Search Results

Search found 73376 results on 2936 pages for 'set based'.

Page 100/2936 | < Previous Page | 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107  | Next Page >

  • Tool to Set a Hotkey to Adjust Overlay Surface Gamma

    - by Synetech inc.
    I am looking for a (Windows XP) utility (preferably a standalone app) that can let me set a hotkey to adjust the gamma (and hopefully other color settings) of the overlay surface. ATI Tray Tools does not have the ability to bind the overlay color adjustments to the overlay. I’ve asked him about it and he said it was difficult to implement or something (he was kind of vague). The ATI Catalyst drivers do not have a hotkey function for the overlay tab either. Can anyone help?

    Read the article

  • how to set up a git repository which can be accessed by network in ubuntu 12.10

    - by hguser
    Now we want to set up a private git repository in the ubuntu 12.10,then other developments can access it through the local network. Now I just can create a repository use git init,for example: cd myproject git init Which will create .git directory,but I do not know how to access it thougth network like: git://192.168.1.1/myproject/.git Any idea? BTW,I have tried: git init --bare which will give me a error: git add error : "fatal : malloc, out of memory"

    Read the article

  • How to set-up UTC time in w2k8 ?

    - by Fleole
    Hello, I am searching to set the clock of w2k8 in UTC, in w2k3 you could choose the Coordinated Universal time in the option of the clock. (you can still in Vista) Now in w2k8 there is only GMT timezone and no trace of the Coordinated Universal Time a s a choice. Anyone knows how to do it ? Regards

    Read the article

  • Set web browser (or other program) to use specific network

    - by Will
    my PC is connected to 3 different networks: 2 different LAN connections and a VPN connection. when i am connected to the vpn, i cannot browse to the LAN intranet as the DNS is all going through the vpn and it cannot see the domains on the LAN. Is there a way to set firefox/chrome/etc to use a specific connection, so that i don't have to disconnect from vpn to get to the other intranets?

    Read the article

  • How to set Standby server

    - by lasko
    I have an application that connects to SQL Server 2008. What I want is to make a standby server (this standby server should be a mirror of the primary one). So that when the connection fails, the primary server should automatically switch to standby server without modifying my application. If there is way, please tell me in detail or even if there is third party product. Note that I need to set the connection in my application to one server only.

    Read the article

  • how can I set sub domains using htaccess ?

    - by user41110
    Hi all I want to set a subdomain for all site users, like www.companyname.mydomain.com I would like to use htaccess for this purpose. when somebody requests www.companyname.mydomain.com it should redirect to myfile.php?name=companyname How can I achieve this using an htaccess file ? Thanks for the consideration.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to run multiple mongod instances on a single set of database files

    - by 9point6
    We have large multi-gigabyte data sets on which we run very complex queries, for example { $or: [ { id: 30000001, ... }, { id: 30000005, ... }, ..., { id: 30001005, ... } ] } It seems that CPU is actually a bottleneck at this point, so I'd be advantageous to be able to run multiple mongod instances on the same set of database files. We've considered using replica sets to this end, but would prefer to not require the extra disk space simply for CPU reasons.

    Read the article

  • Case studies for successful service (project) based software development businesses without constant overtime from its employees [closed]

    - by Ryan Taylor
    I work for an IT company that is primarily services (project) based rather than product based. All software engineers are salaried. The company has set new expectations that everyone should work 48 hours per week instead of 40. Note, this isn't occasional overtime due to crunches. This is the new 40. The reasoning is that this enables the company to provide benefits to its employees such as monetary incentives and training because the company is more profitable. more hours worked = more billable hours = larger profit I understand the need for profitability and the occasional crunch time and have put in the extra hours when it was needed and beneficial to the project. However, I am also very sensitive to work life balance and have raised my concerns about the the new expectation. My employer is open to other methods to increase profitability so I hold hope that we can turn things around before it becomes a horrible place to work. How does a services based company become more profitable without increasing the number of hours expected from it's salaried employees? Are there any case studies showing the pros and cons of consistent overtime? Are there any case studies for a successful service based business model (for software development companies) that does not require consistent overtime from its employees?

    Read the article

  • How to set up multiple video cards in Windows XP

    - by Swish
    All I am trying to do is run a three monitor setup, two widescreens on the good card at high res and a third smaller monitor at 1024x768 that I watch continuously updating info in. I have a Dell Vostro 200 with an HIS Radeon HD 4670 video card in the PCI-e slot. I need an additional video card that will work in an available PCI slot. I Had a Nvidia GeForce 5200 that was installed but due to what I'm assuming was a compatible driver issue (because it was Nvidia not ATI) it wouldn't run at more than 640x480 4bit color when installed simultaneously with the HIS card. Previously I used the Nvidia with the onboard Intel video to run a third monitor, but now that the HSI uses PCI-e the onboard has to be disabled. I tried a Radeon 9200 PCI card that I found (microsoft made I think) with it and only that or the HIS card could be enabled at the same time. When both were in the HIS card said "The device cannot start". SO, based on the fact that I got the Nvidia to work (although very poorly) with the new HIS Radeon HD 4670 PCI-e I know it's possible, just don't know what type of card I need to use. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Windows 7 & Sql 2008 - set database access to normal user

    - by simon_
    I use Windows 7 & Sql Server 2008. If I run Management Studio as normal user and try to connect to database 'MyDatabase', I get this error message 'The database MyDatabase is not accessible'. I I run Management Studio per right click 'Run as administrator', then 'MyDatabase' is accessible. Where & what should I set, to be able to access MyDatabase as normal user?

    Read the article

  • Fail to set a new location of _viminfo on Windows

    - by Elderry
    I am trying to move _viminfo out of my home folder to make it simpler. So I added this to my _vimrc: set viminfo+=n~\\AppBackup\\Vim\\_viminfo However it's useless, Vim still create _viminfo in my home folder. Then I manually input the command above. This time it works fine, so I am sure the command itself is valid. How should I solve this problem for now? To be more specific, I am using GVim 7.4 on Windows 8.1.

    Read the article

  • Outlook: Automatically set from address when replying

    - by mark
    I have a dozen forwarders sending into a gmail account, I have outlook setup using imap but when I reply I don't want it sending from the Gmail address, instead I want it to come from one of the addresses it was forwarded to. I know I can set the from address manually by accessing the email's options when writing a new email, but this is going to be forgotten by the users and they are bound to mess it up, I need a way that I can send as some of the forwarded addresses automatically, any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How is a relative JMP (x86) implemented in an Assembler?

    - by Pindatjuh
    While building my assembler for the x86 platform I encountered some problems with encoding the JMP instruction: enc inst size in bytes EB cb JMP rel8 2 E9 cw JMP rel16 4 (because of 0x66 16-bit prefix) E9 cd JMP rel32 5 ... (from my favourite x86 instruction website, http://siyobik.info/index.php?module=x86&id=147) All are relative jumps, where the size of each encoding (operation + operand) is in the third column. Now my original (and thus fault because of this) design reserved the maximum (5 bytes) space for each instruction. The operand is not yet known, because it's a jump to a yet unknown location. So I've implemented a "rewrite" mechanism, that rewrites the operands in the correct location in memory, if the location of the jump is known, and fills the rest with NOPs. This is a somewhat serious concern in tight-loops. Now my problem is with the following situation: b: XXX c: JMP a e: XXX ... XXX d: JMP b a: XXX (where XXX is any instruction, depending on the to-be assembled program) The problem is that I want the smallest possible encoding for a JMP instruction (and no NOP filling). I have to know the size of the instruction at c before I can calculate the relative distance between a and b for the operand at d. The same applies for the JMP at c: it needs to know the size of d before it can calculate the relative distance between e and a. How do existing assemblers implement this, or how would you implement this? This is what I am thinking which solves the problem: First encode all the instructions to opcodes between the JMP and it's target, and if this region contains a variable-sized opcode, use the maximum size, i.e. 5 for JMP. Then in some conditions, the JMP is oversized (because it may fit in a smaller encoding): so another pass will search for oversized JMPs, shrink them, and move all instructions ahead), and set absolute branching instructions (i.e. external CALLs) after this pass is completed. I wonder, perhaps this is an over-engineered solution, that's why I ask this question.

    Read the article

  • PDO prepare silently fails

    - by Wabbitseason
    I'm experimenting with PHP's session_set_save_handler and I'd like to use a PDO connection to store session data. I have this function as a callback for write actions: function _write($id, $data) { logger('_WRITE ' . $id . ' ' . $data); try { $access = time(); $sql = 'REPLACE INTO sessions SET id=:id, access=:access, data=:data'; logger('This is the last line in this function that appears in the log.'); $stmt = $GLOBALS['db']->prepare($sql); logger('This never gets logged! :('); $stmt->bindParam(':id', $id, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->bindParam(':access', $access, PDO::PARAM_INT); $stmt->bindParam(':data', $data, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->execute(); $stmt->closeCursor(); return true; } catch (PDOException $e) { logger('This is never executed.'); logger($e->getTraceAsString()); } } The first two log messages always show up, but the third one right after $stmt = $GLOBALS['db']->prepare($sql) never makes it to the log file and there's no trace of an exception either. The sessions db table remains empty. The log message from the _close callback is always present. Here's how I connect to the database: $db = new PDO('mysql:host=' . DBHOST . ';dbname=' . DBNAME, DBUSER, DBPASS); $db->setAttribute(PDO::ATTR_ERRMODE, PDO::ERRMODE_EXCEPTION); I have PHP 5.2.10. I tried to simply run $GLOBALS['db']->exec($sql) with a "manually prepared" $sql content, but it still failed silently. The query itself is all right I was able to execute it via the db console.

    Read the article

  • How to Set Opacity (Alpha) for View in Android

    - by ncakmak
    I have a button as in the following: <Button android:text="Submit" android:id="@+id/Button01" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content"></Button> In my onCreate event, I am calling Button01 like this: setContentView(R.layout.main); View Button01 = this.findViewById(R.id.Button01); Button01.setOnClickListener(this); There is a background in the application, and I want to set an opacity on this submit button. How can I set an opacity for this view? Is it something that I can set on the java side, or can I set in the main.xml file? On the java side I tried Button01.mutate().SetAlpha(100), but it gave me an error. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • How to trigger an action from a NSTableCellView in view based NSTableView when using bindings

    - by user1075752
    I'm facing a problem with a view-based NSTableView running on 10.8 (target is 10.7, but I think this is not relevant). I'm using an NSTableView, and I get content values for my custom NSTableCellView through bindings. I use the obejctValue of the NSTableCellView to get my data. I added a button to my cell, and I'd like it to trigger some action when clicked. So far I have only been able to trigger an action within the custom NSTableCellView's subclass. I can get the row that was clicked like this, using the chain: NSButton *myButton = (NSButton*)sender; NSTableView *myView = (NSTableView*)myButton.superview.superview.superview; NSInteger rowClicked = [myView rowForView:myButton.superview]; From there I don't know how to reach my App Delegate or controller where the action is defined. As I am using cocoa bindings, I do not have a delegate on the NSTableView that I could use to trigger my action. Do you have any idea how I could talked back to controller ? Many thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Retrieve enum value based on XmlEnumAttribute name value

    - by CletusLoomis
    I need a Generic function to retrieve the name or value of an enum based on the XmlEnumAttribute "Name" property of the enum. For example I have the following enum defined: Public Enum Currency <XmlEnum("00")> CDN = 1 <XmlEnum("01")> USA= 2 <XmlEnum("02")> EUR= 3 <XmlEnum("03")> JPN= 4 End Enum The first Currency enum value is 1; the enum name is "CDN"; and the XMLEnumAttribute Name property value is "00". If I have the enum value, I can retrieve the XmlEnumAttribute "Name" value using the following generic function: Public Function GetXmlAttrNameFromEnumValue(Of T)(ByVal pEnumVal As T) As String Dim type As Type = pEnumVal.GetType Dim info As FieldInfo = type.GetField([Enum].GetName(GetType(T), pEnumVal)) Dim att As XmlEnumAttribute = CType(info.GetCustomAttributes(GetType(XmlEnumAttribute), False)(0), XmlEnumAttribute) 'If there is an xmlattribute defined, return the name Return att.Name End Function So using the above function, I can specify the Currency enum type, pass a value of 1, and the return value will be "00". What I need is a function to perform if the opposite. If I have the XmlEnumAttribute Name value "00", I need a function to return a Currency enum with a value of 1. Just as useful would be a function that would return the enum name "CDN". I could then simply parse this to get the enum value. Any assistance would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC - Html.DropDownList - Value not set via ViewData.Model

    - by chrisb
    Have just started playing with ASP.NET MVC and have stumbled over the following situation. It feels a lot like a bug but if its not, an explanation would be appreciated :) The View contains pretty basic stuff <%=Html.DropDownList("MyList", ViewData["MyListItems"] as SelectList)%> <%=Html.TextBox("MyTextBox")%> When not using a model, the value and selected item are set as expected: //works fine public ActionResult MyAction(){ ViewData["MyListItems"] = new SelectList(items, "Value", "Text"); //items is an ienumerable of {Value="XXX", Text="YYY"} ViewData["MyList"] = "XXX"; //set the selected item to be the one with value 'XXX' ViewData["MyTextBox"] = "ABC"; //sets textbox value to 'ABC' return View(); } But when trying to load via a model, the textbox has the value set as expected, but the dropdown doesnt get a selected item set. //doesnt work public ActionResult MyAction(){ ViewData["MyListItems"] = new SelectList(items, "Value", "Text"); //items is an ienumerable of {Value="XXX", Text="YYY"} var model = new { MyList = "XXX", //set the selected item to be the one with value 'XXX' MyTextBox = "ABC" //sets textbox value to 'ABC' } return View(model); } Any ideas? My current thoughts on it are that perhaps when using a model, we're restricted to setting the selected item on the SelectList constructor instead of using the viewdata (which works fine) and passing the selectlist in with the model - which would have the benefit of cleaning the code up a little - I'm just wondering why this method doesnt work.... Many thanks for any suggestions

    Read the article

  • Using JavaScript/jQuery to return a list of CSS selectors based on highlighted text

    - by Bungle
    I've been given some project requirements that involve (ideally) returning a list of CSS selectors based on highlighted text. In other words, a user could do something like this on a page: Click a button to indicate that their next text selection should be recorded. Highlight some text on the page. See a generated list of CSS selectors that correspond to all the elements that contain the highlighted text. Firstly, does this seem like a feasible goal? jQuery makes it easy to use a selector to access a particular element, but I'm not sure if the reverse holds true. If an element lacks an id attribute, I also don't know how you'd return an "optimized" selector - i.e., one that identifies an element uniquely. Maybe crawl up the DOM until you find an ID, then stem the selector from there? Secondly, from a high-level perspective, any ideas on how to go about this? Any tips or tricks that could speed development? I very much appreciate any help. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Obj-C component-based game architecture and message forwarding

    - by WanderWeird
    Hello, I've been trying to implement a simple component-based game object architecture using Objective-C, much along the lines of the article 'Evolve Your Hierarchy' by Mick West. To this end, I've successfully used a some ideas as outlined in the article 'Objective-C Message Forwarding' by Mike Ash, that is to say using the -(id)forwardingTargetForSelector: method. The basic setup is I have a container GameObject class, that contains three instances of component classes as instance variables: GCPositioning, GCRigidBody, and GCRendering. The -(id)forwardingTargetForSelector: method returns whichever component will respond to the relevant selector, determined using the -(BOOL)respondsToSelector: method. All this, in a way, works like a charm: I can call a method on the GameObject instance of which the implementation is found in one of the components, and it works. Of course, the problem is that the compiler gives 'may not respond to ...' warnings for each call. Now, my question is, how do I avoid this? And specifically regarding the fact that the point is that each instance of GameObject will have a different set of components? Maybe a way to register methods with the container objects, on a object per object basis? Such as, can I create some kind of -(void)registerMethodWithGameObject: method, and how would I do that? Now, it may or may not be obvious that I'm fairly new to Cocoa and Objective-C, and just horsing around, basically, and this whole thing may be very alien here. Of course, though I would very much like to know of a solution to my specific issue, anyone who would care to explain a more elegant way of doing this would additionally be very welcome. Much appreciated, -Bastiaan

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107  | Next Page >