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  • Moving to an arbitrary position in a file in Python

    - by B Rivera
    Let's say that I routinely have to work with files with an unknown, but large, number of lines. Each line contains a set of integers (space, comma, semicolon, or some non-numeric character is the delimiter) in the closed interval [0, R], where R can be arbitrarily large. The number of integers on each line can be variable. Often times I get the same number of integers on each line, but occasionally I have lines with unequal sets of numbers. Suppose I want to go to Nth line in the file and retrieve the Kth number on that line (and assume that the inputs N and K are valid --- that is, I am not worried about bad inputs). How do I go about doing this efficiently in Python 3.1.2 for Windows? I do not want to traverse the file line by line. I tried using mmap, but while poking around here on SO, I learned that that's probably not the best solution on a 32-bit build because of the 4GB limit. And in truth, I couldn't really figure out how to simply move N lines away from my current position. If I can at least just "jump" to the Nth line then I can use .split() and grab the Kth integer that way. The nuance here is that I don't just need to grab one line from the file. I will need to grab several lines: they are not necessarily all near each other, the order in which I get them matters, and the order is not always based on some deterministic function. Any ideas? I hope this is enough information. Thanks!

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  • In SQL can I return a tables with a varying number of columns

    - by Matt
    I have a somewhat more complicated scenario, but I think it should be possible. I have a large SPROC whose result is a set of characteristics for a set of persons. So the Table would look something like this: Property | Client1 Client 2 Client3 ----------------------------------------------------------- Sex | M F M Age | 67 56 67 Income | Low Mid Low It's built using cursors, iterating over different datasets. The problem I am facing is that there is a varying number of Clients and Properties, so an equally valid result over different input sets might be: Property | Client1 Client 2 ------------------------------------------- Sex | M F Age | 67 56 Weight | 122 122 The different number of properties is easy, those are just extra rows. My problem is that I need to declare a temporary table with a varying number of columns. There could be 2 clients or 100. Every client in guaranteed to have every property ultimately listed. What SQL structure would statisfy this and how can I declare it and insert things into it? I can't just flip the columns and rows either because there is a variable number of each.

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  • jQuery.ajax() + empty JSON object = parse error

    - by roosteronacid
    I get a parse error when using jQuery to load some JSON data. Here's a snippet of my code: jQuery.ajax({ dataType: "json", success: function (json) { jQuery.each(json, function () { alert(this["columnName"]); }); } }); I get no errors when parsing a non-empty JSON object. So my guess is that the problem is with my serializer. Question is: how do I format an empty JSON object which jQuery won't consider malformed? This is what I've tried so far, with no success: {[]} {[null]} {} {null} {"rows": []} {"rows": null} {"rows": {}} UPDATE: I can understand that I've been somewhat vague--let me try and clarify: Parsing of the JSON object is not the issue here--JQuery is - I think. jQuery throws a parse-error (invokes the error function). It seems like jQuery's internal JSON validation is not accepting any of the before mentioned objects. Not even the valid ones. Output of the error function is: XMLHttpRequest: XMLHttpRequest readyState=4 status=200 textStatus: parsererror errorThrown: undefined This goes for all of the before mentioned objects.

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  • ASP.NET - What is the best way to block the application usage?

    - by Tufo
    Our clients must pay a monthly Fee... if they don't, what is the best way to block the asp.net software usage? Note: The application runs on the client own server, its not a SaaS app... My ideas are: Idea: Host a Web Service on the internet that the application will use to know if the client can use the software. Issue 1 - What happen if the client internet fails? Or the data center fails? Possible Answer: Make each web service access to send a key that is valid for 7 or 15 days, so each web service consult will enable the software to run more 7 or 15 days, this way the application will only be locked after 7 or 15 days without consulting our web servicee. Issue 2 - And if the client don't have or don't want to enable internet access to the application? Idea 2: Send a key monthly to the client. Issue - How to make a offline key? Possible Answer: Generate a Hash using the "limit" date, so each login try on software will compare the today hash with the key? Issue 2 - Where to store the key? Possible Answer: Database (not good, too easy to change), text file, registry, code file, assembly... Any opinion will be very appreciated!

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  • optimizing the jquery in django

    - by sankar
    I have done the following code which actually dynamically generate the values in the third list box using ajax and jquery concepts. Thoug it works, i need to optimize it. Below is the code i am working on now. <html> <head> <title>Comparison based on ID Number</title> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-latest.js"></script> </head> <body> {% if form.errors %} <p style="color: red;"> Please correct the error{{ form.errors|pluralize }} below. </p> {% endif %} <form action="/idnumber/" method="post" align= "center">{% csrf_token %} <p>Select different id numbers and the name of the <b> Measurement Group </b>to start the comparison</p> <table align = "center"> <tr> <th><label for="id_criteria_1">Id Number 1:</label></th> <th> {{ form.idnumber_1 }} </th> </tr> <tr> <th><label for="id_criteria_2">Id Number 2:</label></th> <th> {{ form.idnumber_2 }} </th> </tr> <tr> <th><label for="group_name_list">Group Name:</label></th> <th><select name="group_name_list" id="id_group_name_list"> <option>Select</option> </select> </th> </tr> <script> $('#id_idnumber_2').change( function get_group_names() { var value1 = $('#id_idnumber_1').attr('value'); var value2 = $(this).attr('value'); alert(value1); alert(value2); var request = $.ajax({ url: "/getGroupnamesforIDnumber/", type: "GET", data: {idnumber_1 : value1,idnumber_2 : value2}, dataType: "json", success: function(data) { alert(data); var myselect = document.getElementById("group_name_list"); document.getElementById("group_name_list").options.length = 1; var length_of_data = data.length; alert(length_of_data); try{ for(var i = 0;i < length_of_data; i++) { myselect.add(new Option(data[i].group_name, "i"), myselect.options[i]) //add new option to beginning of "sample" } } catch(e){ //in IE, try the below version instead of add() for(var i = 0;i < length_of_data; i++) { myselect.add(new Option(data[i].group_name, data[i].group_name)) //add new option to end of "sample" } } } }); }); </script> <tr align = "center"><th><input type="submit" value="Submit"></th></tr> </table> </form> </body> </html> everything works fine but there is a little problem in my code. (ie) my ajax function calls only when there is a change in the select list 2 (ie) 'id_number_2'. I want to make it call in such a way that which ever select box, the third list box should be updated automatically. Can anyone please help me on this with a possible logical solution

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  • MySQL SELECT combining 3 SELECTs INTO 1

    - by Martin Tóth
    Consider following tables in MySQL database: entries: creator_id INT entry TEXT is_expired BOOL other: creator_id INT entry TEXT userdata: creator_id INT name VARCHAR etc... In entries and other, there can be multiple entries by 1 creator. userdata table is read only for me (placed in other database). I'd like to achieve a following SELECT result: +------------+---------+---------+-------+ | creator_id | entries | expired | other | +------------+---------+---------+-------+ | 10951 | 59 | 55 | 39 | | 70887 | 41 | 34 | 108 | | 88309 | 38 | 20 | 102 | | 94732 | 0 | 0 | 86 | ... where entries is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM entries GROUP BY creator_id, expired is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM entries WHERE is_expired = 0 GROUP BY creator_id and other is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM other GROUP BY creator_id. I need this structure because after doing this SELECT, I need to look for user data in the "userdata" table, which I planned to do with INNER JOIN and select desired columns. I solved this problem with selecting "NULL" into column which does not apply for given SELECT: SELECT creator_id, COUNT(any_entry) as entries, COUNT(expired_entry) as expired, COUNT(other_entry) as other FROM ( SELECT creator_id, entry AS any_entry, NULL AS expired_entry, NULL AS other_enry FROM entries UNION SELECT creator_id, NULL AS any_entry, entry AS expired_entry, NULL AS other_enry FROM entries WHERE is_expired = 1 UNION SELECT creator_id, NULL AS any_entry, NULL AS expired_entry, entry AS other_enry FROM other ) AS tTemp GROUP BY creator_id ORDER BY entries DESC, expired DESC, other DESC ; I've left out the INNER JOIN and selecting other columns from userdata table on purpose (my question being about combining 3 SELECTs into 1). Is my idea valid? = Am I trying to use the right "construction" for this? Are these kind of SELECTs possible without creating an "empty" column? (some kind of JOIN) Should I do it "outside the DB": make 3 SELECTs, make some order in it (let's say python lists/dicts) and then do the additional SELECTs for userdata? Solution for a similar question does not return rows where entries and expired are 0. Thank you for your time.

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  • Retriving data from ListView control

    - by Josh
    I have a ListView control set up in details mode with 5 columns. It is populated by code using the following subroutine: For j = 0 To 14 cmd = New OleDbCommand("SELECT TeacherName, ClassSubject, BookingDate, BookingPeriod FROM " & SchemaTable.Rows(i)!TABLE_NAME.ToString() & " WHERE (((BookingDate)=" & Chr(34) & Date.Today.AddDays(j) & Chr(34) & ") AND ((UserName)=" & Chr(34) & user & Chr(34) & "));", cn) dr = cmd.ExecuteReader Dim itm As ListViewItem Dim itms(4) As String While dr.Read() itms(0) = dr(0) itms(1) = SchemaTable.Rows(i)!TABLE_NAME.ToString() itms(2) = dr(1) itms(3) = dr(2) itms(4) = dr(3) itm = New ListViewItem(itms) Manage.ManageList.Items.Add(itm) End While Next Note that this is not the full routine, just the bit that populated the grid. Now I need to retrieve data from the ListView control in order to delete a booking in my database. I used the following code to retrieve the content of each column: ManageList.SelectedItems(0).Text But it only seems to work on index 0. If I do: ManageList.SelectedItems(3).Text I get this error: InvalidArgument=Value of '3' is not valid for 'index'. Parameter name: index I'm pretty much stumped, it seems logical to me that index 1 will point to the 2nd column, index 2 to the 3rd etc, as it's 0 based? Any help would be appreciated, thanks.

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  • Index an array expression directly in PostgreSQL

    - by wich
    I'm trying to insert data into a table from a template table. I need to rewrite one of the columns for which I wanted to use a directly indexed array expression, but I can't seem to find how to do this, if it is even possible. The scenario: create table template ( id integer, index integer, foo integer); insert into template values (0, 1, 23), (0, 2, 18), (0, 3, 16), (0, 4, 7), (1, 1, 17), (1, 2, 26), (1, 3, 11), (1, 4, 3); create table data ( data_id integer, foo integer); Now what I'd like to do is the following: insert into data select (array[3,7,5,2])[index], foo from template where id = 1; But this doesn't work, the (array[3,7,5,2])[index] syntax isn't valid. I tried a few variants, but was unable to get anything working and wasn't able to find the correct syntax in the docs, nor even whether this is at all possible or not. As a current workaround I've devised the following, but it is less than ideal, from an elegance perspective at least, but it may also be a performance hit, I haven't looked into that yet. insert into data select arr[index], foo from template, (select array[3,7,5,2] as arr) as q where id = 1; If anyone could suggest a (better) alternative to accomplish this I'd like to hear that as well.

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  • Unable to get data from a WCF client

    - by Scott
    I am developing a DLL that will provide sychronized time stamps to multiple applications running on the same machine. The timestamps are altered in a thread that uses a high performance timer and a scalar to provide the appearance of moving faster than real-time. For obvious reasons I want only 1 instance of this time library, and I thought I could use WCF for the other processes to connect to this and poll for timestamps whenever they want. When I connect however I never get a valid time stamp, just an empty DateTime. I should point out that the library does work. The original implementation was a single DLL that each application incorporated and each one was synced using windows messages. I'm fairly sure it has something to do with how I'm setting up the WCF stuff, to which I am still pretty new. Here are the contract definitions: public interface ITimerCallbacks { [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] void TimerElapsed(String id); } [ServiceContract(SessionMode = SessionMode.Required, CallbackContract = typeof(ITimerCallbacks))] public interface ISimTime { [OperationContract] DateTime GetTime(); } Here is my class definition: [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.Single)] public class SimTimeServer: ISimTime The host setup: // set up WCF interprocess comms host = new ServiceHost(typeof(SimTimeServer), new Uri[] { new Uri("net.pipe://localhost") }); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(ISimTime), new NetNamedPipeBinding(), "SimTime"); host.Open(); and the implementation of the interface function server-side: public DateTime GetTime() { if (ThreadMutex.WaitOne(20)) { RetTime = CurrentTime; ThreadMutex.ReleaseMutex(); } return RetTime; } Lastly the client-side implementation: Callbacks myCallbacks = new Callbacks(); DuplexChannelFactory pipeFactory = new DuplexChannelFactory(myCallbacks, new NetNamedPipeBinding(), new EndpointAddress("net.pipe://localhost/SimTime")); ISimTime pipeProxy = pipeFactory.CreateChannel(); while (true) { string str = Console.ReadLine(); if (str.ToLower().Contains("get")) Console.WriteLine(pipeProxy.GetTime().ToString()); else if (str.ToLower().Contains("exit")) break; }

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  • Is it a good idea to use an integer column for storing US ZIP codes in a database?

    - by Yadyn
    From first glance, it would appear I have two basic choices for storing ZIP codes in a database table: Text (probably most common), i.e. char(5) or varchar(9) to support +4 extension Numeric, i.e. 32-bit integer Both would satisfy the requirements of the data, if we assume that there are no international concerns. In the past we've generally just gone the text route, but I was wondering if anyone does the opposite? Just from brief comparison it looks like the integer method has two clear advantages: It is, by means of its nature, automatically limited to numerics only (whereas without validation the text style could store letters and such which are not, to my knowledge, ever valid in a ZIP code). This doesn't mean we could/would/should forgo validating user input as normal, though! It takes less space, being 4 bytes (which should be plenty even for 9-digit ZIP codes) instead of 5 or 9 bytes. Also, it seems like it wouldn't hurt display output much. It is trivial to slap a ToString() on a numeric value, use simple string manipulation to insert a hyphen or space or whatever for the +4 extension, and use string formatting to restore leading zeroes. Is there anything that would discourage using int as a datatype for US-only ZIP codes?

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  • Javascript XMLHttpRequest Post method

    - by user535617
    Hey So I have a question about posting using an XMLHttpRequest. In theory, if I am to post a username and password to an https domain (which I have yet to get working, unfortunately) would the responseText then change to the next website, or should the text fields become filled in? What normally happens is you navigate to this page via browser, enter a username and password, and it uses a POST method when the submit button is clicked, doing some authentication under the hood and returning a different page. I feel like maybe the responseText should even stay exactly the same (which is what happens now), but I don't know as I have no experience with this kind of thing. this.requests[1].open("POST", "https://" + this.address, true); var query = "target=%2Fcgi-bin%2FStatusConfig.cgi%3FPage%3Dindex&userfile=&username=user&password=pass&log+in=Log+in"; this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Content-length", query.length); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Keep-Alive", 115); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Connection", "keep-alive"); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Host", this.address); this.requests[1].send(query); this.requests[1].onreadystatechange = onReadyStateChange1; Then basically onReadyStateChange1 displays the responseText when ready. Any light that could be shed on what SHOULD be happening with the post and responseText would be very appreciated. As would any advice in getting the new, logged into page. For further clarification, what I'm trying to do is log in and then return the new page, because the login page displays only log in information/functionality and the page after logging in has a lot of relevant information. I'm not trying to check the credentials as much as I'm trying to get it (the script) to log in so it can access the next page. Granted, the credentials will have to be valid for that. Thanks all.

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  • Is it undefined behavior in the case of the private functions call in the initializer list?

    - by Alexey Malistov
    Consider the following code: struct Calc { Calc(const Arg1 & arg1, const Arg2 & arg2, /* */ const ArgN & argn) : arg1(arg1), arg2(arg2), /* */ argn(argn), coef1(get_coef1()), coef2(get_coef2()) { } int Calc1(); int Calc2(); int Calc3(); private: const Arg1 & arg1; const Arg2 & arg2; // ... const ArgN & argn; const int coef1; // I want to use const because const int coef2; // no modification is needed. int get_coef1() const { // calc coef1 using arg1, arg2, ..., argn; // undefined behavior? } int get_coef2() const { // calc coef2 using arg1, arg2, ..., argn and coef1; // undefined behavior? } }; struct Calc is not completely defined when I call get_coef1 and get_coef2 Is this code valid? Can I get UB?

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  • Why does GetWindowThreadProcessId return 0 when called from a service

    - by Marve
    When using the following class in a console application, and having at least one instance of Notepad running, GetWindowThreadProcessId correctly returns a non-zero thread id. However, if the same code is included in a Windows Service, GetWindowThreadProcessId always returns 0 and no exceptions are thrown. Changing the user the service launches under to be the same as the one running the console application didn't alter the result. What causes GetWindowThreadProcessId to return 0 even if it is provided with a valid hwnd? And why does it function differently in the console application and the service? Note: I am running Windows 7 32-bit and targeting .NET 3.5. public class TestClass { [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern uint GetWindowThreadProcessId(IntPtr hWnd, IntPtr ProcessId); public void AttachToNotepad() { var processesToAttachTo = Process.GetProcessesByName("Notepad") foreach (var process in processesToAttachTo) { var threadID = GetWindowThreadProcessId(process.MainWindowHandle, IntPtr.Zero); .... } } } Console Code: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var testClass = new TestClass(); testClass.AttachToNotepad(); } } Service Code: public class TestService : ServiceBase { private TestClass testClass = new TestClass(); static void Main() { ServiceBase.Run(new TestService()); } protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { testClass.AttachToNotepad(); base.OnStart(args); } protected override void OnStop() { ... } }

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  • PHP: json_decode dumping NULL, BOM not found

    - by SerEnder
    I've been trying to find out why this 'json_encode'd string isn't parsing out correctly, and came across previously answered questions that had the UTF BOM sequence that was throwing the error, but didn't help me here. Here's the code that isn't currently working: //Decode the notes attached to the sig $aNotes = json_decode($rule->getNotes(),true); $bom = pack("CCC",0xef,0xbb,0xbf); if(0 == strncmp($rule->getNotes(),$bom,3)) { print('BOM detected - json encoding in UTF-8<br/>'); } else { print('BOM NOT detected - json encoding correctly<br/>'); } print('rule->getNotes:<br/>' . $rule->getNotes() .'<br/>'); var_dump($aNotes); Which generates this result: BOM NOT detected - json encoding correctly rule->getNotes: [{"lDate":"Unknown","sAuthor":"Unknown","sNote":"This is a general purpose Russian spam rule that matches anything starting with 2, 3 or 4 hex digits followed by a domain name ending with .ru -RSK 2010-05-10"},{"lDate":"1295031463082","sAuthor":"Drew Thorstenson","sNote":"this is Ryan's ru rule"}] NULL I've run it through JSON Lint, which said it was valid, and An Online JSON Parser which parsed it correctly too. Any insight would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Cannot overload function

    - by anio
    So I've got a templatized class and I want to overload the behavior of a function when I have specific type, say char. For all other types, let them do their own thing. However, c++ won't let me overload the function. Why can't I overload this function? I really really do not want to do template specialization, because then I've got duplicate the entire class. Here is a toy example demonstrating the problem: http://codepad.org/eTgLG932 The same code posted here for your reading pleasure: #include <iostream> #include <cstdlib> #include <string> struct Bar { std::string blah() { return "blah"; } }; template <typename T> struct Foo { public: std::string doX() { return m_getY(my_t); } private: std::string m_getY(char* p_msg) { return std::string(p_msg); } std::string m_getY(T* p_msg) { return p_msg->blah(); } T my_t; }; int main(int, char**) { Foo<char> x; Foo<Bar> y; std::cout << "x " << x.doX() << std::endl; return EXIT_SUCCESS; } Thank you everyone for your suggestions. Two valid solutions have been presented. I can either specialize the doX method, or specialize m_getY() method. At the end of the day I prefer to keep my specializations private rather than public so I'm accepting Krill's answer.

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  • Facebook SSO authorize in safari but not in facebook app

    - by Pedro Calero
    My problem: I has developed an app with Facebook SSO in my iPhone/iPad. It was working OK. But I have changed the certificate of my app (so now it has new app ID). I also have changed the "iOS pack ID" property in Facebook: I deleted the old app ID and I added the new one. But now my app doesn't do the Facebook SSO when Facebook app is installed. It does it OK when Facebook app is not installed and it uses Safari. I have read this question and this question that say the problem is the "iOS pack ID" and app ID don't match. I have checked it a lot of times, and it is the same. I have put the old app ID in the "iOS pack ID" property of Facebook, but it still doesn't work. I don't know if Facebook take a time to check if my app ID is valid, and how they show the result. I have been a lot of time with this issue. It seem like the problem is the iOS pack ID is not exactly the app ID, but it is not the problem: they are exactly the same. Thank you very much.

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  • Identity.Name is disposed in a IIS7 Asp.NET MVC application Thread

    - by vIceBerg
    I have made the smallest demo project to illustrate my problem. You can download the sources Here Visual Studio 2008, .NET 3.5, IIS7, Windows 7 Ultimate 32 bits. The IIS Website is configured ONLY for Windows Authentication in an Integreated pipeline app pool (DefaultAppPool). Here's the problem. I have an Asp.NET MVC 2 application. In an action, I start a thread. The View returns. The thread is doing it's job... but it needs to access Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name BANG The worker process of IIS7 stops. I have a window that says: "Visual Studio Just-In-Time Debugger An unhandled exception ('System.Object.DisposedException') occured in w3wp.exe [5524]" I checked with the debugger and the Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity is valid, but the Name property is disposed. If I put a long wait in the action before it returns the view, then the Thread can do it's job and the Identity.Name is not disposed. So I think the Name gets disposed when the view is returned. For the sake of the discussion, here's the code that the thread runs (but you can also download the demo project. The link is on top of this post): private void Run() { const int SECTOWAIT = 3; //wait SECTOWAIT seconds long end = DateTime.Now.Ticks + (TimeSpan.TicksPerSecond * SECTOWAIT); while (DateTime.Now.Ticks <= end) continue; //Check the currentprincipal. BANG!!!!!!!!!!!!! var userName = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; } Here's the code that starts the thread public void Start() { Thread thread = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(ThreadProc)); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.MTA); thread.Name = "TestThread"; thread.Start(this); } static void ThreadProc(object o) { try { Builder builder = (Builder)o; builder.Run(); } catch (Exception ex) { throw; } } So... what am i doing wrong? Thanks

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  • Should my validator have access to my entire model?

    - by wb
    As the title states I'm wondering if it's a good idea for my validation class to have access to all properties from my model. Ideally, I would like to do that because some fields require 10+ other fields to verify whether it is valid or not. I could but would rather not have functions with 10+ parameters. Or would that make the model and validator too coupled with one another? Here is a little example of what I mean. This code however does not work because it give an infinite loop! Class User Private m_UserID Private m_Validator Public Sub Class_Initialize() End Sub Public Property Let Validator(value) Set m_Validator = value m_Validator.Initialize(Me) End Property Public Property Get Validator() Validator = m_Validator End Property Public Property Let UserID(value) m_UserID = value End property Public Property Get UserID() UserID = m_Validator.IsUserIDValid() End property End Class Class Validator Private m_User Public Sub Class_Initialize() End Sub Public Sub Initialize(value) Set m_User = value End Sub Public Function IsUserIDValid() IsUserIDValid = m_User.UserID > 13 End Function End Class Dim mike : Set mike = New User mike.UserID = 123456 mike.Validator = New Validator Response.Write mike.UserID If I'm right and it is a good idea, how can I go a head and fix the infinite loop with the get property UserID? Thank you.

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  • What's wrong with this jQuery? It isn't working as intended

    - by Doug Smith
    Using cookies, I want it to remember the colour layout of the page. (So, if they set the gallery one color and the body background another color, it will save that on refresh. But it doesn't seem to be working. jQuery: $(document).ready(function() { if (verifier == 1) { $('body').css('background', $.cookie('test_cookie')); } if (verifier == 2) { $('#gallery').css('background', $.cookie('test_cookie')); } if (verifier == 3) { $('body').css('background', $.cookie('test_cookie')); $('#gallery').css('background', $.cookie('test_cookie')); } $('#set_cookie').click(function() { var color = $('#set_cookie').val(); $.cookie('test_cookie', color); }); $('#set_page').click(function() { $('body').css('background', $.cookie('test_cookie')); var verifier = 1; }); $('#set_gallery').click(function() { $('#gallery').css('background', $.cookie('test_cookie')); var verifier = 2; }); $('#set_both').click(function() { $('body').css('background', $.cookie('test_cookie')); $('#gallery').css('background', $.cookie('test_cookie')); var verifier = 3; }); }); HTML: <p>Please select a background color for either the page's background, the gallery's background, or both.</p> <select id="set_cookie"> <option value="#1d375a" selected="selected">Default</option> <option value="black">Black</option> <option value="blue">Blue</option> <option value="brown">Brown</option> <option value="darkblue">Dark Blue</option> <option value="darkgreen">Dark Green</option> <option value="darkred">Dark Red</option> <option value="fuchsia">Fuchsia</option> <option value="green">Green</option> <option value="grey">Grey</option> <option value="#d3d3d3">Light Grey</option> <option value="#32cd32">Lime Green</option> <option value="#f8b040">Macaroni</option> <option value="#ff7300">Orange</option> <option value="pink">Pink</option> <option value="purple">Purple</option> <option value="red">Red</option> <option value="#0fcce0">Turquoise</option> <option value="white">White</option> <option value="yellow">Yellow</option> </select> <input type="button" id="set_page" value="Page's Background" /><input type="button" id="set_gallery" value="Gallery's Background" /><input type="button" id="set_both" value="Both" /> </div> </div> </body> </html> Thanks so much for the help, I appreciate it. jsFiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/hL6Ye/

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  • Why is parsing a jSON response to a jQUERY ajax request not working

    - by Ankur
    I know there are several similar questions on SO, I have used some of them to get this far. I am trying to list a set of urls that match my input values. I have a servlet which takes some input e.g. "aus" in the example below and returns some output using out.print() e.g. the two urls I have shown below. EXAMPLE Input: "aus" Output: [{"url":"http://dbpedia.org/resource/Stifel_Nicolaus"},{"url":"http://sempedia.org/ontology/object/Australia"}] Which is exactly what I want. I have seen that firebug doesn't seem to have anything in the response section despite having called out.print(jsonString); and it seems that out.print(jsonString); is working as expected which suggests that the variable 'jsonString' contains the expected values. However I am not exactly sure what is wrong. -------- The jQuery --------- $(document).ready(function() { $("#input").keyup(function() { var input = $("#input").val(); //$("#output").html(input); ajaxCall(input); }); }); function ajaxCall(input) { // alert(input); $.ajax({ url: "InstantSearchServlet", data: "property="+input, beforeSend: function(x) { if(x && x.overrideMimeType) { x.overrideMimeType("application/j-son;charset=UTF-8"); } }, dataType: "json", success: function(data) { for (var i = 0, len = datalength; i < len; ++i) { var urlData = data[i]; $("#output").html(urlData.url); } } }); } ------ The Servlet that calls the DAO class - and returns the results ------- public class InstantSearchServlet extends HttpServlet{ private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; public void doGet(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws IOException, ServletException { System.out.println("You called?"); response.setContentType("application/json"); PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); InstantSearch is = new InstantSearch(); String input = (String)request.getParameter("property"); System.out.println(input); try { ArrayList<String> urllist; urllist = is.getUrls(input); String jsonString = convertToJSON(urllist); out.print(jsonString); System.out.println(jsonString); } catch (SQLException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } private String convertToJSON(ArrayList<String> urllist) { Iterator<String> itr = urllist.iterator(); JSONArray jArray = new JSONArray(); int i = 0; while (itr.hasNext()) { i++; JSONObject json = new JSONObject(); String url = itr.next(); try { json.put("url",url); } catch (JSONException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } jArray.put(json); } String results = jArray.toString(); return results; } }

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  • Should I close sockets from both ends?

    - by Roman
    I have the following problem. My client program monitor for availability of server in the local network (using Bonjour, but it does not rally mater). As soon as a server is "noticed" by the client application, the client tries to create a socket: Socket(serverIP,serverPort);. At some point the client can loose the server (Bonjour says that server is not visible in the network anymore). So, the client decide to close the socket, because it is not valid anymore. At some moment the server appears again. So, the client tries to create a new socket associated with this server. But! The server can refuse to create this socket since it (server) has already a socket associated with the client IP and client port. It happens because the socket was closed by the client, not by the server. Can it happen? And if it is the case, how this problem can be solved? Well, I understand that it is unlikely that the client will try to connect to the server from the same port (client port), since client selects its ports randomly. But it still can happen (just by chance). Right?

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  • How to use dirent.h correctly.

    - by Nick
    Hello, I am new to C++ and I am experimenting with the dirent.h header to manipulate directory entries. The following little app compiles but pukes after you supple a directory name. Can someone give me a hint? The int quit is there to provide a while loop. I removed the loop in an attempt to isolate my problem. thanks! #include <iostream> #include <dirent.h> using namespace std; int main() { char *dirname = 0; DIR *pd = 0; struct dirent *pdirent = 0; int quit = 1; cout<< "Enter a directory path to open (leave blank to quit):\n"; cin >> dirname; if(dirname == NULL) { quit = 0; } pd = opendir(dirname); if(pd == NULL) { cout << "ERROR: Please provide a valid directory path.\n"; } return 0; }

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  • Creating an element and insertBefore is not working...

    - by sologhost
    Ok, I've been banging my head up against the wall on this and I have no clue why it isn't creating the element. Maybe something very small that I overlooked here. Basically, there is this Javascript code that is in a PHP document being outputted, like somewhere in the middle of when the page gets loaded, NOW, unfortunately it can't go into the header. Though I'm not sure that that is the problem anyways, but perhaps it is... hmmmmm. // Setting the variables needed to be set. echo ' <script type="text/javascript" src="' . $settings['default_theme_url'] . '/scripts/dpShoutbox.js"></script>'; echo ' <script type="text/javascript"> var refreshRate = ', $params['refresh_rate'], '; createEventListener(window); window.addEventListener("load", loadShouts, false); function loadShouts() { var alldivs = document.getElementsByTagName(\'div\'); var shoutCount = 0; var divName = "undefined"; for (var i = 0; i<alldivs.length; i++) { var is_counted = 0; divName = alldivs[i].getAttribute(\'name\'); if (divName.indexOf(\'dp_Reserved_Shoutbox\') < 0 && divName.indexOf(\'dp_Reserved_Counted\') < 0) continue; else if(divName == "undefined") continue; else { if (divName.indexOf(\'dp_Reserved_Counted\') == 0) { is_counted = 0; shoutCount++; continue; } else { shoutCount++; is_counted = 1; } } // Empty out the name attr. alldivs[i].name = \'dp_Reserved_Counted\'; var shoutId = \'shoutbox_area\' + shoutCount; // Build the div to be inserted. var shoutHolder = document.createElement(\'div\'); shoutHolder.setAttribute(\'id\', [shoutId]); shoutHolder.setAttribute(\'class\', \'dp_control_flow\'); shoutHolder.style.cssText = \'padding-right: 6px;\'; alldivs[i].parentNode.insertBefore(shoutHolder, alldivs[i]); if (is_counted == 1) { startShouts(refreshRate, shoutId); break; } } } </script>'; Also, I'm sure the other functions that I'm linking to within these functions work just fine. The problem here is that within this function, the div never gets created at all and I can't understand why? Furthermore Firefox, FireBug is telling me that the variable divName is undefined, even though I have attempted to take care of this within the function, though not sure why. Anyways, I need the created div element to be inserted just before the following HTML: echo ' <div name="dp_Reserved_Shoutbox" style="padding-bottom: 9px;"></div>'; I'm using name here instead of id because I don't want duplicate id values which is why I'm changing the name value and incrementing, since this function may be called more than 1 time. For example if there are 3 shoutboxes on the same page (Don't ask why...lol), I need to skip the other names that I already changed to "dp_Reserved_Counted", which I believe I am doing correctly. In any case, if I could I would place this into the header and have it called just once, but this isn't possible as these are loaded and no way of telling which one's they are, so it's directly hard-coded into the actual output on the page of where the shoutbox is within the HTML. Basically, not sure if that is the problem or not, but there must be some sort of work-around, unless the problem is within my code above... arrg Please help me. Thanks :)

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  • jQuery pop up problems

    - by user327137
    Hi all, I am creating a site from a template i purchased from TM for a beauty salon! I want to create an online booking form with the validations of name number service type but i'm having trouble getting a link to open that will pop up also using jquery NOT html how do i fix this... what is the code i have to insert so that when you click "BOOK NOW" a jquery pop up appears in the centre of the page and it has a booking form on it.... i have googled and googled but it is all new to me as in a NOOB at jquery.... here is a live demo of the template (template link for demo http://osc4.template-help.com/wt_31562/index.html#) and here is the code for where i am trying to place a pop up jquery <dt class="dt3"><a href="#"></a><img src="images/shadow.png" alt="" class="shadow"></dt> <dd id="page3"> <div class="inner"> <div class="content"> <section class="col-1"> <h2>our services</h2> <p>Vintage Beauty</p> <p class="dark">We offer Free Consultation for Botox, Fillers, Medical Skin Peels, Cosmetic Surgery <br> & also specialise n body and skin care. </p> <img src="images/page2-img1.png" alt="" class="p2"> <a href="#" class="more">view more</a> </section> <section class="col-2"> <h2>services</h2> <ul class="list p2"> <li><a href="#">Fish Pedicures</a></li> <li><a href="#">Manicures</a></li> <li><a href="#">Pedicures</a></li> <li><a href="#">Waxing</a></li> <li><a href="#">Threading</a></li> <li><a href="#">Tanning</a></li> <li><a href="#">Body Massage</a></li> <li><a href="#">Nail/Eye Extensions</a></li> <li><a href="#">Eye Lash/Brow Tinting</a></li> <li><a href="#">Twinkle Toes</a></li> <li><a href="#">Teeth Whitening Kits</a></li> <li><a href="#">Hot Wax Specialists</a></li> </ul> **<a href="#" class="more">BOOK ONLINE NOW</a> </section>** </div> </div> </dd>

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  • Folder permission and submit button

    - by bob
    I want to create a simple installation script. Below are simple code. <ul> <?php function check_perms($path,$perm) { clearstatcache(); $configmod = substr(sprintf('%o', fileperms($path)), -4); $css = (($configmod != $perm) ? " class='error r2'" : " class='none'"); echo "<li".$css.">\n"; echo '<span style="float:left; padding-right:20px;">'.$path.'</span>'; echo '<span style="float:right; width:100px; text-align:right;"> <strong>'.$perm.'</strong></span>'; echo '<span style="float:right; padding-right:100px;"><strong>'.$configmod.'</strong></span>'; echo '<div class="clear"></div>'; echo "</li>"; } check_perms("config.php","0777"); check_perms("themes","0777"); check_perms("themes/images","0777"); check_perms("useruploads","0777"); ?> </ul> How to make if all file and folder is valid permission to 777 will appear Submit button. <input type='submit' name='submit' value='Submit' /> If there still have incorrect permission do not show the Submit button Let me know.

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