, and then decrement this counter each time audioQueueOutputCallback is called by the queue. This works fine except if when the buffer count goes to 0, and then I add a call AudioQueueFlush(audioQueue) and then AudioQueueStop(audioQueue, false) I get an error. If I only call AudioQueueReset, it continues to load the buffers again, but plays them out faster then it loads them... getting stuck in a loop and then crashing. 2010-04-14 13:56:29.745 AudioPlayer[2269:207] init player with URL 2010-04-14 13:56:29.941 AudioPlayer[2269:207] did recieve data 2010-04-14 13:56:29.942 AudioPlayer[2269:207] audio request didReceiveData 2010-04-14 13:56:29.944 AudioPlayer[2269:207] >>> start audio queue 2010-04-14 13:56:29.960 AudioPlayer[2269:207] packetCallback count 2 2010-04-14 13:56:29.961 AudioPlayer[2269:207] add buffer: 1 2010-04-14 13:56:29.962 AudioPlayer[2269:207] did recieve data 2010-04-14 13:56:29.963 AudioPlayer[2269:207] audio request didReceiveData 2010-04-14 13:56:29.963 AudioPlayer[2269:207] packetCallback count 1 2010-04-14 13:56:29.964 AudioPlayer[2269:207] add buffer: 2 2010-04-14 13:56:29.965 AudioPlayer[2269:207] packetCallback count 13 2010-04-14 13:56:29.967 AudioPlayer[2269:207] add buffer: 3 2010-04-14 13:56:29.968 AudioPlayer[2269:207] done with buffer: 3 2010-04-14 13:56:29.969 AudioPlayer[2269:207] done with buffer: 2 2010-04-14 13:56:29.974 AudioPlayer[2269:207] done with buffer: 1 So this loop continues some 20 - 30 times and then it crashes. The first time it plays an audio file it queues up the buffers and then plays sound, but doesn't callback to delete them until some 100 or more have been played. Can anyone explain this behavior? I read that there was a limit of 1 audio queue for MP3 playback for the iPhone. Is that still true? If not then I suppose I should use another audio queue for the next mp3 stream. I've had a look through the apple docs but it doesn't explain this in any particular detail. A better insight into this would be great. TIA.

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• Is MVVM pointless?

  - by joebeazelman

  Is orthodox MVVM implementation pointless? I am creating a new application and I considered Windows Forms and WPF. I chose WPF because it's future-proof and offer lots of flexibility. There is less code and easier to make significant changes to your UI using XAML. Since the choice for WPF is obvious, I figured that I may as well go all the way by using MVVM as my application architecture since it offers blendability, separation concerns and unit testability. Theoretically, it seems beautiful like the holy grail of UI programming. This brief adventure; however, has turned into a real headache. As expected in practice, I’m finding that I’ve traded one problem for another. I tend to be an obsessive programmer in that I want to do things the right way so that I can get the right results and possibly become a better programmer. The MVVM pattern just flunked my test on productivity and has just turned into a big yucky hack! The clear case in point is adding support for a Modal dialog box. The correct way is to put up a dialog box and tie it to a view model. Getting this to work is difficult. In order to benefit from the MVVM pattern, you have to distribute code in several places throughout the layers of your application. You also have to use esoteric programming constructs like templates and lamba expressions. Stuff that makes you stare at the screen scratching your head. This makes maintenance and debugging a nightmare waiting to happen as I recently discovered. I had an about box working fine until I got an exception the second time I invoked it, saying that it couldn’t show the dialog box again once it is closed. I had to add an event handler for the close functionality to the dialog window, another one in the IDialogView implementation of it and finally another in the IDialogViewModel. I thought MVVM would save us from such extravagant hackery! There are several folks out there with competing solutions to this problem and they are all hacks and don’t provide a clean, easily reusable, elegant solution. Most of the MVVM toolkits gloss over dialogs and when they do address them, they are just alert boxes that don’t require custom interfaces or view models. I’m planning on giving up on the MVVM view pattern, at least its orthodox implementation of it. What do you think? Has it been worth the trouble for you if you had any? Am I just a incompetent programmer or does MVVM not what it's hyped up to be?

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• F#: Advantages of converting top-level functions to member methods?

  - by J Cooper

  Earlier I requested some feedback on my first F# project. Before closing the question because the scope was too large, someone was kind enough to look it over and leave some feedback. One of the things they mentioned was pointing out that I had a number of regular functions that could be converted to be methods on my datatypes. Dutifully I went through changing things like let getDecisions hand = let (/=/) card1 card2 = matchValue card1 = matchValue card2 let canSplit() = let isPair() = match hand.Cards with | card1 :: card2 :: [] when card1 /=/ card2 -> true | _ -> false not (hasState Splitting hand) && isPair() let decisions = [Hit; Stand] let split = if canSplit() then [Split] else [] let doubleDown = if hasState Initial hand then [DoubleDown] else [] decisions @ split @ doubleDown to this: type Hand // ...stuff... member hand.GetDecisions = let (/=/) (c1 : Card) (c2 : Card) = c1.MatchValue = c2.MatchValue let canSplit() = let isPair() = match hand.Cards with | card1 :: card2 :: [] when card1 /=/ card2 -> true | _ -> false not (hand.HasState Splitting) && isPair() let decisions = [Hit; Stand] let split = if canSplit() then [Split] else [] let doubleDown = if hand.HasState Initial then [DoubleDown] else [] decisions @ split @ doubleDown Now, I don't doubt I'm an idiot, but other than (I'm guessing) making C# interop easier, what did that gain me? Specifically, I found a couple *dis*advantages, not counting the extra work of conversion (which I won't count, since I could have done it this way in the first place, I suppose, although that would have made using F# Interactive more of a pain). For one thing, I'm now no longer able to work with function "pipelining" easily. I had to go and change some |> chained |> calls to (some |> chained).Calls etc. Also, it seemed to make my type system dumber--whereas with my original version, my program needed no type annotations, after converting largely to member methods, I got a bunch of errors about lookups being indeterminate at that point, and I had to go and add type annotations (an example of this is in the (/=/) above). I hope I haven't come off too dubious, as I appreciate the advice I received, and writing idiomatic code is important to me. I'm just curious why the idiom is the way it is :) Thanks!

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• iPhone UIWebView: loadData does not work with certain types (Excel, MSWord, PPT, RTF)

  - by Thomas Tempelmann

  My task is to display the supported document types on an iPhone with OS 3.x, such as .pdf, .rtf, .doc, .ppt, .png, .tiff etc. Now, I have stored these files only encrypted on disk. For security reasons, I want to avoid storing them unencrypted on disk. Hence, I prefer to use loadData:MIMEType:textEncodingName:baseURL: instead of loadRequest: to display the document because loadData allows me to pass the content in a NSData object, i.e. I can decrypt the file in memory and have no need to store it on disk, as it would be required when using loadRequest. The problem is that loadData does not appear to work with all file types: Testing shows that all picture types seem to work fine, as well as PDFs, while the more complex types don't. I get a errors such as: NSURLErrorDomain Code=100 NSURLErrorDomain Code=102 WebView appears to need a truly working URL for accessing the documents as a file, despite me offering all content via the NSData object already. Here's the code I use to display the content: [webView loadData:data MIMEType:type textEncodingName:@"utf-8" baseURL:nil]; The mime-type is properly set, e.g. to "application/msword" for .doc files. Does anyone know how I could get loadData to work with all types that loadRequest supports? Or, alternatively, is there some way I can tell which types do work for sure (i.e. officially sanctioned by Apple) with loadData? Then I can work twofold, creating a temp unencrypted file only for those cases that loadData won't like. Update Looks like I'm not the first one running into this. See here: http://osdir.com/ml/iPhoneSDKDevelopment/2010-03/msg00216.html So, I guess, that's the status quo, and nothing I can do about it. Someone suggested a work-around which might work, though: http://osdir.com/ml/iPhoneSDKDevelopment/2010-03/msg00219.html Basically, the idea is to provide a tiny http server that serves the file (from memory in my case), and then use loadRequest. This is probably a bit more memory-intensive, though, as both the server and the webview will probably both hold the entire contents in memory as two copies then, as opposed to using loadData, where both would rather share the same data object. (Mind you, I'll have to hold the decrypted data in memory, that's the whole point here).

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• Infinite loop using Spring Security - Login page is protected even though it should allow anonymous

  - by Tai Squared

  I have a Spring application (Spring version 2.5.6.SEC01, Spring Security version 2.0.5) with the following setup: web.xml <welcome-file-list> <welcome-file> index.jsp </welcome-file> </welcome-file-list> The index.jsp page is in the WebContent directory and simply contains a redirect: <c:redirect url="/login.htm"/> In the appname-servlet.xml, there is a view resolver to point to the jsp pages in WEB-INF/jsp <bean id="viewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <property name="viewClass" value="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView" /> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/jsp/" /> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp" /> </bean> In the security-config.xml file, I have the following configuration: <http> <!-- Restrict URLs based on role --> <intercept-url pattern="/WEB-INF/jsp/login.jsp*" access="ROLE_ANONYMOUS" /> <intercept-url pattern="/WEB-INF/jsp/header.jsp*" access="ROLE_ANONYMOUS" /> <intercept-url pattern="/WEB-INF/jsp/footer.jsp*" access="ROLE_ANONYMOUS" /> <intercept-url pattern="/login*" access="ROLE_ANONYMOUS" /> <intercept-url pattern="/index.jsp" access="ROLE_ANONYMOUS" /> <intercept-url pattern="/logoutSuccess*" access="ROLE_ANONYMOUS" /> <intercept-url pattern="/css/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/images/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/**" access="ROLE_ANONYMOUS" /> <form-login login-page="/login.jsp"/> </http> <authentication-provider> <jdbc-user-service data-source-ref="dataSource" /> </authentication-provider> However, I can't even navigate to the login page and get the following error in the log: WARNING: The login page is being protected by the filter chain, but you don't appear to have anonymous authentication enabled. This is almost certainly an error. I've tried changing the ROLE_ANONYMOUS to IS_AUTHENTICATED_ANONYMOUSLY, changing the login-page to index.jsp, login.htm, and adding different intercept-url values, but I can't get it so the login page is accesible and security applies to the other pages. What do I have to change to avoid this loop?

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• Java language features which have no equivalent in C#

  - by jthg

  Having mostly worked with C#, I tend to think in terms of C# features which aren't available in Java. After working extensively with Java over the last year, I've started to discover Java features that I wish were in C#. Below is a list of the ones that I'm aware of. Can anyone think of other Java language features which a person with a C# background may not realize exists? The articles http://www.25hoursaday.com/CsharpVsJava.html and http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Comparison_of_Java_and_C_Sharp give a very extensive list of differences between Java and C#, but I wonder whether I missed anything in the (very) long articles. I can also think of one feature (covariant return type) which I didn't see mentioned in either article. Please limit answers to language or core library features which can't be effectively implemented by your own custom code or third party libraries. Covariant return type - a method can be overridden by a method which returns a more specific type. Useful when implementing an interface or extending a class and you want a method to override a base method, but return a type more specific to your class. Enums are classes - an enum is a full class in java, rather than a wrapper around a primitive like in .Net. Java allows you to define fields and methods on an enum. Anonymous inner classes - define an anonymous class which implements a method. Although most of the use cases for this in Java are covered by delegates in .Net, there are some cases in which you really need to pass multiple callbacks as a group. It would be nice to have the choice of using an anonymous inner class. Checked exceptions - I can see how this is useful in the context of common designs used with Java applications, but my experience with .Net has put me in a habit of using exceptions only for unrecoverable conditions. I.E. exceptions indicate a bug in the application and are only caught for the purpose of logging. I haven't quite come around to the idea of using exceptions for normal program flow. strictfp - Ensures strict floating point arithmetic. I'm not sure what kind of applications would find this useful. fields in interfaces - It's possible to declare fields in interfaces. I've never used this. static imports - Allows one to use the static methods of a class without qualifying it with the class name. I just realized today that this feature exists. It sounds like a nice convenience.

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• Subversion vision and roadmap

  - by gbjbaanb

  Recently C Michael Pilato of the core subversion team posted a mail to the subversion dev mailing list suggesting a vision and roadmap for the future of Subversion. Naturally, he wanted as much feedback and response as possible which is why I'm posting this here - to elicit some suggestions and contributions from you, the users of Subversion. Any comments are welcome, and I shall feedback a synopsis with a link to this question to the dev mailing list. Similarly, I've created a post on ServerFault to get feedback from the administator side of things too. So, without further ado: Vision The first thing on his "vision statement" is: Subversion has no future as a DVCS tool. Let's just get that out there. At least two very successful such tools exist already, and to squeeze another horse into that race would be a poor investment of energy and talent. There's no need to suggest distributed features for subversion. If you want a DVCS, there should be no ill-feeling if you migrate to Git, Mercurial or Bazaar. As he says, its pointless trying to make SVN like them when they already exist, especially when there are different usage patterns that SVN should be targetting. The vision for Subversion is: Subversion exists to be universally recognized and adopted as an open-source, centralized version control system characterized by its reliability as a safe haven for valuable data; the simplicity of its model and usage; and its ability to support the needs of a wide variety of users and projects, from individuals to large-scale enterprise operations. Roadmap Several ideas were suggested as being "very nice to have" and are offered as the starting point of a future roadmap. These are: Obliterate Shelve/Checkpoint Repository-dictated Configuration Rename Tracking Improved Merging Improved Tree Conflict Handling Enterprise Authentication Mechanisms Forward History Searching Log Message Templates If anyone has suggestions to add, or comments on these, the subversion community would welcome all of them. Community And lastly, there was a call for more people to become involved with Subversion development. As with most OSS projects it can be daunting to join, but there is now a push for more to be done to help. If you feel like you can contribute, please do so.

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• Eclipselink factory.createEntityManager() stalls with more than one instance running

  - by Raven

  Hi, with my RCP program I have the problem that I want to have more than one copy running on my PC. The first instance runs very good. If I start the second instance, everything is fine until I want to access the database. Using this code: .. Map properties = new HashMap(); properties.put("javax.persistence.jdbc.driver", dbDriver); properties.put("javax.persistence.jdbc.url", dbUrl); properties.put("javax.persistence.jdbc.user", dbUser); properties.put("javax.persistence.jdbc.password", dbPass); try { factory = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory( PERSISTENCE_UNIT_NAME, properties); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println(e); } em=factory.createEntityManager(); // the second instance stops here ... with an persistence.xml of <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <persistence version="1.0" xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence/persistence_1_0.xsd"> <persistence-unit name="default"> <provider>org.eclipse.persistence.jpa.PersistenceProvider</provider> <class>myclasshere</class> <properties> <property name="eclipselink.ddl-generation" value="create-tables" /> <property name="eclipselink.ddl-generation.output-mode" value="database" /> <property name="eclipselink.jdbc.read-connections.min" value="1" /> <property name="eclipselink.jdbc.write-connections.min" value="1" /> <property name="eclipselink.jdbc.batch-writing" value="JDBC" /> <property name="eclipselink.logging.level" value="SEVERE" /> <property name="eclipselink.logging.timestamp" value="false" /> <property name="eclipselink.logging.session" value="false" /> <property name="eclipselink.logging.thread" value="false" /> </properties> </persistence-unit> </persistence> The program stalls / does not continue in the second instance beyond this step: em=factory.createEntityManager(); Debugging the program step by step showed me, that nothing happens at this point. Perhaps the program runs into a timeout. I havent been wainting for more than 1 minute.... Do you have any clues what might cause this stall might?

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• Jason/ajax web service call get redirected (302 Object moved) and then 500 unknow webservice name

  - by user646499

  I have been struggling with this for some times.. I searched around but didnt get a solution yet. This is only an issue on production server. In my development environment, everything works just fine. I am using JQuery/Ajax to update product information based on product's Color attribute. for example, a product has A and B color, the price for color A is different from color B. When user choose different color, the price information is updated as well. What I did is to first add a javascript function: function updateProductVariant() { var myval = jQuery("#<%=colorDropDownList.ClientID%").val(); jQuery.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/Products.aspx/GetVariantInfoById", data: "{variantId:'" + myval + "'}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (response) { var obj = jQuery.parseJSON(response.d); jQuery("#<%=lblStockAvailablity.ClientID%>").text(obj.StockMessage); jQuery(".price .productPrice").text(obj.CurrentPrice); jQuery(".price .oldProductPrice").text(obj.OldPrice); } }); } Then I can register the dropdown list's 'onclick' event point to function 'updateProductVariant' GetVariantInfoById is a WebGet method in the codebehind, its also very straightforward: [WebMethod] public static string GetVariantInfoById(string variantId) { int id = Convert.ToInt32(variantId); ProductVariant productVariant = IoC.Resolve().GetProductVariantById(id); string stockMessage = productVariant.FormatStockMessage(); StringBuilder oBuilder = new StringBuilder(); oBuilder.Append("{"); oBuilder.AppendFormat(@"""{0}"":""{1}"",", "StockMessage", stockMessage); oBuilder.AppendFormat(@"""{0}"":""{1}"",", "OldPrice", PriceHelper.FormatPrice(productVariant.OldPrice)); oBuilder.AppendFormat(@"""{0}"":""{1}""", "CurrentPrice", PriceHelper.FormatPrice(productVariant.Price)); oBuilder.Append("}"); return oBuilder.ToString(); } All these works fine on my local box, but if i upload to the production server, catching the traffic using fiddler, /Products.aspx/GetVariantInfoById becomes a Get call instead of a POST On my local box, HTTP/1.1 200 OK Server: ASP.NET Development Server/10.0.0.0 Date: Thu, 03 Mar 2011 09:00:08 GMT X-AspNet-Version: 4.0.30319 Cache-Control: private, max-age=0 Content-Type: application/json; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: 117 Connection: Close But when deployed on the host, it becomes HTTP/1.1 302 Found Proxy-Connection: Keep-Alive Connection: Keep-Alive Content-Length: 186 Via: 1.1 ADV-TMG-01 Date: Thu, 03 Mar 2011 08:59:12 GMT Location: http://www.pocomaru.com/Products.aspx/GetVariantInfoById/default.aspx Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.0 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET then of course, then it returns 500 error titleUnknown web method GetVariantInfoById/default.aspx.Parameter name: methodName Can someone please take a look? I think its some configuration in the production server which automatially redirects my webservice call to some other URL, but since the product server is out of my control, i am seeking a local fix for this. Thanks for the help!

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• ModalPopup CodeBehind Function Wait For User Response

  - by Snave

  I have set up a function which returns an enum of the button that the user clicked in the ModalPopup. I have a variable of type enum to store which button the user clicks in the button click event. In this function, I call the ModalPopupExtender's Show() method. My problem is, the function finishes out and returns the default enum (which is "none" since no button was clicked yet) before the ModalPopup can be shown and store which button the user clicks. So without changing the function to a method and using a different way to store the user's button click, how can I pause the function after the Show() method of the MPE has been called and wait for the user to click a button? Edit(11/20/2009): Clarification: On the aspx page, I include a ScriptManager, PlaceHolder, and an asp:Button with a codebehind click event. What I want is to click the button, then in the click event handler, I want to call a custom static class function that returns a variable. One of the arguments it takes is the PlaceHolder. The function creates all the necessary controls in the PlaceHolder needed to display a ModalPopup. It calls the created ModalPopupExtender's Show() method. What should happen: At this point is the ModalPopup gets displayed, the user clicks a button, that button's event handler fires, the button sets a variable indicating that it was clicked, it then calls the ModalPopupExtender's .Hide() method, and then the function returns the variable that indicates which button was clicked. We then return to the event handler from the original button that was clicked and the programmer can then perform some logic based on what variable was returned. Crux: When the ModalPopupExtender's .Show() method gets called, it does not display the ModalPopup until AFTER the function returns a default variable (because no button was clicked yet) and after the event handler from the original button that was clicked ends. What I need: After the ModalPopupExtender's .Show() method is called, I need the ModalPopup to get displayed immediately and I need the function to wait for a button click to be made from the ModalPopup. My thoughts: Some PostBack needs to be made to the page telling it to update and display the ModalPopup Panel. Then maybe a while loop can be run in the function that waits for a button to be clicked in the ModalPopup.

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• Print Preview Control used in a custom Print Preview Dialog.

  - by Kildareflare

  I have successfully implemented printing and print preview for my app using the PrintDocument, PrintDialog and PrintPreviewDialog classes of .NET. However my app uses a toolkit to improve the appearance of the standard .NET controls. There are versions of most .NET controls in the toolkit, but none for the Print controls. Therefore to ensure that the appearance of these controls matches the rest of the app I am creating a custom PrintPreviewDialog based on a toolkit form and embedding a .NET PrintPrewviewControl in it. My problem is that the PrintPreviewControl always shows "No pages to display". I had no trouble getting this to work using the .NET PrintPreviewDialog and cannot see what I am doing wrong. This is a .NET 2.0 PrintPreviewControl and so I know that I need to call InvalidatePreview() after assigning the PrintDocument. However it does not seem to matter where i place it, the PrintPage event handler never gets called... EDIT: I've just noticed that while the original PrintDocument m_printDocument shows a PrintPageHandler in its properties, the m_printPreviewControl.Document does not. Any ideas why it is being lost..? public class PrintEngine { ...rest of class... public PrintEngine() { m_printDoc.PrintPage += new PrintPageEventHandler(printDoc_PrintPage); } public void PrintPreview() { //ORIGINAL CODE USING .NET DIALOG WORK OK //PrintPreviewDialog dlg1 = new PrintPreviewDialog(); //dlg1.Document = m_printDoc; //PrepareImageForPrinting(); //dlg1.ShowDialog(); //CODE USING MY CUSTOM DIALOG DO NOT WORK? MyPrintPreviewDialog dlg2 = new MyPrintPreviewDialog(); dlg2.Document = m_printDoc; PrepareImageForPrinting(); //Creates the m_printImage List dlg2.ShowDialog(); } private void printDoc_PrintPage(object sender, PrintPageEventArgs e) { e.Graphics.DrawImage(m_printImages[m_currentPage], new Point(0, 0)); m_currentPage++; e.HasMorePages = m_currentPage < m_pagesHigh; } }//end PrintEngine class public class MyPrintPreviewDialog : KryptonForm { public PrintDocument Document { get { return m_printPreviewControl.Document; } set { m_printPreviewControl.Document = value; m_printPreviewControl.InvalidatePreview(); } } public MyPrintPreviewDialog() { InitializeComponent(); m_printPreviewControl = new PrintPreviewControl(); m_printPreviewControl.StartPage = 0; } private void MyPrintPreviewDialog_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { m_printPreviewControl.Document.DefaultPageSettings = new PageSettings(); m_printPreviewControl.Document.PrinterSettings = new PrinterSettings(); m_printPreviewControl.InvalidatePreview(); } }//end MyPrintPreviewDialog class

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• Animating custom-drawn UITableViewCell when entering edit mode

  - by Adam Alexander

  Background First of all, much gratitude to atebits for their very informative blog post Fast Scrolling in Tweetie with UITableView. The post explains in detail how the developers were able to squeeze as much scrolling performance as possible out of the UITableViews in Tweetie. Goals Beginning with the source code linked from the blog post (original) (my github repo): Allow a UITableView using these custom cells to switch to edit mode, exposing the UI for deleting an item from the table. (github commit) Move the cell's text aside as the deletion control slides in from the left. This is complete, although the text jumps back and forth without animation. (github commit) Apply animation to the text movement in goal 2 above for a smooth user experience. This is the step where I became stuck. The Question What is the best way to introduce this animation to complete goal 3? It would be nice if this could be done in a manner that keeps the logic from my last commit because I would love the option to move the conflicting part of the view only, while any non-conflicting portions (such as right-justified text) stay in the same place or move a different number of pixels. If the above is not possible then undoing my last commit and replacing it with an option that slides the entire view to the right would be a workable solution also. I appreciate any help anyone can provide, from quick pointers and ideas all the way to code snippets or github commits. Of course you are welcome to fork my repo if you would like. I will be staying involved with this question to make sure any successful resolution is committed to github and fully documented here. Thanks very much for your time! Updated thoughts I have been thinking about this a lot since my first post and realized that moving some text items relative to others in the view could undo some of the original performance goals solved in the original blog post. So at this point I am thinking a solution where the entire single subview is animated to its new postion may be the best one. Second, if it is done in this way there may be an instance where the subview has a custom color or gradient background. Hopefully this can be done in a way that in its normal position the background extends unseen off to the left enough so that when the view is slid to the right the custom background is still visible across the entire cell.

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• oci_connect Blank Page in PHP

  - by Bryan

  UPDATE (3/8/2010) I installed Xdebug and have it tracing my code. This is the output I am getting: TRACE START [2010-03-08 17:53:05] 0.2090 327864 -> {main}() /data/aims3/http/octest.php:0 0.2091 327988 -> ini_set(string(14), string(1)) /data/aims3/http/octest.php:3 0.2093 327920 -> error_reporting(long) /data/aims3/http/octest.php:4 0.2094 328048 -> oci_connect(string(8), string(8), string(25)) /data/aims3/http/octest.php:6 The trace halts at that point. I have installed everything the same way on a local server and it works fine. To say I am at a complete loss would be putting it lightly. *NOTE: I ran make test and it returned FAIL on every test. I never ran this on my working machine to see if it reports the same errors. Any idea why make test would report FAIL but make doesn't report any error? I've installed the Oracle Instantclient with no reported errors along with the OCI8 PECL package and at a loss. Whenever I try to open a connection with oci_connect, it halts my entire PHP script. EXAMPLE: <?php ini_set ("display_errors", "1"); error_reporting(E_ALL); echo "before"; $conn = oci_connect("username", "password", "host"); echo "after"; ?> Returns a complete blank page. The module is loaded (seen in phpinfo) and everything installed with no errors. I am at a complete loss. CentOS: 5.4 Apache: 2.2.3 PHP: 5.3.1 InstantClient: 11.2 oci8: 1.4.1 Any thoughts? NOTES Apache Error Log reports nothing Attempted Debugging: 1: <?php ini_set ("display_errors", "1"); error_reporting(E_ALL); echo "before"; if(!function_exists('oci_connect')) die('Oracle Not Installed'); echo "after"; ?> Returns: beforeafter 2: Changing host to //host Returns: Same error

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• How to avoid using duplicate savepoint names in nested transactions in nested stored procs?

  - by Gary McGill

  I have a pattern that I almost always follow, where if I need to wrap up an operation in a transaction, I do this: BEGIN TRANSACTION SAVE TRANSACTION TX -- Stuff IF @error <> 0 ROLLBACK TRANSACTION TX COMMIT TRANSACTION That's served me well enough in the past, but after years of using this pattern (and copy-pasting the above code), I've suddenly discovered a flaw which comes as a complete shock. Quite often, I'll have a stored procedure calling other stored procedures, all of which use this same pattern. What I've discovered (to my cost) is that because I'm using the same savepoint name everywhere, I can get into a situation where my outer transaction is partially committed - precisely the opposite of the atomicity that I'm trying to achieve. I've put together an example that exhibits the problem. This is a single batch (no nested stored procs), and so it looks a little odd in that you probably wouldn't use the same savepoint name twice in the same batch, but my real-world scenario would be too confusing to post. CREATE TABLE Test (test INTEGER NOT NULL) BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX INSERT INTO Test(test) VALUES (1) COMMIT TRAN TX BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX INSERT INTO Test(test) VALUES (2) COMMIT TRAN TX DELETE FROM Test ROLLBACK TRAN TX COMMIT TRAN TX SELECT * FROM Test DROP TABLE Test When I execute this, it lists one record, with value "1". In other words, even though I rolled back my outer transaction, a record was added to the table. What's happening is that the ROLLBACK TRANSACTION TX at the outer level is rolling back as far as the last SAVE TRANSACTION TX at the inner level. Now that I write this all out, I can see the logic behind it: the server is looking back through the log file, treating it as a linear stream of transactions; it doesn't understand the nesting/hierarchy implied by either the nesting of the transactions (or, in my real-world scenario, by the calls to other stored procedures). So, clearly, I need to start using unique savepoint names instead of blindly using "TX" everywhere. But - and this is where I finally get to the point - is there a way to do this in a copy-pastable way so that I can still use the same code everywhere? Can I auto-generate the savepoint name on the fly somehow? Is there a convention or best-practice for doing this sort of thing? It's not exactly hard to come up with a unique name every time you start a transaction (could base it off the SP name, or somesuch), but I do worry that eventually there would be a conflict - and you wouldn't know about it because rather than causing an error it just silently destroys your data... :-(

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• My ashx stopped working (Works locally, but not online)

  - by Madi D.

  i have a simple ASHX file that returns pictures upon request (mainly a counter), previously the code simply fetched pre-made pictures(already uploaded and available) and sent them to the requester.. i just modified the code,so it would take a base picture, do some modifications on it, save it to the server, then serve it to the user.. tested it locally and it worked like a charm. however when i uploaded the code to my hosting service (Godaddy..) it didnt work. Can someone point the problem out to me? Note: ASHX worked with me before,so i know the web.config and IIS are handling them properly, however i think i am missing something .. Code: <%@ WebHandler Language="C#" Class="NWEmpPhotoHandler" %> using System; using System.Web; using System.IO; using System.Drawing; using System.Drawing.Imaging; public class NWEmpPhotoHandler : IHttpHandler { public bool IsReusable { get { return true; } } public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext ctx) { try { //Some Code to fetch # of vistors from DB int x = 10,000; // # of Vistors, fetched from DB string numberOfVistors = (1000 + x).ToString(); string filePath = ctx.Server.MapPath("counter.jpg"); Bitmap myBitmap = new Bitmap(filePath); Graphics g = Graphics.FromImage(myBitmap); g.TextRenderingHint = System.Drawing.Text.TextRenderingHint.AntiAlias; StringFormat strFormat = new StringFormat(); g.DrawString(numberOfVistors , new Font("Tahoma", 24), Brushes.Maroon, new RectangleF(55, 82, 500, 500),null); string PathToSave = ctx.Server.MapPath("counter-" + numberOfVistors + ".jpg"); saveJpeg(PathToSave, myBitmap, 100); if (File.Exists(PathToSave)) { ctx.Response.ContentType = "image/jpg"; ctx.Response.WriteFile(PathToSave); //ctx.Response.OutputStream.Write(picByteArray, 0, picByteArray.Length); } } catch (ArgumentException exe) { } } private ImageCodecInfo getEncoderInfo(string mimeType) { // Get image codecs for all image formats ImageCodecInfo[] codecs = ImageCodecInfo.GetImageEncoders(); // Find the correct image codec for (int i = 0; i < codecs.Length; i++) if (codecs[i].MimeType == mimeType) return codecs[i]; return null; } private void saveJpeg(string path, Bitmap img, long quality) { // Encoder parameter for image quality EncoderParameter qualityParam = new EncoderParameter(Encoder.Quality, quality); // Jpeg image codec ImageCodecInfo jpegCodec = this.getEncoderInfo("image/jpeg"); if (jpegCodec == null) return; EncoderParameters encoderParams = new EncoderParameters(1); encoderParams.Param[0] = qualityParam; img.Save(path, jpegCodec, encoderParams); } }

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• PHP throws 'Allowed memory exhausted' errors while migrating data in Drupal.

  - by Stan

  I'm trying to setup a tiny sandbox on a local machine to play around with Drupal. I created a few CCK types; in order to create a few nodes I wrote the following script: chdir('C:\..\drupal'); require_once '.\includes\bootstrap.inc'; drupal_bootstrap(DRUPAL_BOOTSTRAP_FULL); module_load_include('inc', 'node', 'node.pages'); $node = array('type' => 'my_type'); $link = mysql_connect(..); mysql_select_db('my_db'); $query_bldg = ' SELECT stuff FROM table LIMIT 10 '; $result = mysql_query($query_bldg); while ($row = mysql_fetch_object($result)) { $form_state = array(); $form_state['values']['name'] = 'admin'; $form_state['values']['status'] = 1; $form_state['values']['op'] = t('Save'); $form_state['values']['title'] = $row->val_a; $form_state['values']['my_field'][0]['value'] = $row->val_b; ## About another dozen or so of similar assignments... drupal_execute('node_form', $form_state, (object)$node); } Here are a few relevant lines from php_errors.log: [12-Jun-2010 05:02:47] PHP Notice: Undefined index: REMOTE_ADDR in C:\..\drupal\includes\bootstrap.inc on line 1299 [12-Jun-2010 05:02:47] PHP Notice: Undefined index: REMOTE_ADDR in C:\..\drupal\includes\bootstrap.inc on line 1299 [12-Jun-2010 05:02:47] PHP Warning: session_start(): Cannot send session cookie - headers already sent by (output started at C:\..\drupal\includes\bootstrap.inc:1299) in C:\..\drupal\includes\bootstrap.inc on line 1143 [12-Jun-2010 05:02:47] PHP Warning: session_start(): Cannot send session cache limiter - headers already sent (output started at C:\..\drupal\includes\bootstrap.inc:1299) in C:\..\drupal\includes\bootstrap.inc on line 1143 [12-Jun-2010 05:02:47] PHP Warning: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent by (output started at C:\..\drupal\includes\bootstrap.inc:1299) in C:\..\drupal\includes\bootstrap.inc on line 709 [12-Jun-2010 05:02:47] PHP Warning: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent by (output started at C:\..\drupal\includes\bootstrap.inc:1299) in C:\..\drupal\includes\bootstrap.inc on line 710 [12-Jun-2010 05:02:47] PHP Warning: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent by (output started at C:\..\drupal\includes\bootstrap.inc:1299) in C:\..\drupal\includes\bootstrap.inc on line 711 [12-Jun-2010 05:02:47] PHP Warning: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent by (output started at C:\..\drupal\includes\bootstrap.inc:1299) in C:\..\drupal\includes\bootstrap.inc on line 712 [12-Jun-2010 05:02:47] PHP Notice: Undefined index: REMOTE_ADDR in C:\..\drupal\includes\bootstrap.inc on line 1299 [12-Jun-2010 05:02:48] PHP Fatal error: Allowed memory size of 239075328 bytes exhau sted (tried to allocate 261904 bytes) in C:\..\drupal\includes\form.inc on line 488 [12-Jun-2010 05:03:22] PHP Fatal error: Allowed memory size of 239075328 bytes exhausted (tried to allocate 261904 bytes) in C:\..\drupal\includes\form.inc on line 488 [12-Jun-2010 05:04:34] PHP Fatal error: Allowed memory size of 262144 bytes exhausted (tried to allocate 261904 bytes) in Unknown on line 0 At this point any action php takes results in the last error shown above. I tried increasing the value of memory_limit in php.ini before the final Fatal error which obviously didn't help. How can the error be eliminated? Am I on a correct path to migrating data into Drupal or should the cck tables be operated on directly? Windows XP PHP 5.3.2 VC6 Apache 2.2

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