IP address spoofing using Source Routing

Posted by iamrohitbanga on Super User See other posts from Super User or by iamrohitbanga
Published on 2010-04-13T05:26:19Z Indexed on 2010/04/13 5:33 UTC
Read the original article Hit count: 646

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With IP options we can specify the route we want an IP packet to take while connecting to a server. If we know that a particular server provides some extra functionality based on the IP address can we not utilize this by spoofing an IP packet so that the source IP address is the privileged IP address and one of the hosts on the Source Routing is our own.

So if the privileged IP address is x1 and server IP address is x2 and my own IP address is x3. I send a packet from x1 to x2 which is supposed to pass through x3. x1 does not actually send the packet. It is just that x2 thinks the packet came from x1 via x3. Now in response if x2 uses the same routing policy (as a matter of courtesy to x1) then all packets would be received by x3.

Will the destination typically use the same IP address sequences as specified in the routing header so that packets coming from the server pass through my IP where I can get the required information?

Can we not spoof a TCP connection in the above case?

Is this attack used in practice?

IP address spoofing using Source Routing

Posted by iamrohitbanga on Stack Overflow See other posts from Stack Overflow or by iamrohitbanga
Published on 2010-04-13T05:17:28Z Indexed on 2010/04/13 5:23 UTC
Read the original article Hit count: 646

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ipaddress

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spoofing

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source-routing

With IP options we can specify the route we want an IP packet to take while connecting to a server. If we know that a particular server provides some extra functionality based on the IP address can we not utilize this by spoofing an IP packet so that the source IP address is the privileged IP address and one of the hosts on the Source Routing is our own.

So if the privileged IP address is x1 and server IP address is x2 and my own IP address is x3. I send a packet from x1 to x2 which is supposed to pass through x3. x1 does not actually send the packet. It is just that x2 thinks the packet came from x1 via x3. Now in response if x2 uses the same routing policy (as a matter of courtesy to x1) then all packets would be received by x3.

Will the destination typically use the same IP address sequences as specified in the routing header so that packets coming from the server pass through my IP where I can get the required information?

Can we not spoof a TCP connection in the above case?

Is this attack used in practice?

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