Search Results

Search found 56181 results on 2248 pages for 'application context'.

Page 1044/2248 | < Previous Page | 1040 1041 1042 1043 1044 1045 1046 1047 1048 1049 1050 1051  | Next Page >

• Questions related to mantis:

  - by Komal Matkar

  We are interested in installing Mantis but we have some doubts Please clarify as early as possible if you can so that we can go for further process. 1) We have one team at USA (Client’s place) and one is at India. In which server we should install the Mantis. If we are installing at USA will it run slow in India? 2) What about technical Support. You may take technical support with payment. But how much support will be given free (As we have to discuss this with client). 3) As we have seen details in your website, you have given it supports oracle and sql database. But we wanted to know till which lowest version of oracle and sql it supports. Please send us minimum requirement. 4) What is the capacity of the database to store defects? Backup facility is available? If yes please tell us how should we take. Because we have big team and 5-6 applications so it should not give further problems. 5) Database support: Do you provide database support or database while installation? While installing all the prerequisite application will get installed or we need any application separately. 6)How many users can access at a time? Will it work slowly if more users are working at a time? Thanks Komal

  Read the article

• Aggregate Pattern and Performance Issues

  - by Mosh

  Hello, I have read about the Aggregate Pattern but I'm confused about something here. The pattern states that all the objects belonging to the aggregate should be accessed via the Aggregate Root, and not directly. And I'm assuming that is the reason why they say you should have a single Repository per Aggregate. But I think this adds a noticeable overhead to the application. For example, in a typical Web-based application, what if I want to get an object belonging to an aggregate (which is NOT the aggregate root)? I'll have to call Repository.GetAggregateRootObject(), which loads the aggregate root and all its child objects, and then iterate through the child objects to find the one I'm looking for. In other words, I'm loading lots of data and throwing them out except the particular object I'm looking for. Is there something I'm missing here? PS: I know some of you may suggest that we can improve performance with Lazy Loading. But that's not what I'm asking here... The aggregate pattern requires that all objects belonging to the aggregate be loaded together, so we can enforce business rules.

  Read the article

• Using the Microsoft Ajax Minifier with Web Setup project & Source Control

  - by Rob

  I've just started investigating the Microsoft Ajax Minifer 4.0 for use with a Visual Studio 2008 Web Application I work on. It's proven easy enough to hook it into the .csproj file so it produced .min.js files for all scripts, however I'm stumped as to how to integrate this with the Web Setup project & Source Control. Essentially what I want to do is have the resultant .min.js files included in the Web Setup project without having them included in Source Control because: Having to check them out prior to the build being executing is a pain (the minifier cannot modify them if they're not checked out). As they're created as a "build artifact" it just seems wrong to have them stored under source control. The only option I've managed to come across so far is to explicitly include the .min.js files as part of the Setup project by right clicking on the Web Setup project and choosing "Add File", and then having the relevant folder hierarchy duplicated in "File System on Target Machine" so that I can force the file to the correct location. This is neither elegant or simple/robust as: It requires me to manually add every minified js file to the Web Setup project by hand Maintain a copy of the relevant directory structure in both the Web Application project and the Web Setup project Remember to add any new js files minified versions to the Web Setup project Is there a better way of doing this?

  Read the article

• Embedded Jetty resourceBase classpath URL

  - by drewzilla

  I'm embedding Jetty in a Spring based application. I configure my Jetty server in a Spring context file. The specific part of the configuration I'm having trouble with is this: <bean class="org.eclipse.jetty.webapp.WebAppContext"> <property name="contextPath" value="/" /> <property name="resourceBase" value="????????" /> <property name="parentLoaderPriority" value="true" /> </bean> If you see above, where I've put the ????????, I ideally want the resourceBase to reference a folder on my classpath. I'm deploying my application in a single executable JAR file and have a folder config/web/WEB-INF on my classpath. Jetty seems to be able to handle URLs defined in the resourceBase (e.g. jar:file:/myapp.jar!/config/web) but it doesn't seem to support classpath URLs. I get an IllegalArgumentException if I define something like classpath:config/web. This is a real pain for me. Does anyone know of anyway to achieve this functionality? Thanks, Andrew

  Read the article

• How to store dynamic references to parts of a text

  - by Antoine L

  In fact, my question concerns an algorithm. I need to be able to attach annotations to certain parts of a text, like a word or a group of words. The first thing that came to me to do so is to store the position of this part (indexes) in the text. For instance, in the text 'The quick brown fox jumps over the lazy dog', I'd like to attach an annotation to 'quick brown fox', so the indexes of the annotation would be 4 - 14. But since the text is editable (other annotations could provoke a modification from text's author), the annoted part is likely to move (the indexes could change). In fact, I don't know how to update the indexes of the annoted part. What if the text becomes 'Everyday, the quick brown fox jumps over the lazy dog' ? I guess I have to watch every change of the text in the front-end application ? The front-end part of the application will be HTML with Javascript. I will be using PHP to develop the back-end part and every text and annotation will be stored in a database.

  Read the article

• java.lang.IllegalAccessError in Windows xp

  - by Priya.S

  Hi I have installed NetBeens 6.9.1 in my windows xp system. java web application wokring fine. But i have not get web method in my java web application. its error occurring. Error Message : init: deps-module-jar: deps-ear-jar: deps-jar: wsimport-init: Created dir: D:\javaprg\projects\myApp\build\generated-sources\jax-ws wsimport-client-userServiceService: Created dir: D:\javaprg\projects\myApp\build\generated\jax-wsCache\userServiceService D:\javaprg\projects\myApp\nbproject\jaxws-build.xml:31: java.lang.IllegalAccessError: tried to access class com.sun.tools.ws.Invoker from class com.sun.tools.ws.ant.WrapperTask at com.sun.tools.ws.ant.WrapperTask.createClassLoader(WrapperTask.java:85) at com.sun.istack.tools.ProtectedTask.execute(ProtectedTask.java:46) at org.apache.tools.ant.UnknownElement.execute(UnknownElement.java:291) at sun.reflect.GeneratedMethodAccessor139.invoke(Unknown Source) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:589) at org.apache.tools.ant.dispatch.DispatchUtils.execute(DispatchUtils.java:106) at org.apache.tools.ant.Task.perform(Task.java:348) at org.apache.tools.ant.Target.execute(Target.java:390) at org.apache.tools.ant.Target.performTasks(Target.java:411) at org.apache.tools.ant.Project.executeSortedTargets(Project.java:1397) at org.apache.tools.ant.Project.executeTarget(Project.java:1366) at org.apache.tools.ant.helper.DefaultExecutor.executeTargets(DefaultExecutor.java:41) at org.apache.tools.ant.Project.executeTargets(Project.java:1249) at org.apache.tools.ant.module.bridge.impl.BridgeImpl.run(BridgeImpl.java:281) at org.apache.tools.ant.module.run.TargetExecutor.run(TargetExecutor.java:539) at org.netbeans.core.execution.RunClassThread.run(RunClassThread.java:154) BUILD FAILED (total time: 1 second)

  Read the article

• How to design a RESTful collection resource?

  - by Suresh Kumar

  I am trying to design a "collection of items" resource. I need to support the following operations: Create the collection Remove the collection Add a single item to the collection Add multiple items to the collection Remove a single item from the collection Remove multiple items from the collection This is as far as I have gone: Create collection: ==> POST /service Host: www.myserver.com Content-Type: application/xml <collection name="items"> <item href="item1"/> <item href="item2"/> <item href="item3"/> </collection> <== 201 Created Location: http://myserver.com/service/items Content-Type: application/xml ... Remove collection: ==> DELETE /service/items <== 200 OK Removing a single item from the collection: ==> DELETE /service/items/item1 <== 200 OK However, I am finding supporting the other operations a bit tricky i.e. what methods can I use to: Add single or multiple items to the collection. (PUT doesn't seem to be right here as per HTTP 1.1 RFC Remove multiple items from the collection in one transaction. (DELETE doesn't seem to right here either)

  Read the article

• How to estimate tomcat server requirements?

  - by Daniil

  We have a brand new webapp written that runs on Tomcat. So far, only one client is using it through the day. They run about 180 unique logins a day. Not really a lot IMO. Now, we managed to sell it to a brand new client who likes and wants to roll it out to 50,000 clients. How many of them will login at the same time - no idea. But I need to do the whole thing - allocate, create, config and maintain. OK - last is simple(errrr). The application runs off of Tomcat 5.5 on Gentoo (I'm thinking to upgrade to Tomcat 6) with MSSQL & mySQL behind. I do realize that a more enterprise ready application would be a better fit, but that's not an option at the moment. Since I've never done this before, I'm a bit lost. Can someone advice on how to go about estimating the equipment requirements for this client? Tomcat does have clustering, so that I can do. MS SQL - I'm sure they have something too. I'm thinking to stick it behind LVS (which we do use at the moment for something else too). Any help from people who deal with these details is greatly appreciated!

  Read the article

• Using ember-resource with couchdb - how can i save my documents?

  - by Thomas Herrmann

  I am implementing an application using ember.js and couchdb. I choose ember-resource as database access layer because it nicely supports nested JSON documents. Since couchdb uses the attribute _rev for optimistic locking in every document, this attribute has to be updated in my application after saving the data to the couchdb. My idea to implement this is to reload the data right after saving to the database and get the new _rev back with the rest of the document. Here is my code for this: // Since we use CouchDB, we have to make sure that we invalidate and re-fetch // every document right after saving it. CouchDB uses an optimistic locking // scheme based on the attribute "_rev" in the documents, so we reload it in // order to have the correct _rev value. didSave: function() { this._super.apply(this, arguments); this.forceReload(); }, // reload resource after save is done, expire to make reload really do something forceReload: function() { this.expire(); // Everything OK up to this location Ember.run.next(this, function() { this.fetch() // Sub-Document is reset here, and *not* refetched! .fail(function(error) { App.displayError(error); }) .done(function() { App.log("App.Resource.forceReload fetch done, got revision " + self.get('_rev')); }); }); } This works for most cases, but if i have a nested model, the sub-model is replaced with the old version of the data just before the fetch is executed! Interestingly enough, the correct (updated) data is stored in the database and the wrong (old) data is in the memory model after the fetch, although the _rev attribut is correct (as well as all attributes of the main object). Here is a part of my object definition: App.TaskDefinition = App.Resource.define({ url: App.dbPrefix + 'courseware', schema: { id: String, _rev: String, type: String, name: String, comment: String, task: { type: 'App.Task', nested: true } } }); App.Task = App.Resource.define({ schema: { id: String, title: String, description: String, startImmediate: Boolean, holdOnComment: Boolean, ..... // other attributes and sub-objects } }); Any ideas where the problem might be? Thank's a lot for any suggestion! Kind regards, Thomas

  Read the article

• Automated UAT/functional tests on Swing applications without source code

  - by jas

  Our team is now working on a big Swing application. Our job basically focuses on writing extensions to the existing framework. A typical job would be adding a new panel/ or adding a new tab with some extra functionalities that suit our need. It seems FEST can help a lot in terms of unit-test our code. I am going to try it out this week. But the question here is if there is a way to do automated functional testing on the whole application. In another word, we do not only need to test our code but also the framework. After all, UAT is the most important part. I am currently considering decompiling the jar files we got into source code then we can identify the components and then use FEST. So, before I get started to give this approach a shot, I think I just ask for ideas and inspirations here. There must be people who have done similar things before. Would be nice if I could learn from the veterans who fought against this before . Thanks,

  Read the article

• PHP ZipArchive Empty in IE

  - by Jesse Bunch

  Hi, I am using PHP's ZipArchive class to create a zip file containing photos and then serve it up to the browser for download. Here is my code: /** * Grabs the order, packages the files, and serves them up for download. * * @param string $intEntryID * @return void * @author Jesse Bunch */ public static function download_order_by_entry_id($intUniqueID) { $objCustomer = PhotoCustomer::get_customer_by_unique_id($intUniqueID); if ($objCustomer): if (!class_exists('ZipArchive')): trigger_error('ZipArchive Class does not exist', E_USER_ERROR); endif; $objZip = new ZipArchive(); $strZipFilename = sprintf('%s/application/tmp/%s-%s.zip', $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'], $objCustomer->getEntryID(), time()); if ($objZip->open($strZipFilename, ZIPARCHIVE::CREATE) !== TRUE): trigger_error('Unable to create zip archive', E_USER_ERROR); endif; foreach($objCustomer->arrPhotosRequested as $objPhoto): $filename = PhotoCart::replace_ee_file_dir_in_string($objPhoto->strHighRes); $objZip->addFile($filename,sprintf('/press_photos/%s-%s', $objPhoto->getEntryID(), basename($filename))); endforeach; $objZip->close(); header('Last-Modified: '.gmdate('D, d M Y H:i:s', filemtime($strZipFilename)).' GMT', TRUE, 200); header('Cache-Control: no-cache', TRUE); header('Pragma: Public', TRUE); header('Expires: ' . gmdate('D, d M Y H:i:s', time()) . ' GMT', TRUE); header('Content-Length: '.filesize($strZipFilename), TRUE); header('Content-disposition: attachment; filename=press_photos.zip', TRUE); header('Content-Type: application/octet-stream', TRUE); ob_start(); readfile($strZipFilename); ob_end_flush(); exit; else: trigger_error('Invalid Customer', E_USER_ERROR); endif; } This code works really well with all browsers but IE. In IE, the file downloads correctly, but the zip archive is empty. When trying to extract the files, Windows tells me that the zip archive is corrupt. Has anyone had this issue before?

  Read the article

• SIGABRT on any UIView touch

  - by bitcruncher

  Hi. I'm afraid no amount of Googling has been able to save my hyde on this. I seem to be getting SIGABRT error anytime I touch the screen of the phone, on any UIView. The debugger console posts this error before the SIGABRT: .... [310:207] *** -[UIView _exclusiveTouchView]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x14c0c0 .... [310:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIView _exclusiveTouchView]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x14c0c0' (this is not my specific call to _exclusiveTouchView, of course.) I would gladly post some code, but the truth is I cannot find (or guess) where this problem may be coming from. This is not happening on any ONE UIView but on all the UIViews in my stack. I can summarize the display logic, though, perhaps that will shed some light. So the application is created and a UIWindow is alloc'd. A single viewcontroller is then alloc'd, which makes and adds its own blank self.view, to which the other UIViews, representing the different game states, are attached. Interestingly enough, this error is does NOT happen on the Simulator, but happens consistently on the device. And I should also mention that the application has yet to override/use any of the touchesBegan:/Ended:/Moved: etc... In other words, this error happens without these methods in the code. I'm really not understanding where this error is coming from... Any suggestions?

  Read the article

• Can a stateless WCF service benefit from built-in database connection pooling?

  - by vladimir

  I understand that a typical .NET application that accesses a(n SQL Server) database doesn't have to do anything in particular in order to benefit from the connection pooling. Even if an application repeatedly opens and closes database connections, they do get pooled by the framework (assuming that things such as credentials do not change from call to call). My usage scenario seems to be a bit different. When my service gets instantiated, it opens a database connection once, does some work, closes the connection and returns the result. Then it gets torn down by the WCF, and the next incoming call creates a new instance of the service. In other words, my service gets instantiated per client call, as in [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerCall)]. The service accesses an SQL Server 2008 database. I'm using .NET framework 3.5 SP1. Does the connection pooling still work in this scenario, or I need to roll my own connection pool in form of a singleton or by some other means (IInstanceContextProvider?). I would rather avoid reinventing the wheel, if possible.

  Read the article

• Could Python's logging SMTP Handler be freezing my thread for 2 minutes?

  - by Oddthinking

  A rather confusing sequence of events happened, according to my log-file, and I am about to put a lot of the blame on the Python logger, which is a bold claim. I thought I should get some second opinions about whether what I am saying could be true. I am trying to explain why there is are several large gaps in my log file (around two minutes at a time) during stressful periods for my application when it is missing deadlines. I am using Python's logging module on a remote server, and have set-up, with a configuration file, for all logs of severity of ERROR or higher to be emailed to me. Typically, only one error will be sent at a time, but during periods of sustained problems, I might get a dozen in a minute - annoying, but nothing that should stress SMTP. I believe that, after a short spurt of such messages, the Python logging system (or perhaps the SMTP system it is sitting on) is encountering errors or congestion. The call to Python's log is then BLOCKING for two minutes, causing my thread to miss its deadlines. (I was smart enough to move the logging until after the critical path of the application - so I don't care if logging takes me a few seconds, but two minutes is far too long.) This seems like a rather awkward architecture (for both a logging system that can freeze up, and for an SMTP system (Ubuntu, sendmail) that cannot handle dozens of emails in a minute**), so this surprises me, but it exactly fits the symptoms. Has anyone had any experience with this? Can anyone describe how to stop it from blocking? ** EDIT: I actually counted. A little under 4000 short emails in two hours. So far more than I suggested, sorry. But enough to over-fill a Sendmail's buffers?

  Read the article

• Javascript Rich Display Component/Methodology

  - by Laramie

  quick back story-- I am working on ASP.Net based template editor that lets authors create text templates using Javascript inserted placeholder tags that will be filled in with dynamic text when the templates are used to display the final results. For example the author might create a template like The word [%12#add] was generated dynamically. The application would eventually replace the tag with a dynamic word down the road (though it's not specifically relevant to this post) The word foo was generated dynmamically. Depending on the circumstances, the template may be created in a text input, textarea or a modified version of the Ajax Control Toolkit HTML Editor. There might be 40 or more of these editable elements on the page, so using lots of stripped down or modified HTML editors would probably bog the page down too much. The problem is that the tags such as [%12#add] are displayed inline with the user text and the result is confusing and aesthetically gross. The goal is parse the contens of the source element and when a tags such as [%12#add] are encountered, display something prettier and less cryptic to the user such as a stylable element or image wherever tags such as [%12#add] occur. The application still needs the template text with the tags on postback. So the user might see The word tag placeholder was generated dynamically. but the original template would still be the value of the text input box The word [%12#add] was generated dynamically. It seems HTML editors like the ACT version and FckEditor accomplish this by rendering their output in an IFrame, but rather than kill myself trying to roll a lighter specialized version myself, I thought I'd ask if anyone knows of an existing free component or approach that has already tackled this. With good reason, I don't think S.O. allows HTML formatting, but the bold "tag placeholder" above would ideally be something like tag placeholder.

  Read the article

• Attachment_fu file saving problem

  - by Anand

  Attachment_fu plugin is kind of old, but I have to modify an old app and I can't use another plugin like paperclip etc. So here's the code without further ado Submissions table structure --------------------------- | content_type | varchar(255) | YES | | NULL | filename | varchar(255) | YES | | NULL app/models/submission.rb ------------------------ has_attachment :storage => :file_system, :path_prefix => 'public/submissions', :max_size => 2.megabytes, :content_type => ['application/pdf', 'application/msword', 'text/plain'] app/models/user.rb ------------------ has_one :submission, :dependent => :destroy app/views/user/some_action.html.erb ----------------------------------- <% form_for :user, :url => { :action => "some_action" }, :html => {:multipart => true} do |f| %> .... <%= file_field_tag "submission[uploaded_data]" %> <%end%> app/controllers/user_controller.rb ---------------------------------- @user = User.find_user(session[:user_id]) @submission = @user.submission if request.post? @submission.uploaded_data = params[:submission][:uploaded_data] end When the form is submitted, the database fields "content_type" and "filename" get updated and display the correct values, but the file does not appear in public/submissions/ directory. I have checked the permissions on the submissions directory. What am I missing? Many Thanks

  Read the article

• How to set up single array or dictionary for use in multiple datasources?

  - by Roman

  I have multiple TableViewDatasources that need to display list of objects form same pool depending of certain property. E.g. object.flag1 is set- it will show up in TableView1 object.flag2 is set- it will show up in TableView2 The obvious way would be to have separate arrays for each TableView, But same object may appear in different arrays. Also I need to update objects very often or access all objects through same array. How do I setup a single dictionary or array to have all objects in one structure? To put it in another way: When table view or selection changes, application need to redraw TableViews with the new data. Application have to access the pool of objects and search through them using iterator and accessing each object and its properties. I think that this is an expensive operation and want to avoid that. Perhaps maybe by making a global pool of objects a dictionary and exposing objects properties as dictionary fields. So instead of iterating global pool of objects I could access global pool Dicitonary in a manner of database by selecting objects that has fields that match particular criteria. Anyone know any example of doing that?

  Read the article

• What do I need to do to make sure my app launches as Admin?

  - by John Gietzen

  I'm writing an app that allows you to script the buttons from a wiimote into actions on your PC. It currently supports all of the features of the main remote control, except for the speaker. Now, I'm running in to trouble when I run it on Vista with UAC turned on. Any time a UAC'd window has focus, my app fails to move the mouse successfully. For instance, when an installer is run, I have to navigate it with the keyboard. Will running the app as administrator solve my problem? (At one point in time, I was able to successfully move the mouse over a UAC-password-entry box) How do I build a manifest that will tell windows to "run as administrator"? How do I embed this manifest into my app, if I'm strongly naming my assembly? How do I sign my application with an Authenticode cert? EDIT: Ok, so after some more extensive research, I have found: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb756929.aspx <requestedExecutionLevel level="asInvoker|highestAvailable|requireAdministrator" uiAccess="true|false"/> However, the article says: Applications with the uiAccess flag set to true must be Authenticode signed to start properly. In addition, the application must reside in a protected location in the file system. \Program Files\ and \windows\system32\ are currently the two allowable protected locations. I have edited the question to reflect the new developments.

  Read the article

• How do I programatically add an article page to a sharepoint site?

  - by soniiic

  I've been given the task of content migration from another CMS system to SharePoint 2010. The data in the old system is fairly easy to capture and the page hierarchy is simple so I'm not worried about that. However, I am completely flummoxed about how to even create a page in code. I'm using the Microsoft.SharePoint.Client namespace as I do not have sharepoint installed on my system and am wanting to code this up as a console application and so I'm using I'm using ClientContext. (On the other hand, I am willing to go into other solutions if necessary). My end-game: To get a page uploaded into some folder hierarchy which uses a master page, has the page title in a header web part, and a big ol' content-editable web part in the body so any user can come along and edit the content. Things I've tried so far: Using FileCollection.Add() to add an aspx file to the folder "Site Pages". This renders the html in the browser but doesn't enable any features for the user to edit the page Using ListItemCollection.Add() to add a page to the site, but I didn't know what fields I needed. Also I remember it came up with a runtime error saying I should use FileCollection.Add() Uploading to 'Site Pages' instead of 'Pages' So many others... ow my head :( The only plausible thing I can see on the net is to use the PublishingPage type along with PublishingWeb. However, PublishingWeb can only be constructed from an SPWeb object which requires me to be actually hosting the sharepoint application on my workstation. If anyone can lend a hand that would be greatly appreciated :)

  Read the article

• Issue with 'Hello Android' tutorial

  - by Mike Needham

  I am brand new to Eclipse and Android, but somewhat familiar with Java. That having been said, I tried to follow the 'Hello Android' tutorial from the developer site using the latest Eclipse (Galieo) and the 2.1 Android SDK, I am on a Macintosh running Snow Leopard (OS X 10.6). I have a default virtual device (though my target is actually for phones like my own HTC Incredible which has the snapdragon processor and of course all the latest accoutrement in smart phones. Everything seemed to go okay until I went to RUN>RUN and then selected 'Android Application'. My computer spins it's wheels for a while and then I see two errors. I have pasted the output below: [2010-05-04 01:53:46 - HelloAndroid] ------------------------------ [2010-05-04 01:53:46 - HelloAndroid] Android Launch! [2010-05-04 01:53:46 - HelloAndroid] adb is running normally. [2010-05-04 01:53:46 - HelloAndroid] Performing com.example.helloandroid.HelloAndroid activity launch [2010-05-04 01:53:46 - HelloAndroid] Automatic Target Mode: launching new emulator with compatible AVD 'myAVD' [2010-05-04 01:53:46 - HelloAndroid] Launching a new emulator with Virtual Device 'myAVD' [2010-05-04 01:53:58 - HelloAndroid] New emulator found: emulator-5554 [2010-05-04 01:53:58 - HelloAndroid] Waiting for HOME ('android.process.acore') to be launched... [2010-05-04 01:53:59 - Emulator] 2010-05-04 01:53:59.501 emulator[10398:903] Warning once: This application, or a library it uses, is using NSQuickDrawView, which has been deprecated. Apps should cease use of QuickDraw and move to Quartz. [2010-05-04 01:54:23 - HelloAndroid] emulator-5554 disconnected! Cancelling 'com.example.helloandroid.HelloAndroid activity launch'! I never do see the text in the emulator and the emulator crashes with a message about it quitting unexpectedly. The actual code is line by line from the tutorial and I have never been able to get to the XML part yet. I am not sure what is wrong with my environment setup or if it is just an incompatibility with Snow Leopard? I would REALLY appreciate any help in resolving this as I am very interested in developing on this platform. Thank-you, Mike N Lawrence, Kansas

  Read the article

• Passing an ActionScript JPG Byte Array to Javscript (and eventually to PHP)

  - by Gus

  Our web application has a feature which uses Flash (AS3) to take photos using the user's web cam, then passes the resulting byte array to PHP where it is reconstructed and saved on the server. However, we need to be able to take this web application offline, and we have chosen Gears to do so. The user takes the app offline, performs his tasks, then when he's reconnected to the server, we "sync" the data back with our central database. We don't have PHP to interact with Flash anymore, but we still need to allow users to take and save photos. We don't know how to save a JPG that Flash creates in a local database. Our hope was that we could save the byte array, a serialized string, or somehow actually persist the object itself, then pass it back to either PHP or Flash (and then PHP) to recreate the JPG. We have tried: - passing the byte array to Javascript instead of PHP, but javascript doesn't seem to be able to do anything with it (the object seems to be stripped of its methods) - stringifying the byte array in Flash, and then passing it to Javascript, but we always get the same string: ÿØÿà Now we are thinking of serializing the string in Flash, passing it to Javascript, then on the return route, passing that string back to Flash which will then pass it to PHP to be reconstructed as a JPG. (whew). Since no one on our team has extensive Flash background, we're a bit lost. Is serialization the way to go? Is there a more realistic way to do this? Does anyone have any experience with this sort of thing? Perhaps we can build a javascript class that is the same as the byte array class in AS?

  Read the article

• No JSON object could be decoded - RPC POST call

  - by user1307067

  var body = JSON.stringify(params); // Create an XMLHttpRequest 'POST' request w/ an optional callback handler req.open('POST', '/rpc', async); req.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); req.setRequestHeader("Content-length", body.length); req.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); if (async) { req.onreadystatechange = function() { if(req.readyState == 4 && req.status == 200) { var response = null; try { response = JSON.parse(req.responseText); } catch (e) { response = req.responseText; } callback(response); } }; } // Make the actual request req.send(body); ---- on the server side ---- class RPCHandler(BaseHandler): '''@user_required''' def post(self): RPCmethods = ("UpdateScenario", "DeleteScenario") logging.info(u'body ' + self.request.body) args = simplejson.loads(self.request.body) ---- Get the following error on the server logs body %5B%22UpdateScenario%22%2C%22c%22%2C%224.5%22%2C%2230frm%22%2C%22Refinance%22%2C%22100000%22%2C%22740%22%2C%2294538%22%2C%2250000%22%2C%22owner%22%2C%22sfr%22%2C%22Fremont%22%2C%22CA%22%5D= No JSON object could be decoded: line 1 column 0 (char 0): Traceback (most recent call last): File "/base/python_runtime/python_lib/versions/1/google/appengine/ext/webapp/_webapp25.py", line 703, in call handler.post(*groups) File "/base/data/home/apps/s~mortgageratealert-staging/1.357912751535215625/main.py", line 418, in post args = json.loads(self.request.body) File "/base/python_runtime/python_lib/versions/1/simplejson/init.py", line 388, in loads return _default_decoder.decode(s) File "/base/python_runtime/python_lib/versions/1/simplejson/decoder.py", line 402, in decode obj, end = self.raw_decode(s, idx=_w(s, 0).end()) File "/base/python_runtime/python_lib/versions/1/simplejson/decoder.py", line 420, in raw_decode raise JSONDecodeError("No JSON object could be decoded", s, idx) JSONDecodeError: No JSON object could be decoded: line 1 column 0 (char 0) --- firebug shows the following --- Parameters application/x-www-form-urlencoded ["UpdateScenario","c","4.... Source ["UpdateScenario","c","4.5","30frm","Refinance","100000","740","94538","50000","owner","sfr","Fremont","CA"] Based on the firebug report and also the logs shows self.request.body as anticipated. However simplejson load doesn't like it. Please help!

  Read the article

• Side by side madness - running binaries on different computer (with a twist)

  - by sbk

  Here's my configuration: Computer A - Windows 7, MS Visual Studio 2005 patched for Win7 compatibility (8.0.50727.867) Computer B - Windows XP SP2, MS Visual Studio 2005 installed (8.0.50727.42) My project has some external dependencies (prebuilt DLLs - either build on A or downloaded from the Internet), a couple of DLLs built from sources and one executable. I am mostly developing on A and all is fine there. At some point I try to build my project on computer B, copying the prebuilt DLLs to the output folder. Everything builds fine, but trying to start my application I get The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0150002).... The event log contains two of those: Dependent Assembly Microsoft.VC80.CRT could not be found and Last Error was The referenced assembly is not installed on your system. plus the slightly more amusing Generate Activation Context failed for some.dll. Reference error message: The operation completed successfully. At this point I'm trying my Google-Fu, but in vain - virtually all hits are about running binaries on machines without Visual Studio installed. In my case, however, the executables fail to run on the computer they are built. Next step was to try dependency walker and it baffled me even more - my DLLs built from sources on the same box cannot find MSVCR80.DLL and MSVCP80.DLL, however the executable seems to be alright in respect to those two DLLs i.e. when I open the executable with dependency walker it shows that the MSVC?80.DLLs can be found, but when I open one of my DLLs it says they cannot. That's where I am completely out of ideas what to do so I'm asking you, dear stackoverflow :) I admit I'm a bit blurry on the whole side-by-side thing, so general reading on the topic will also be appreciated.

  Read the article

• How to flush DNS cache in Windows Mobile programmatically?

  - by Bounded

  Hello, My windows mobile application (written in C# with the compact framework) needs to know if a particular machine is active or not. To achieve this goal, I thought to use a ping mechanism. I tried to use the Ping class implemented in the opennetcf framework (the System.Net.NetworkInformation.Ping class for the .NET Framework is not part of the compact framework). Because I give to the Ping.Send function a host name, it first tries to resolve this host name and to retrieve an IP address. But i observe the following problem : If the first dns resolution fails (because the network is down at this moment), and if the application tries immediately again to send the ping, it fails too, even if the network is note down anymore. I check with a famous network protocol analyzer and i saw that only the requests concerning the first dns resolution are sent. The requests concerning the dns resolution of the second ping are not sent. Why is the second dns request not sent ? Is there any dns cache mechanism on such Windows Mobile devices ? If yes, can this mechanism beeing flushed programmatically ? EDIT : I gave up finding a solution to this DNS flush. I chose to ping an IP adress instead of a name machine. The problem of pinging an hard coded adress IP is that we have to be 100% sure that this IP will not change. The gateway IP can be used because it's always reachable (if it does not, it means the network is down).

  Read the article

• Is there a way to programmatically tell if particular block of memory was not freed by FastMM?

  - by Wodzu

  I am trying to detect if a block of memory was not freed. Of course, the manager tells me that by dialog box or log file, but what if I would like to store results in a database? For example I would like to have in a database table a names of routines which allocated given blocks. After reading a documentation of FastMM I know that since version 4.98 we have a possibility to be notified by manager about memory allocations, frees and reallocations as they occur. For example OnDebugFreeMemFinish event is passing to us a PFullDebugBlockHeader which contains useful informations. There is one thing that PFullDebugBlockHeader is missing - the information if the given block was freed by the application. Unless OnDebugFreeMemFinish is called only for not freed blocks? This is which I do not know and would like to find out. The problem is that even hooking into OnDebugFreeMemFinish event I was unable to find out if the block was freed or not. Here is an example: program MemLeakTest; {$APPTYPE CONSOLE} uses FastMM4, ExceptionLog, SysUtils; procedure MemFreeEvent(APHeaderFreedBlock: PFullDebugBlockHeader; AResult: Integer); begin //This is executed at the end, but how should I know that this block should be freed //by application? Unless this is executed ONLY for not freed blocks. end; procedure Leak; var MyObject: TObject; begin MyObject := TObject.Create; end; begin OnDebugFreeMemFinish := MemFreeEvent; Leak; end. What I am missing is the callback like: procedure OnMemoryLeak(APointer: PFullDebugBlockHeader); After browsing the source of FastMM I saw that there is a procedure: procedure LogMemoryLeakOrAllocatedBlock(APointer: PFullDebugBlockHeader; IsALeak: Boolean); which could be overriden, but maybe there is an easier way?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 1040 1041 1042 1043 1044 1045 1046 1047 1048 1049 1050 1051  | Next Page >