Search Results

Search found 3148 results on 126 pages for 'angularjs scope'.

Page 103/126 | < Previous Page | 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110  | Next Page >

• CLLocationDistance NaN

  - by Kaspa

  Hi, I'm trying to calculate a distance between two sets of coordinate points in an iPhone application on the fly using - (CLLocationDistance)getDistanceFrom:(const CLLocation *)location I saw that I started getting NaN's in strange places, thus investigated the matter up close, with the following hardcoded values. CLLocationDistance testDistance; placeLocation = [[CLLocation alloc] initWithLatitude:12.236533 longitude:11.011419]; userLocation = [[CLLocation alloc] initWithLatitude:12.236533 longitude:11.011419]; testDistance = [userLocation getDistanceFrom:placeLocation]; if(isnan(testDistance)) NSLog(@"ISNaN!"); [placeLocation release]; [userLocation release]; The above gets called multiple times, and in some situations the testDistance is NaN. I fear I'm missing something very simple here. Anyone have any idea? UPDATE 1: Ok, so I've moved the above code into a new project (put everything in the app delegate), looped it for 100 times and all is fine. This thus suggests that the problem is project related, but this helps very little... since all the variables are in the scope of 1 function. THE SOLUTION: OK, this seems to be a simulator bug. The same code build runs perfectly fine on the device. Case solved.

  Read the article

• using EventToCommand & PassEventArgsToCommand :: how to get sender, or better metaphor?

  - by JoeBrockhaus

  The point of what I'm doing is that there are a lot of things that need to happen in the viewmodel, but when the view has been loaded, not on constructor. I could wire up event handlers and send messages, but that just seems kinda sloppy to me. I'm implementing a base view and base viewmodel where this logic is contained so all my views get it by default, hopefully. Perhaps I can't even get what I'm wanting: the sender. I just figured this is what RoutedEventArgs.OriginalSource was supposed to be? [Edit] In the meantime, I've hooked up an EventHandler in the xaml.cs, and sure enough, OriginalSource is null there as well. So I guess really I need to know if it's possible to get a reference to the view/sender in the Command as well? [/Edit] My implementation requires that a helper class to my viewmodels which is responsible for creating 'windows' knows of the 'host' control that all the windows get added to. i'm open to suggestions for accomplishing this outside the scope of using eventtocommand. :) (the code for Unloaded is the same) #region ViewLoadedCommand private RelayCommand<RoutedEventArgs> _viewLoadedCommand = null; /// <summary> /// Command to handle the control's Loaded event. /// </summary> public RelayCommand<RoutedEventArgs> ViewLoadedCommand { get { // lazy-instantiate the RelayCommand on first usage if (_viewLoadedCommand == null) { _viewLoadedCommand = new RelayCommand<RoutedEventArgs>( e => this.OnViewLoadedCommand(e)); } return _viewLoadedCommand; } } #endregion ViewLoadedCommand #region View EventHandlers protected virtual void OnViewLoadedCommand(RoutedEventArgs e) { EventHandler handler = ViewLoaded; if (handler != null) { handler(this, e); } } #endregion

  Read the article

• Architecture with NHibernate and Repositories

  - by Matthew

  I've been reading up on MVC 2 and the recommended patterns, so far I've come to the conclusion (amongst much hair pulling and total confusion) that: Model - Is just a basic data container Repository - Provides data access Service - Provides business logic and acts as an API to the Controller The Controller talks to the Service, the Service talks to the Repository and Model. So for example, if I wanted to display a blog post page with its comments, I might do: post = PostService.Get(id); comments = PostService.GetComments(post); Or, would I do: post = PostService.Get(id); comments = post.Comments; If so, where is this being set, from the repository? the problem there being its not lazy loaded.. that's not a huge problem but then say I wanted to list 10 posts with the first 2 comments for each, id have to load the posts then loop and load the comments which becomes messy. All of the example's use "InMemory" repository's for testing and say that including db stuff would be out of scope. But this leaves me with many blanks, so for a start can anyone comment on the above?

  Read the article

• How does the destructor know when to activate itself? Can it be relied upon?

  - by Robert Mason

  Say for example i have the following code (pure example): class a { int * p; public: a() { p = new int; ~a() { delete p; } }; a * returnnew() { a retval; return(&retval); } int main() { a * foo = returnnew(); return 0; } In returnnew(), would retval be destructed after the return of the function (when retval goes out of scope)? Or would it disable automatic destruction after i returned the address and i would be able to say delete foo; at the end of main()? Or, in a similar vein (pseudocode): void foo(void* arg) { bar = (a*)arg; //do stuff exit_thread(); } int main() { while(true) { a asdf; create_thread(foo, (void*)&asdf); } return 0; } where would the destructor go? where would i have to say delete? or is this undefined behavior? Would the only possible solution be to use the STL referenced-counted pointers? how would this be implemented? Thank you- i've used C++ for a while but never quite been in this type of situation, and don't want to create memory leaks.

  Read the article

• setInterval works only the first time

  - by Neil

  Hi, I am trying to use setTimer to animate a slide show using straightforward jQuery. I provide the user with a button (in the form of a "DIV" with a button background image) that he clicks to start the show and which then turns into a pause button. The slides are supposed to change every 3 seconds. Here is the relevant code: playLink = $('<div id="lbPlayLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).hide(); $(pauseLink).show(); slideInterval = setInterval(function(){next()}, 3000) })[0]; pauseLink = $('<div id="lbPauseLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).show(); $(pauseLink).hide(); clearInterval(slideInterval); }).hide()[0]; The next() function call does the work of replacing the slide with the next one. I have checked out this function and it works perfectly if I call it directly (synchronously), however, when it gets called asonchronously by the "setInterval", it works fine the first time (3 seconds after I click on the button), but is never called again, even though it should be called 3 seconds later. I know it's never called as I put an "alert" call at the beginning and end of the function. If I replace the "next()" call in the "setInterval" by "alert('test')" then I can see the setInterval is doing what it is supposed to. I can't for the life of me see why "alert()" is OK but "next()" isn't, unless it has something to do with "scope" of functions, but in that case why does it work the first time? I've tried debugging the code with firebug, but it can't really help with timeout functions like this. Neither Firefox nor IE8 show any error messages. I've looked through the various posts here and elsewhere on setInterval, but can't see anything relevant that I haven't tried already. I've been experimenting now for about 3 hours and it's doing my head in. Can anyone suggest what I can try next? Thanks in advance Neil

  Read the article

• Outputing value of TrueClass / FalseClass to integer or string/

  - by Nick Gorbikoff

  Hello. I'm trying to figure out if there is an easy way to do the following short of adding to_i method to TrueClass/FalseClass. Here is a dilemma: I have a boolean field in my rails app - that is obviously stored as Tinyint in mysql. However - I need to generate xml based of the data in mysql and send it to customer - there SOAP service requires the field in question to have 0 or 1 as the value of this field. So at the time of the xml generation I need to convert my False to 0 and my True to 1 ( which is how they are stored in the DB). Since True & False lack to_i method I could write some if statement that generate either 1 or 0 depending on true/false state. However I have about 10 of these indicators and creating and if/else for each is not very DRY. So what you recommend I do? Or I could add a to_i method to the True / False class. But I'm not sure where should I scope it in my rails app? Just inside this particular model or somewhere else?

  Read the article

• Problem consuming Exchange Web Service 2010 with jax-ws metro

  - by Johan Karlberg

  I am trying to consume the Exchange 2010 Web Service interface using JAX-WS. I'm using JAX-WS 2.2 RI (Metro 2.0). 2.1 exhibited the same problem. I am running into trouble with Exchange, which returns "HTTP/1.1 415 Cannot process the message because the content type 'text/xml;charset=utf-8' was not the expected type 'text/xml; charset=utf-8'." as a reponse (2.1 quoted the charset value, otherwise same response). Apparently I need to dictate the exact Content-type header for Exchange to be happy. Is there a way for me to do this without forcing me to manually rebuild the dependency? I currently rely on published maven artifacts, and would like to continue doing this if at all possible. The consuming process is a regular J2SE app, with no containers in sight. I have control of the application and can add pretty much anything required to the applications scope, but can not add out-of-process items like proxy servers. The client classes were generated from local WSDL, but the charset specification is derived from constants declared in the jaxws RI implementation, not the generated code. The resulting HTTP transport is thus handled by the standard http/https client from Sun JRE5 or JRE6.

  Read the article

• Objective C, Linking Error with extern variable..

  - by LCYSoft

  I have a very simple java code like this. I don't have any idea how to do this in Objective C. Especially, the static part which calls the getLocalAddress() method and assign it into the static string variable. I know how to set a static variable and a static method in Objective but I dont know how to implement that static { } part in java. Thanks in advance... public class Address { public static String localIpAddress; static { localIpAddress = getLocalIpAddress(); } public Address() { } static String getLocalIpAddress() { //do something to get local ip address } } I added this in my .h file #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> extern NSString *localIpAddress; @class WifiAddrss; @interface Address : NSObject { } @end And my .m file looks like #import "Address.h" #import "WifiAddress.h" @implementation Address +(void)initialize{ if(self == [Address class]){ localIpAddress = [self getLocalIpAddress]; } } +(NSString *)getLocalIpAddress{ return address here } -(id)init{ self = [super init]; if (self == nil){ NSLog(@"init error"); } return self; } @end And Now I am getting a linking error and it complains about "extern NSString *localIpAddress" part. If I change the extern to static, it works fine. But what I wanted to do is that I want make the scope of "localIpAddress" variable as grobal. Since if I put "static" in front of a variable in Objective-C then the variable is only visible in the class. But this time, I want to make that as a grobal variable. So my question is how to make "localIpAddress" variable as a grobal variable which is initialized once when the first time Address class is created.. Thanks in advance...

  Read the article

• Virtual properties duplicated during serialization when XmlElement attribute used

  - by Laramie

  The Goal: XML serialize an object that contains a list of objects of that and its derived types. The resulting XML should not use the xsi:type attribute to describe the type, to wit the names of the serialized XML elements would be an assigned name specific to the derived type, not always that of the base class, which is the default behavior. The Attempt: After exploring IXmlSerializable and IXmlSerializable with eerie XmlSchemaProvider methods and voodoo reflection to return specialized schemas and an XmlQualifiedName over the course of days, I found I was able to use the simple [XmlElement] attribute to accomplish the goal... almost. The Problem: Overridden properties appear twice when serializing. The exception reads "The XML element 'overriddenProperty' from namespace '' is already present in the current scope. Use XML attributes to specify another XML name or namespace for the element." I attempted using a *Specified property (see code), but it didn't work. Sample Code: Class Declaration using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Xml.Serialization; [XmlInclude(typeof(DerivedClass))] public class BaseClass { public BaseClass() { } [XmlAttribute("virt")] public virtual string Virtual { get; set; } [XmlIgnore] public bool VirtualSpecified { get { return (this is BaseClass); } set { } } [XmlElement(ElementName = "B", Type = typeof(BaseClass), IsNullable = false)] [XmlElement(ElementName = "D", Type = typeof(DerivedClass), IsNullable = false)] public List<BaseClass> Children { get; set; } } public class DerivedClass : BaseClass { public DerivedClass() { } [XmlAttribute("virt")] public override string Virtual { get { return "always return spackle"; } set { } } } Driver: BaseClass baseClass = new BaseClass() { Children = new List<BaseClass>() }; BaseClass baseClass2 = new BaseClass(){}; DerivedClass derivedClass1 = new DerivedClass() { Children = new List<BaseClass>() }; DerivedClass derivedClass2 = new DerivedClass() { Children = new List<BaseClass>() }; baseClass.Children.Add(derivedClass1); baseClass.Children.Add(derivedClass2); derivedClass1.Children.Add(baseClass2); I've been wrestling with this on and off for weeks and can't find the answer anywhere.

  Read the article

• How to use boost::bind with non-copyable params, for example boost::promise ?

  - by zhengxi

  Some C++ objects have no copy constructor, but have move constructor. For example, boost::promise. How can I bind those objects using their move constructors ? #include <boost/thread.hpp> void fullfil_1(boost::promise<int>& prom, int x) { prom.set_value(x); } boost::function<void()> get_functor() { // boost::promise is not copyable, but movable boost::promise<int> pi; // compilation error boost::function<void()> f_set_one = boost::bind(&fullfil_1, pi, 1); // compilation error as well boost::function<void()> f_set_one = boost::bind(&fullfil_1, std::move(pi), 1); // PS. I know, it is possible to bind a pointer to the object instead of // the object itself. But it is weird solution, in this case I will have // to take cake about lifetime of the object instead of delegating that to // boost::bind (by moving object into boost::function object) // // weird: pi will be destroyed on leaving the scope boost::function<void()> f_set_one = boost::bind(&fullfil_1, boost::ref(pi), 1); return f_set_one; }

  Read the article

• JSF/Seam - new component instance on submit?

  - by purecharger

  And my confusion with JSF continues. This is a continuation of a question asked yesterday, but I feel it warrants a new question. I have a single seam component that expects a URL parameter to be injected for retrieving a List<String> from a method. This works perfectly on the first navigation to the page. The List is used to display many different selectOneRadio groups that populate a <h:form/>. Now on the submit, I cannot get the URL parameter to be injected or otherwise set on the component! Adding <h:inputHidden/> causes FacesExceptions to be thrown. Then I tried setting the List as an instance variable on the object, and when the subsequent call is made on the submit (which I also do not understand why that is done) I check to see if the variable is non-null: if it isn't, return it. Now I found that a new instance of the component is created on submit!!! getList() called this.toString(): .BeanAction@5fd98420 #### This is when submit is clicked getList() called this.toString(): .BeanAction@22aacbce The component has the following annotations: Stateful @Scope(ScopeType.CONVERSATION) @Name("bean") @Restrict("#{identity.loggedIn}") Can someone explain why there is a new instance of the component created? I'm really not quite sure how to go about handling this. I thought the hidden parameter would work, because that is how I would do it with straight HTML, and I'm a little surprised that its not working for JSF/Seam.

  Read the article

• Convert pre-IEEE-574 C++ floating-point numbers to/from C#

  - by Richard Kucia

  Before .Net, before math coprocessors, before IEEE-574, Microsoft defined a bit pattern for floating-point numbers. Old versions of the C++ compiler happily used that definition. I am writing a C# app that needs to read/write such floating-point numbers in a file. How can I do the conversions between the 2 bit formats? I need conversion methods in both directions. This app is going to run in a PocketPC/WinCE environment. Changing the structure of the file is out-of-scope for this project. Is there a C++ compiler option that instructs it to use the old FP format? That would be ideal. I could then exchange data between the C# code and C++ code by using a null-terminated text string, and the C++ methods would be simple wrappers around sprintf and atof functions. At the very least, I'm hoping someone can reply with the bit definitions for the old FP format, so I can put together a low-level bit manipulation algorithm if necessary. Thanks.

  Read the article

• rich suggestions - why input is null? (seam framework)

  - by Cristian Boariu

  Hi, I'm trying to build a rich suggestions and i do not understand WHY the input value is null... I mean, why inputText value is not taken when i enter something. The .xhtml code: <h:inputText value="#{suggestion.input}" id="text"> </h:inputText> <rich:suggestionbox id="suggestionBoxId" for="text" tokens=",[]" suggestionAction="#{suggestion.getSimilarSpacePaths()}" var="result" fetchValue="#{result.path}" first="0" minChars="2" nothingLabel="No similar space paths found" columnClasses="center" > <h:column> <h:outputText value="#{result.path}" style="font-style:italic"/> </h:column> </rich:suggestionbox> and action class: @Name("suggestion") @Scope(ScopeType.CONVERSATION) public class Suggestion { @In protected EntityManager entityManager; private String input; public String getInput() { return input; } public void setInput(final String input) { this.input = input; } public List<Space> getSimilarSpacePaths() { List<Space> suggestionsList = new ArrayList<Space>(); if (!StringUtils.isEmpty(input) && !input.equals("/")) { final Query query = entityManager.createNamedQuery("SpaceByPathLike"); query.setParameter("path", input + '%'); suggestionsList = (List<Space>) query.getResultList(); } return suggestionsList; } } So, input beeing null, suggestionList is always empty... Why input's value is not posted?

  Read the article

• How to setup Lucene search for a B2B web app?

  - by Bill Paetzke

  Given: 5000 databases (spread out over 5 servers) 1 database per client (so you can infer there are 1000 clients) 2 to 2000 users per client (let's say avg is 100 users per client) Clients (databases) come and go every day (let's assume most remain for at least one year) Let's stay agnostic of language or sql brand, since Lucene (and Solr) have a breadth of support The Question: How would you setup Lucene search so that each client can only search within its database? How would you setup the index(es)? Would you need to add a filter to all search queries? If a client cancelled, how would you delete their (part of the) index? (this may be trivial--not sure yet) Possible Solutions: Make an index for each client (database) Pro: Search is faster (than one-index-for-all method). Indices are relative to the size of the client's data. Con: I'm not sure what this entails, nor do I know if this is beyond Lucene's scope. Have a single, gigantic index with a database_name field. Always include database_name as a filter. Pro: Not sure. Maybe good for tech support or billing dept to search all databases for info. Con: Search is slower (than index-per-client method). Flawed security if query filter removed. For Example: Joel Spolsky said in Podcast #11 that his hosted web app product, FogBugz On-Demand, uses Lucene. He has thousands of on-demand clients. And each client gets their own database. His situation is quite similar to mine. Although, he didn't elaborate on the setup (particularly indices); hence, the need for this question. One last thing: I would also accept an answer that uses Solr (the extension of Lucene). Perhaps it's better suited for this problem. Not sure.

  Read the article

• Will rel=canonical break site: queries ?

  - by Justin Grant

  Our company publishes our software product's documentation using a custom-built content management system using a dynamic URL namespace like this: http://ourproduct.com/documentation/version/pageid Where "version" is the version number to which the documentation applies, and "pageid" is a unique string which identifies that page in our back-end content management system. For example, if content (e.g. a page about configuration best practices) is unchanged from version 3.0 and 4.0 of our product, it'd be reachable by two different URLs: http://ourproduct.com/documentation/3.0/configuration-best-practices http://ourproduct.com/documentation/4.0/configuration-best-practices This URL scheme allows us to scope Google search results to see only documentaiton for a particular product version, like this: configuration site:ourproduct.com/documentation/4.0 But when the user is searching across all versions, we don't want Google to arbitrarily choose one of the URLs to show in results. Instead, we always want the latest version to show up. Hence our planned use of rel=canonical so we can proscriptively tell Google which URL we want to show up if multiple versions are being searched. (Users who do oddball things like searching 2 versions but not all of them are a corner case, so we don't care which version(s) show up in that case-- the primary use-cases we care about is searching one version or searching all versions) But what will happen to scoped searches if we do this? If my rel=canonical URL points to version 4.0, but my search is scoped to 3.0, will Google return a result? Even if you don't know the answer offhand, do you know a site which uses rel=canonical to redirect across folders in a URL namespace. If so, I could run a few Google searches and figure out the answer.

  Read the article

• How can I automatically release resources RAII-style in Perl?

  - by Philip Potter

  Say I have a resource (e.g. a filehandle or network socket) which has to be freed: open my $fh, "<", "filename" or die "Couldn't open filename: $!"; process($fh); close $fh or die "Couldn't close filename: $!"; Suppose that process might die. Then the code block exits early, and $fh doesn't get closed. I could explicitly check for errors: open my $fh, "<", "filename" or die "Couldn't open filename: $!"; eval {process($fh)}; my $saved_error = $@; close $fh or die "Couldn't close filename: $!"; die $saved_error if $saved_error; but this kind of code is notoriously difficult to get right, and only gets more complicated when you add more resources. In C++ I would use RAII to create an object which owns the resource, and whose destructor would free it. That way, I don't have to remember to free the resource, and resource cleanup happens correctly as soon as the RAII object goes out of scope - even if an exception is thrown. Unfortunately in Perl a DESTROY method is unsuitable for this purpose as there are no guarantees for when it will be called. Is there a Perlish way to ensure resources are automatically freed like this even in the presence of exceptions? Or is explicit error checking the only option?

  Read the article

• problem in accessing the path involving pagination using display tag

  - by sarah

  Hi All, I am using display tag for pagiantion and display of the data in table format the code is like <display:column title="Select" style="width: 90px;"> <input type="checkbox" name="optionSelected" value="<c:out value='${userList.loginName}'/>"/> </display:column> <display:column property="loginName" sortable="false" title="UserName" paramId="loginName" style="width: 150px; text-align:center" href="./editUser.do?method=editUser"/> the pagesize is one it will display one in a page and eidt page will be dispaly on click of login name,but when i go to the second page i get an error saying /views/editUser path not found.How exactly should i define the path ? the struts-config is like <!-- action for edit user --> <action path="/editUser" name="editUserForm" type="com.actions.UserManagementAction" parameter="method" input="/EditUser.jsp" scope="request"> <forward name="success" path="/views/EditUser.jsp" /> <forward name="failure" path="/views/failure.jsp" /> </action> Pleas tell me how should i define the access path for display tag as on click of edit link the first page works but not the second edit

  Read the article

• jQuery - Callback failing if there is no options parameter

  - by user249950

  Hi, I'm attempting to build a simple plugin like this (function($) { $.fn.gpSlideOut = function(options, callback) { // default options - these are used when no others are specified $.fn.gpSlideOut.defaults = { fadeToColour: "#ffffb3", fadeToColourSpeed: 500, slideUpSpeed: 400 }; // build main options before element iteration var o = $.extend({}, $.fn.gpSlideOut.defaults, options); this.each(function() { $(this) .animate({backgroundColor: o.fadeToColour},o.fadeToColourSpeed) .slideUp(o.SlideUpSpeed, function(){ if (typeof callback == 'function') { // make sure the callback is a function callback.call(this); // brings the scope to the callback } }); }); return this; }; // invoke the function we just created passing it the jQuery object })(jQuery); The confusion I'm having is that normally on jQuery plugins you can call something like this: $(this_moveable_item).gpSlideOut(function() { // Do stuff }); Without the options parameter, but it misses the callback if I do it like that so I have to always have var options = {} $(this_moveable_item).gpSlideOut(options, function() { // Do stuff }); Even if I only want to use the defaults. Is there anyway to make sure the callback function is called whether or not the options parameter is there? Cheers.

  Read the article

• How to configure database connection securely

  - by chiccodoro

  Similar but not the same: How to securely store database connection details Securely connecting to database within a application Hi all, I have a C# WinForms application connecting to a database server. The database connection string, including a generic user/pass, is placed in a NHibernate configuration file, which lies in the same directory as the exe file. Now I have this issue: The user that runs the application should not get to know the username/password of the general database user because I don't want him to rummage around in the database directly. Alternatively I could hardcode the connection string, which is bad because the administrator must be able to change it if the database is moved or if he wants to switch between dev/test/prod environments. So long I've found three possibilities: The first referenced question was generally answered by making the file only readable for the user that runs the application. But that's not not enough in my case (the user running the application is a person. The database user/pass are general and shouldn't even be accessible by the person.) The first answer additionally proposed to encrypt the connection data before writing it to the file. With this approach, the administrator is not able anymore to configure the connection string because he cannot encrypt it by hand. The second referenced question provides an approach for this very scenario but it seems very complicated. My questions to you: This is a very general issue, so isn't there any general "how-to-do-it" way, somehow a "design pattern"? Is there some support in .NET's config infrastructure? (optional, maybe out of scope) Can I combine that easily with the NHibernate configuration mechanism?

  Read the article

• Assign a unique client ID to each <rich:dataTable /> row?

  - by Dolph Mathews

  I'm relatively new to working with the UI in Seam, so I'm hoping there is something simple I can replace the three instances of UNIQUE_ID with in the following example (such as #{object.uniqueId}). The goal is to have a <rich:dataTable /> wherein each row has the ability to show/hide a <rich:modalPanel /> with more details about the particular object instance. <rich:dataTable var="object" value="#{bean.myObject}"> <rich:column> <h:outputText value="#{object.summary}" /> </rich:column> <rich:column> <a onclick="Richfaces.showModalPanel('UNIQUE_ID');" href="#">Show Details in ModalPanel</a> <a4j:form> <rich:modalPanel id="UNIQUE_ID" > <a onclick="Richfaces.hideModalPanel('UNIQUE_ID');" href="#">Hide This ModalPanel</a> <h:outputText value="#{object.details}" /> </rich:modalPanel> </a4j:form> </rich:column> </rich:dataTable> If I only had one link/modalPanel pair, this would obviously be trivial, but I don't know what to do within the scope of the <rich:dataTable />'s iteration. Also, in case it complicates things further, the page will also contain many <rich:dataTable />'s, each implementing this behavior.

  Read the article

• Defining an implementation independent version of the global object in JavaScript

  - by Aadit M Shah

  I'm trying to define the global object in JavaScript in a single line as follows: var global = this.global || this; The above statement is in the global scope. Hence in browsers the this pointer is an alias for the window object. Assuming that it's the first line of JavaScript to be executed in the context of the current web page, the value of global will always be the same as that of the this pointer or the window object. In CommonJS implementations, such as RingoJS and node.js the this pointer points to the current ModuleScope. However, we can access the global object through the property global defined on the ModuleScope. Hence we can access it via the this.global property. Hence this code snippet works in all browsers and in at least RingoJS and node.js, but I have not tested other CommomJS implementations. Thus I would like to know if this code will not yield correct results when run on any other CommonJS implementation, and if so how I may fix it. Eventually, I intend to use it in a lambda expression for my implementation independent JavaScript framework as follows (idea from jQuery): (function (global) { // javascript framework })(this.global || this);

  Read the article

• Converting TrueClass / FalseClass to integer.

  - by Nick Gorbikoff

  Hello. I'm trying to figure out if there is an easy way to do the following short of adding to_i method to TrueClass/FalseClass. Here is a dilemma: I have a boolean field in my rails app - that is obviously stored as Tinyint in mysql. However - I need to generate xml based of the data in mysql and send it to customer - there SOAP service requires the field in question to have 0 or 1 as the value of this field. So at the time of the xml generation I need to convert my False to 0 and my True to 1 ( which is how they are stored in the DB). Since True & False lack to_i method I could write some if statement that generate either 1 or 0 depending on true/false state. However I have about 10 of these indicators and creating and if/else for each is not very DRY. So what you recommend I do? Or I could add a to_i method to the True / False class. But I'm not sure where should I scope it in my rails app? Just inside this particular model or somewhere else?

  Read the article

• Correct way to generate order numbers in SQL Server

  - by Anton Gogolev

  This question certainly applies to a much broader scope, but here it is. I have a basic ecommerce app, where users can, naturally enough, place orders. Said orders need to have a unique number, which I'm trying to generate right now. Each order is Vendor-specific. Basically, I have an OrderNumberInfo (VendorID, OrderNumber) table. Now whenever a customer places an order I need to increment OrderNumber for a particuar Vendor and return that value. Naturally, I don't want other processes to interfere with me, so I need to exclusively lock this row somehow: begin tranaction declare @n int select @n = OrderNumber from OrderNumberInfo where VendorID = @vendorID update OrderNumberInfo set OrderNumber = @n + 1 where OrderNumber = @n and VendorID = @vendorID commit transaction Now, I've read about select ... with (updlock rowlock), pessimistic locking, etc., but just cannot fit all this in a coherent picture: How do these hints play with SQL Server 2008s' snapshot isolation? Do they perform row-level, page-level or even table-level locks? How does this tolerate multiple users trying to generate numbers for a single Vendor? What isolation levels are appropriate here? And generally - what is the way to do such things?

  Read the article

• How to use javascript class from within document ready

  - by Richard

  Hi, I have this countdown script wrapped as an object located in a separate file Then when I want to setup a counter, the timeout function in the countdown class can not find the object again that I have setup within the document ready. I sort of get that everything that is setup in the document ready is convined to that scope, however it is possible to call functions within other document ready´s. Does anyone has a solution on how I could setup multiple counters slash objects. Or do those basic javascript classes have to become plugins This is some sample code on how the class begins function countdown(obj) { this.obj = obj; this.Div = "clock"; this.BackColor = "white"; this.ForeColor = "black"; this.TargetDate = "12/31/2020 5:00 AM"; this.DisplayFormat = "%%D%% Days, %%H%% Hours, %%M%% Minutes, %%S%% Seconds."; this.CountActive = true; this.DisplayStr; this.Calcage = cd_Calcage; this.CountBack = cd_CountBack; this.Setup = cd_Setup; } thanks, Richard

  Read the article

• How can I build the Boost.Python example on Ubuntu 9.10?

  - by Gatlin

  I am using Ubuntu 9.10 beta, whose repositories contain boost 1.38. I would like to build the hello-world example. I followed the instructions here (http://www.boost.org/doc/libs/1%5F40%5F0/libs/python/doc/tutorial/doc/html/python/hello.html), found the example project, and issued the "bjam" command. I have installed bjam and boost-build. I get the following output: Jamroot:18: in modules.load rule python-extension unknown in module Jamfile</usr/share/doc/libboost1.38-doc/examples/libs/python/example>. /usr/share/boost-build/build/project.jam:312: in load-jamfile /usr/share/boost-build/build/project.jam:68: in load /usr/share/boost-build/build/project.jam:170: in project.find /usr/share/boost-build/build-system.jam:248: in load /usr/share/boost-build/kernel/modules.jam:261: in import /usr/share/boost-build/kernel/bootstrap.jam:132: in boost-build /usr/share/doc/libboost1.38-doc/examples/libs/python/example/boost-build.jam:7: in module scope I do not know enough about Boost (this is an exploratory exercise for myself) to understand why the python-extension macro in the included Jamroot is not valid. I am running this example from the install directory, so I have not altered the Jamroot's use-project setting. As a side question, if I were to just willy-nilly start a project in an arbitrary directory, how would I write my jamroot?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110  | Next Page >