Search Results

Search found 34826 results on 1394 pages for 'valid html'.

Page 1037/1394 | < Previous Page | 1033 1034 1035 1036 1037 1038 1039 1040 1041 1042 1043 1044  | Next Page >

• File Enumeration with ANT

  - by 1ndivisible

  I feel like I'm missing something obvious at the moment. I want to collect a set of dirs / files together in ANT. I know I can do it using a fileset with an optional patternset inside it, but that involves searching for files based a specific criterior - filetype, name etc. I already know the paths to the files I want to collect. I have n properties which reference these paths. I want a way to collect these paths in a fileset, though I cannot find a way to do it. This represents what I want to achieve (I know it isn't valid code, but hopefully it will describe what I mean): <fileset> <path>${src.dir}</path> <path>${test.dir}</path> <path>${third.party.src.dir}</path> <path>${bin.dir}</path> <path>${docs.build.txt}</path> </fileset>

  Read the article

• How to solve the problem of not being informed of successful payments by the 3rd party system used b

  - by user68759

  I have a subscription based website that interacts with a 3rd party system to handle the payments. The steps to process a new subscriber registration are as follow: The subscriber enters his/her details in the subscription form and click on the submit button. Assuming the details specified are valid, a new record is created in the database to store these details. The subscriber is then redirected to the website of the 3rd party system (similar to paypal) to process the payment. Once the payment is succesful, the 3rd party website then redirect the subscriber back to our website. At this time, I know that the payment was succesful, so the record in the database is updated to indicate that payment has been made successfully. A problem that I have found occurring quite often is that if a subscriber pays but does not complete the process correctly (e.g. uses the back browser, closes the window), his/her record in the database doesn't get updated about this. Accordingly, I don't know if s/he has paid by just looking the record and need to wait for the report from the 3rd party system to find this out. How do you solve this problem? PS. One of the main reasons to store their details into the database before the payment process is done is so they can come back to complete the payment without re-entering their details again. For example, when their credit cards were rejected by the 3rd party system and they need to sort this out with their financial institution which may take a while.

  Read the article

• php sessions in database only writing part of information to the table...

  - by Ronedog

  I'm having difficulty figuring out what's going on here, hoping some one can help me out. I have been using php, mysql storing my session information in the database. The app is only running on localhost, vista. In the php.ini file I commented out the "session.save_handler = files" line and am using a php class to handle the session writes/reads, etc. My login process is this: Submit login credentials via login.php. login.php calls loginprocess.php. loginprocess.php verifies user, and if valid starts a new session and adds data to the session vars, then it redirects to index.php. Here's the problem. the loginprocess.php page has a bunch of session vars that get set like $_SESSION['account_id'] = $account_id; etc. but when I go to index.php and do a var_dump($_SESSION) it just says "array() empty". However, if I do a var_dump($_SESSION) in loginprocess.php, just before the redirection line header("Location: ../index.php"); then it shows all the data in the session variable. If I look in the database where the session information is stored, there is data in the session_id field, created_ts field, and expires field, but the session_data field has nothing inside of it and in the past this is the field where all my session data was stored. How could I be able to var_dump the session in loginprocess.php, but the data not exist in the db table, is it using some kind of caching? I cleared my cookies, etc...but no change. Why is the session_id, being written to the table, but the actual session data is not? Any ideas are appreciated. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Selective JQuery validation

  - by TenaciousImpy

  Hi, I'm using JQuery Validation to validate a particular textbox in my form. The textbox is an optional website section, which uses the url validation method. This works fine and validates accordingly. I would like to have http:// preset into the textbox, to save the user having to type it. However, when the text is set, the validator becomes 'active', and prevents anything on the form being submitted until either the http:// is manually removed, or a valid website is entered. Is there a way of preseting text into the textbox, which won't cause the validator to start validating? I tried to use $("[id$='tbWebsite']").val("http://"); just before I call form.validate(), but it doesn't work (i.e. it still gets checked). I've never used JQuery Validator before, so hopefully there's a fix for this that I'm missing! An alternate solution for my case in particular, could be to activate the validator if a certain button is pressed (instead of any button on the form). Would that be possible? Thanks

  Read the article

• php XML DOM translates special chars to &#xYY;

  - by ZiTAL

  I send this with AJAX POST: <li><ul class "zone zCentral ui-sortable"><li><ul class="region rCol3 ui-sortable"><li class="" style=""><div><span class="tc tc_video">574081</span> <span>video: 'Mundo.Hoy': ¿Dónde habré olvidado... mi memoria?</span></div></li></ul></li></ul></li> I do this to create XML: header('Content-type: text/html; charset=utf-8'); if(isset($_POST) && isset($_POST['data'])) { $data = '<ul id="zone_container" class="ui-sortable">'; $data .= $_POST['data']; $data .= '</ul>'; $dom = new DOMDocument('1.0', 'utf-8'); $dom->loadXML($data); echo $dom->saveXML(); exit(); } and i get this: <?xml version="1.0"?> <ul id="zone_container" class="ui-sortable"> <li><ul class="zone zCentral ui-sortable"><li><ul class="region rCol3 ui-sortable"><li class="" style=""><div><span class="tc tc_video">574081</span> <span>video: 'Mundo.Hoy': &#xBF;D&#xF3;nde habr&#xE9; olvidado... mi memoria?</span></div> </li></ul></li></ul></li></ul> ¿Dónde habré olvidado... mi memoria? translates to: &#xBF;D&#xF3;nde habr&#xE9 ; olvidado... mi memoria? Y need original chars in the XML, these are utf-8 valid i don't know the reason for this encode :(

  Read the article

• converting a timestring to a duration

  - by radman

  Hi, At the moment I am trying to read in a timestring formatted and create a duration from that. I am currently trying to use the boost date_time time_duration class to read and store the value. boost date_time provides a method time_duration duration_from_string(std::string) that allows a time_duration to be created from a time string and it accepts strings formatted appropriately ("[-]h[h][:mm][:ss][.fff]".). Now this method works fine if you use a correctly formatted time string. However if you submit something invalid like "ham_sandwich" or "100" then you will still be returned a time_duration that is not valid. Specifically if you try to pass it to a standard output stream then an assertion will occur. My question is: Does anyone know how to test the validity of the boost time_duration? and failing that can you suggest another method of reading a timestring and getting a duration from it? Note: I have tried the obvious testing methods that time_duration provides; is_not_a_date_time(), is_special() etc and they don't pick up that there is an issue. Using boost 1.38.0

  Read the article

• Is there a good way to execute MySQL statements atomically via JDBC?

  - by javanix

  Suppose I have a table that contains valid data. I would like to modify this data in some way, but I'd like to make sure that if any errors occur with the modification, the table isn't changed and the method returns something to that effect. For instance, (this is kind of a dumb example, but it illustrates the point so bear with me) suppose I want to edit all the entries in a "name" column so that they are properly capitalized. For some reason, I want either ALL of the names to have proper capitalization, or NONE of them to have proper capitalization (and the starting state of the table is that NONE of them do). Is there an already-implemented way to run a batch update on the table and be assured that, if any one of the updates fails, all changes are rolled back and the table remains unchanged? I can think of a few ways to do this by hand (though suggestions are welcomed), but it'd be nice if there was some method I could use that would function this way. I looked at the java.sql.statement.executeBatch() command, but I'm not convinced by the documentation that my table wouldn't be changed if it failed in some manner.

  Read the article

• regular expression for indian vehicle number in javascript and php

  - by I Like PHP

  i need regular expression in java script as well as in PHP for Indian vehicle NUMBER here are conditions list let expression is (x)(y)(z)(m)(a)(b)(c) 1. (x) contains only alphabets of length 2. 2. (y) may be - or single space ' ' 3. (z) contains only numbers of length 2 4. (m) may be or , or single space ' ' 5. length of (a) can be 2 or 3. contains alphanumeric value with minimum one alphabetic character. 6. (b) may be - or single space ' ' ( similar to (y) ) 7. (c) contains only numbers of length 4 i show you the various examples of vehicle number valid number RJ-14,NL-1234 RJ-01,4M-5874 RJ-07,14M-2345 RJ 07,3M 2345 RJ-07,3M-8888 RJ 07 4M 2345 RJ 07,4M 2933 invalid number RJ-07 3M 1234 ( both (y) and (b) should be same). RJ-07 M3-1234 ((a) must ends with alphabat). rj-07 M3-123 ( length of (c) must be 4).

  Read the article

• Get Json and output to text file undecoded

  - by Gary

  Hi, I want to fetch json script and write it to a txt file undecoded, exactly how it was originally. I do have a script that I use that I am modifying but unsure what to commands to use. This script decodes, which is what I want to advoid. //Get Age list($bstat,$bage,$bdata) = explode("\t",check_file('./advise/roadsnow.txt',60*2+15)); //Test Age if ( $bage > $CacheMaxAge ) { //echo "The if statement evaluated to true so get new file and reset $bage"; $bage="0"; $file = file_get_contents('http://somesite.jsontxt'); $out = (json_decode($file)); $report = wordwrap($out->mainText, 100, "\n"); //$valid = $out->validTo; //write the data to a text file called roadsnow.txt $myFile = "./advise/roadsnow.txt"; $fh = fopen($myFile, 'w') or die("can't open file"); $stringData = $report; fwrite($fh, $stringData); } else { //echo the test evaluated to false; file is not stale so read local cache //print "we are at the read local cache"; $stringData = file_get_contents("./advise/roadsnow.txt"); } // if/else is done carry on with processing //Format file $data = $stringData

  Read the article

• django: How to make one form from multiple models containing foreignkeys

  - by Tim

  I am trying to make a form on one page that uses multiple models. The models reference each other. I am having trouble getting the form to validate because I cant figure out how to get the id of two of the models used in the form into the form to validate it. I used a hidden key in the template but I cant figure out how to make it work in the views My code is below: views: def the_view(request, a_id,): if request.method == 'POST': b_form= BForm(request.POST) c_form =CForm(request.POST) print "post" if b_form.is_valid() and c_form.is_valid(): print "valid" b_form.save() c_form.save() return HttpResponseRedirect(reverse('myproj.pro.views.this_page')) else: b_form= BForm() c_form = CForm() b_ide = B.objects.get(pk=request.b_id) id_of_a = A.objects.get(pk=a_id) return render_to_response('myproj/a/c.html', {'b_form':b_form, 'c_form':c_form, 'id_of_a':id_of_a, 'b_id':b_ide }) models class A(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=256, null=True, blank=True) classe = models.CharField(max_length=256, null=True, blank=True) def __str__(self): return self.name class B(models.Model): aid = models.ForeignKey(A, null=True, blank=True) number = models.IntegerField(max_length=1000) other_number = models.IntegerField(max_length=1000) class C(models.Model): bid = models.ForeignKey(B, null=False, blank=False) field_name = models.CharField(max_length=15) field_value = models.CharField(max_length=256, null=True, blank=True) forms from mappamundi.mappa.models import A, B, C class BForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = B exclude = ('aid',) class CForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = C exclude = ('bid',) B has a foreign key reference to A, C has a foreign key reference to B. Since the models are related, I want to have the forms for them on one page, 1 submit button. Since I need to fill out fields for the forms for B and C & I dont want to select the id of B from a drop down list, I need to somehow get the id of the B form into the form so it will validate. I have a hidden field in the template, I just need to figure how to do it in the views

  Read the article

• jQuery Form Validation being bypassed

  - by user1953681

  Can someone tell me what is wrong with my jQuery validation? It is not validating my form, rather, just ignoring the code resulting in no check of the inputs. Form: <form class="form" accept-charset="UTF-8" action="URL-to-complete-form" method="POST" onsubmit="return validateForm();"> <input class="form-name" type="text" placeholder="Name"></div> <input class="form-email" type="text"placeholder="Email"></div> <input style="background-color: #fc8f12;" type="submit" value="Subscribe"> </div> </form> Javascript: function validateForm() { // Validate Name var title = $(".form-name").val(); if (title=="" ||title=="Name" || title==null) { } else { alert("Please enter a name!"); } // Validate Email var email = $(".form-email").val(); if ((/(.+)@(.+){2,}\.(.+){2,}/.test(email)) || email=="" || email=="Email" || email==null) { } else { alert("Please enter a valid email"); } return false; } Thank you all for your time and help.

  Read the article

• JAXB, how to marshal without a namespace

  - by Alvin

  I have a fairly large repetitive XML to create using JAXB. Storing the whole object in the memory then do the marshaling takes too much memory. Essentially, my XML looks like this: <Store> <item /> <item /> <item /> ..... </Store> Currently my solution to the problem is to "hard code" the root tag to an output stream, and marshal each of the repetitive element one by one: aOutputStream.write("<?xml version="1.0"?>") aOutputStream.write("<Store>") foreach items as item aMarshaller.marshall(item, aOutputStream) end aOutputStream.write("</Store>") aOutputStream.close() Somehow the JAXB generate the XML like this <Store xmlns="http://stackoverflow.com"> <item xmlns="http://stackoverflow.com"/> <item xmlns="http://stackoverflow.com"/> <item xmlns="http://stackoverflow.com"/> ..... </Store> Although this is a valid XML, but it just look ugly, so I'm wonder is there any way to tell the marshaller not to put namespace for the item elements? Or is there better way to use JAXB to serialize to XML chunk by chunk?

  Read the article

• Clear float issue

  - by Jason

  I have a page with the standard navigation bar on the left and the content area taking up the rest of the horizontal area to its side. For modern browsers I am using table-row and table-cell values for the display attribute. However, for IE7 I included a conditional stylesheet that tries to float the nav bar. This works fine except when the content area itself has floated elements and I try to use clear. My goal is to displayed the clear element right after the content area floats but instead it gets shoved down below the nav area. The following demo code shows this issue. My goal is to get the table to display right below the "leftThing" and "rightThing" but instead there is a large gap between them and the table. <html> <head> <title>Float Test</title> <style type="text/css"> #body { background: #cecece; } #sidebar { background: #ababab; float: left; width: 200px; } #content { background: #efefef; margin-left: 215px; } #leftThing { background: #456789; float: left; width: 100px; } #rightThing { background: #654321; float: right; width: 100px; } table { clear: both; } </style> </head> <body> <div id="body"> <div id="sidebar"> <ul> <li>One</li> <li>Two</li> <li>Three</li> </ul> </div> <div id="content"> <div style="position: realtive;"> <div id="leftThing"> ABCDEF </div> <div id="rightThing"> WXYZ </div> <table> <thead> <th>One</th> <th>Two</th> </thead> <tr> <td>Jason</td> <td>45</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Mary</td> <td>41</td> </tr> </table> <p>Exerci ullamcorper consequat duis ipsum ut nostrud zzril, feugait feugiat duis dolor feugiat commodo, accumsan, duis illum eum molestie luptatum nisl iusto. Commodo minim ullamcorper blandit, nostrud feugiat blandit esse dolore, consequat vulputate augue sit ad. Facilisi feugait luptatum eu minim wisi, facilisis molestie wisi in in amet vero quis.</p> </div> </div> </div> </body> </html> Thank you for your help.

  Read the article

• verifying the signature of x509

  - by sid

  Hi All, While verifying the certificate I am getting EVP_F_EVP_PKEY_GET1_DH My Aim - Verify the certificate signature. I am having 2 certificates : 1. a CA certificate 2. certificate issued by CA. I extracted the 'RSA Public Key (key)' Modulus From CA Certificate using, pPublicKey = X509_get_pubkey(x509); buf_len = (size_t) BN_num_bytes (bn); key = (unsigned char *)malloc (buf_len); n = BN_bn2bin (bn, (unsigned char *) key); if (n != buf_len) LOG(ERROR," : key error\n"); if (key[0] & 0x80) LOG(DEBUG, "00\n"); Now, I have CA public key & CA key length and also having certificate issued by CA in buffer, buffer length & public key. To verify the signature, I have following code int iRet1, iRet2, iRet3, iReason; iRet1 = EVP_VerifyInit(&md_ctx, EVP_sha1()); iRet2 = EVP_VerifyUpdate(&md_ctx, buf, buflen); iRet3 = EVP_VerifyFinal(&md_ctx, (const unsigned char *)CAkey, CAkeyLen, pubkey); iReason = ERR_get_error(); if(ERR_GET_REASON(iReason) == EVP_F_EVP_PKEY_GET1_DH) { LOG(ERROR, "EVP_F_EVP_PKEY_GET1_DH\n"); } LOG(INFO,"EVP_VerifyInit returned %d : EVP_VerifyUpdate returned %d : EVP_VerifyFinal = %d \n", iRet1, iRet2, iRet3); EVP_MD_CTX_cleanup(&md_ctx); EVP_PKEY_free(pubkey); if (iRet3 != 1) { LOG(ERROR,"EVP_VerifyFinal() failed\n"); ret = -1; } LOG(INFO,"signature is valid\n"); I am unable to figure out What might went wrong??? Please if anybody faced same issues? What EVP_F_EVP_PKEY_GET1_DH Error means? Thanks in Advance - opensid

  Read the article

• Incorrect syntax inserting data into table

  - by SelectDistinct

  I am having some trouble with my update() method. The idea is that the user Provides a recipe name, ingredients, instructions and then selects an image using Filestream. Once the user clicks 'Add Recipe' this will call the update method, however as things stand I am getting an error which is mentioning the contents of the text box: Here is the update() method code: private void updatedata() { // filesteam object to read the image // full length of image to a byte array try { // try to see if the image has a valid path if (imagename != "") { FileStream fs; fs = new FileStream(@imagename, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read); // a byte array to read the image byte[] picbyte = new byte[fs.Length]; fs.Read(picbyte, 0, System.Convert.ToInt32(fs.Length)); fs.Close(); //open the database using odp.net and insert the lines string connstr = @"Server=mypcname\SQLEXPRESS;Database=RecipeOrganiser;Trusted_Connection=True"; SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(connstr); conn.Open(); string query; query = "insert into Recipes(RecipeName,RecipeImage,RecipeIngredients,RecipeInstructions) values (" + textBox1.Text + "," + " @pic" + "," + textBox2.Text + "," + textBox3.Text + ")"; SqlParameter picparameter = new SqlParameter(); picparameter.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.Image; picparameter.ParameterName = "pic"; picparameter.Value = picbyte; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(query, conn); cmd.Parameters.Add(picparameter); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); MessageBox.Show("Image successfully saved"); cmd.Dispose(); conn.Close(); conn.Dispose(); Connection(); } } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); } } Can anyone see where I have gone wrong with the insert into Recipes query or suggest an alternative approach to this part of the code?

  Read the article

• small code redundancy within while-loops (doesn't feel clean)

  - by wallacoloo

  So, in Python (though I think it can be applied to many languages), I find myself with something like this quite often: the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") while the_input != "quit": print the_input the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") Maybe I'm being too picky, but I don't like how the line the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") has to get repeated. It decreases maintainability and organization. But I don't see any workarounds for avoiding the duplicate code without further decreasing the problem. In some languages, I could write something like this: while ((the_input=raw_input("what to print?\n")) != "quit") { print the_input } This is definitely not Pythonic, and Python doesn't even allow for assignment within loop conditions AFAIK. This valid code fixes the redundancy, while 1: the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") if the_input == "quit": break print the_input But doesn't feel quite right either. The while 1 implies that this loop will run forever; I'm using a loop, but giving it a fake condition and putting the real one inside it. Am I being too picky? Is there a better way to do this? Perhaps there's some language construct designed for this that I don't know of?

  Read the article

• How to make a request from an android app that can enter a Spring Security secured webservice method

  - by johnrock

  I have a Spring Security (form based authentication) web app running CXF JAX-RS webservices and I am trying to connect to this webservice from an Android app that can be authenticated on a per user basis. Currently, when I add an @Secured annotation to my webservice method all requests to this method are denied. I have tried to pass in credentials of a valid user/password (that currently exists in the Spring Security based web app and can log in to the web app successfully) from the android call but the request still fails to enter this method when the @Secured annotation is present. The SecurityContext parameter returns null when calling getUserPrincipal(). How can I make a request from an android app that can enter a Spring Security secured webservice method? Here is the code I am working with at the moment: Android call: httpclient.getCredentialsProvider().setCredentials( //new AuthScope("192.168.1.101", 80), new AuthScope(null, -1), new UsernamePasswordCredentials("joeuser", "mypassword")); String userAgent = "Android/" + getVersion(); HttpGet httpget = new HttpGet(MY_URI); httpget.setHeader("User-Agent", userAgent); httpget.setHeader("Content-Type", "application/xml"); HttpResponse response; try { response = httpclient.execute(httpget); HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); ... parse xml Webservice Method: @GET @Path("/payload") @Produces("application/XML") @Secured({"ROLE_USER","ROLE_ADMIN","ROLE_GUEST"}) public Response makePayload(@Context Request request, @Context SecurityContext securityContext){ Payload payload = new Payload(); payload.setUsersOnline(new Long(200)); if (payload == null) { return Response.noContent().build(); } else{ return Response.ok().entity(payload).build(); } }

  Read the article

• Is the following C code safe?

  - by lali

  #include<cstdio> #include<stdlib.h> int main() { char* ptr=NULL; printf("%s",ptr); return 0; } It prints (null) as output. The above is a sample code. In real code i get char* as a return of a function and i wish to print the character string for logging. However, NULL is also a valid return value of that function and so i am wondering if a null check is required before printing the character string? char* ptr=someFuncion(); // do i need the following if statement? if(ptr!=NULL) { printf("%s",ptr); } I just want to be sure that the output would be same i.e if ptr=NULL then output should be (null) on all platforms and compilers and the above code(without if statement) would not crash on any C standard compatible platform. In short, is the above code(without the if statement) standard compatible? Thanks for your help and patience :) Regards lali

  Read the article

• How to perform Rails model validation checks within model but outside of filters using ledermann-rails-settings and extensions

  - by user1277160

  Background I'm using ledermann-rails-settings (https://github.com/ledermann/rails-settings) on a Rails 2/3 project to extend virtually the model with certain attributes that don't necessarily need to be placed into the DB in a wide table and it's working out swimmingly for our needs. An additional reason I chose this Gem is because of the post How to create a form for the rails-settings plugin which ties ledermann-rails-settings more closely to the model for the purpose of clean form_for usage for administrator GUI support. It's a perfect solution for addressing form_for support although... Something that I'm running into now though is properly validating the dynamic getters/setters before being passed to the ledermann-rails-settings module. At the moment they are saved immediately, regardless if the model validation has actually fired - I can see through script/console that validation errors are being raised. Example For instance I would like to validate that the attribute :foo is within the range of 0..100 for decimal usage (or even a regex). I've found that with the previous post that I can use standard Rails validators (surprise, surprise) but I want to halt on actually saving any values until those are addressed - ensure that the user of the GUI has given 61.43 as a numerical value. The following code has been borrowed from the quoted post. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_settings validates_inclusion_of :foo, :in => 0..100 def self.settings_attr_accessor(*args) >>SOME SORT OF UNLESS MODEL.VALID? CHECK HERE args.each do |method_name| eval " def #{method_name} self.settings.send(:#{method_name}) end def #{method_name}=(value) self.settings.send(:#{method_name}=, value) end " end >>END UNLESS end settings_attr_accessor :foo end Anyone have any thoughts here on pulling the state of the model at this point outside of having to put this into a before filter? The goal here is to be able to use the standard validations and avoid rolling custom validation checks for each new settings_attr_accessor that is added. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Calculating a total cost in Python

  - by Sérgio Lourenço

  I'm trying to create a trip planner in python, but after I defined all the functions I'm not able to call and calculate them in the last function tripCost(). In tripCost, I want to put the days and travel destination (city) and the program runs the functions and gives me the exact result of all the 3 functions previously defined. Code: def hotelCost(): days = raw_input ("How many nights will you stay at the hotel?") total = 140 * int(days) print "The total cost is",total,"dollars" def planeRideCost(): city = raw_input ("Wich city will you travel to\n") if city == 'Charlotte': return "The cost is 183$" elif city == 'Tampa': return "The cost is 220$" elif city == 'Pittsburgh': return "The cost is 222$" elif city == 'Los Angeles': return "The cost is 475$" else: return "That's not a valid destination" def rentalCarCost(): rental_days = raw_input ("How many days will you rent the car\n") discount_3 = 40 * int(rental_days) * 0.2 discount_7 = 40 * int(rental_days) * 0.5 total_rent3 = 40 * int(rental_days) - discount_3 total_rent7 = 40 * int(rental_days) - discount_7 cost_day = 40 * int(rental_days) if int(rental_days) >= 3: print "The total cost is", total_rent3, "dollars" elif int(rental_days) >= 7: print "The total cost is", total_rent7, "dollars" else: print "The total cost is", cost_day, "dollars" def tripCost(): travel_city = raw_input ("What's our destination\n") days_travel = raw_input ("\nHow many days will you stay\n") total_trip_cost = hotelCost(int(day_travel)) + planeRideCost (str(travel_city)) + rentalCost (int(days_travel)) return "The total cost with the trip is", total_trip_cost tripCost()

  Read the article

• Should I return an NSMutableString in a method that returns NSString

  - by Casey Marshall

  Ok, so I have a method that takes an NSString as input, does an operation on the contents of this string, and returns the processed string. So the declaration is: - (NSString *) processString: (NSString *) str; The question: should I just return the NSMutableString instance that I used as my "work" buffer, or should I create a new NSString around the mutable one, and return that? So should I do this: - (NSString *) processString: (NSString *) str { NSMutableString *work = [NSMutableString stringWithString: str]; // process 'work' return work; } Or this: - (NSString *) processString: (NSString *) str { NSMutableString *work = [NSMutableString stringWithString: str]; // process 'work' return [NSString stringWithString: work]; // or [work stringValue]? } The second one makes another copy of the string I'm returning, unless NSString does smart things like copy-on-modify. But the first one is returning something the caller could, in theory, go and modify later. I don't care if they do that, since the string is theirs. But are there valid reasons for preferring the latter form over the former? And, is either stringWithString or stringValue preferred over the other?

  Read the article

• Is there a practical benefit to casting a NULL pointer to an object and calling one of its member fu

  - by zdawg

  Ok, so I know that technically this is undefined behavior, but nonetheless, I've seen this more than once in production code. And please correct me if I'm wrong, but I've also heard that some people use this "feature" as a somewhat legitimate substitute of a lacking aspect of the current C++ standard, namely, the inability to obtain the address (well, offset really) of a member function. For example, this is out of a popular implementation of a PCRE (Perl-compatible Regular Expression) library: #ifndef offsetof #define offsetof(p_type,field) ((size_t)&(((p_type *)0)->field)) #endif One can debate whether the exploitation of such a language subtlety in a case like this is valid or not, or even necessary, but I've also seen it used like this: struct Result { void stat() { if(this) // do something... else // do something else... } }; // ...somewhere else in the code... ((Result*)0)->stat(); This works just fine! It avoids a null pointer dereference by testing for the existence of this, and it does not try to access class members in the else block. So long as these guards are in place, it's legitimate code, right? So the question remains: Is there a practical use case, where one would benefit from using such a construct? I'm especially concerned about the second case, since the first case is more of a workaround for a language limitation. Or is it? PS. Sorry about the C-style casts, unfortunately people still prefer to type less if they can.

  Read the article

• JTA or LOCAL transactions in JPA2+Hibernate 3.6.0?

  - by Pangea

  We are in the process of re-thinking our tech stack and below are our choices (We can't live without Spring and Hibernate due to the complexity etc of the app). We are also moving from J2EE 1.4 to JEE 5. Tech stack JEE 5 JPA 2.0 (I know JEE 5 only supports JPA 1.0 but we want to use Hibernate as the JPA provider) Hibernate 3.6.0 (We already have lots of hbm files with custom types etc. so we doesn't want to migrate them at this time to JPA. This means we want both jpa/hbm mappings work together and hence the Hibernate as the JPA provider instead of using the default that comes with App Server) Now the problems is that I want to stick with local transactions but other team members want to use JTA. I have been working with J2EE for last 9 years and I've heard time and again people suggesting to stick with local transactions if I doesn't need two phase commits. This is not only for performance reasons but debugging/troubleshooting a local transaction is lot easier than a distributed transaction. My suggestion is to use spring declarative transaction management + local transactions (HibernateTransactionManager) I want to make sure if I am being paranoid or I have a valid point. I'd like to hear what the rest of the JEE world thinks. Thank you.

  Read the article

• Prevent two users from editing the same data

  - by Industrial

  Hi everyone, I have seen a feature in different web applications including Wordpress (not sure?) that warns a user if he/she opens an article/post/page/whatever from the database, while someone else is editing the same data simultaneously. I would like to implement the same feature in my own application and I have given this a bit of thought. Is the following example a good practice on how to do this? It goes a little something like this: 1) User A enters a the editing page for the mysterious article X. The database tableEvents is queried to make sure that no one else is editing the same page for the moment, which no one is by then. A token is then randomly being generated and is inserted into a database table called Events. 1) User B also want's to make updates to the article X. Now since our User A already is editing the article, the Events table is queried and looks like this: | timestamp | owner | Origin | token | ------------------------------------------------------------ | 1273226321 | User A | article-x | uniqueid## | 2) The timestamp is being checked. If it's valid and less than say 100 seconds old, a message appears and the user cannot make any changes to the requested article X: Warning: User A is currently working with this article. In the meantime, editing cannot be done. Please do something else with your life. 3) If User A decides to go on and save his changes, the token is posted along with all other data to update the database, and toggles a query to delete the row with token uniqueid##. If he decides to do something else instead of committing his changes, the article X will still be available for editing in 100 seconds for User B Let me know what you think about this approach! Wish everyone a great weekend!

  Read the article

• Question on overview of C# OOP in business WinForms application - scope of Object

  - by TimR

  I may have all this OO completely wrong, but here goes: Ok the scenario is a classic order entry. Customer places an Order which has OrderLineItems of StockItems. Order is entered by Employee. 1) Application starts and asks for login/password 2) Employee selects 'Orders' from Mainmenu form 3) Orders forms opens.... 4) Employee selects Customer 5) Employee selects Stock adds to OrderLineItems 6) Selects second StockItem; add to OrderLineItems 7) Order is committed, [stock decremented, order posted to DB, Order printed] 8) Employee is returned to MainMenu Now with Object scope: 1) Application starts and asks for login/password Is this the best place to make objEmployee, to be kept whilst in this whole Sales application? 2) Employee selects 'Orders' from Mainmenu form 3) Orders forms opens.... *Make objOrderHeader, is objEmployee able to be passed in or is it created here, or re-created here.* 4) Employee selects Customer - adds/edits Customer details if required... Make objCustomer 5) Employee selects Stock adds to OrderLineItems... *Make objStockItem and objOrderLineItem - add to objOrderLineItems_collection* 6) Selects second StockItem; add to OrderLineItems... *Make objStockItem and objOrderLineItem - add to objOrderLineItems_collection* 7) Order is committed, [stock decremented, order posted to DB, Order printed, Order Entered By = EmployeeID] Once posted to Db, all objects now redundant/garbage [except objEmployee?] 8) Employee is returned to MainMenu is objEmployee still valid as an object?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 1033 1034 1035 1036 1037 1038 1039 1040 1041 1042 1043 1044  | Next Page >