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• Bizzare results when running two Visual Studio Express C++ 2008 solutions

  - by Jamie Keeling

  This is a follow on from my previous question although this is about something else. I've been having a problem where for some reason my message that I pass from one process to another only displays the first letter, in this case "M". My application based on a MSDN sample so to make sure I hadn't missed something I create a seperate solution, added the MSDN sample (Without any changes for my needs) and unsuprisingly it works fine. Now for the weird bit, when I run the MSDN sample running (As in debugging) and have my own application running, the text prints out fine without any problems. The second I run my on it's own without the original MSDN sample being open it fails to work and only shows an "M". I've looked in the debugger and don't seem to notice anything suspicious (It's a slightly dated picture, I've fixed the data type inconsistency). Can anyone provide a solution as to this? I've never encountered anything like this before. To look at my source code it's easier to just look at the link I posted at the top of the question, there's no point in me posting it twice. Thank you for any help.

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• Inversion of control domain objects construction problem

  - by Andrey

  Hello! As I understand IoC-container is helpful in creation of application-level objects like services and factories. But domain-level objects should be created manually. Spring's manual tells us: "Typically one does not configure fine-grained domain objects in the container, because it is usually the responsibility of DAOs and business logic to create/load domain objects." Well. But what if my domain "fine-grained" object depends on some application-level object. For example I have an UserViewer(User user, UserConstants constants) class. There user is domain object which cannot be injected, but UserViewer also needs UserConstants which is high-level object injected by IoC-container. I want to inject UserConstants from the IoC-container, but I also need a transient runtime parameter User here. What is wrong with the design? Thanks in advance! UPDATE It seems I was not precise enough with my question. What I really need is an example how to do this: create instance of class UserViewer(User user, UserService service), where user is passed as the parameter and service is injected from IoC. If I inject UserViewer viewer then how do I pass user to it? If I create UserViewer viewer manually then how do I pass service to it?

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• Flex 4 hideEffect transition bug

  - by xerious87

  I'm trying to create a slide effect. Everything works fine except when the hideEffect animation is shown for the first time. The content does not become invisible when crossing the TabNavigator's border, which looks really ugly in my current project. The following simple example demonstrates the problem: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" minWidth="955" minHeight="600" backgroundColor="0xDDDDDD"> <fx:Declarations> <s:Move id="hideEffect" xTo="700" /> </fx:Declarations> <mx:TabNavigator width="500" height="300" x="100" y="0"> <s:NavigatorContent label="ONE" hideEffect="{hideEffect}"> <s:BorderContainer backgroundColor="0xFF0000" height="100" width="100"/> </s:NavigatorContent> <s:NavigatorContent label="TWO" hideEffect="{hideEffect}"> <s:BorderContainer backgroundColor="0xFF0000" height="100" width="100"/> </s:NavigatorContent> <s:NavigatorContent label="THREE" hideEffect="{hideEffect}"> <s:BorderContainer backgroundColor="0xFF0000" height="100" width="100"/> </s:NavigatorContent> <s:NavigatorContent label="FOUR" hideEffect="{hideEffect}"> <s:BorderContainer backgroundColor="0xFF0000" height="100" width="100"/> </s:NavigatorContent> </mx:TabNavigator> </s:Application> Screenshot: hideEffectBug Any ideas how to fix this bug?

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• Cannot redeclare class on a copy of a site

  - by Polity

  I've developed a small SMS utility for a customer in PHP. The details are of non-importance. This project is hosted in: http://project.example.com/customer1 Now a second customer requests almost the same functionality, one cheap way of providing this is to copy the project from the first customer and modify it slightly. So i made a direct copy of the project for customer1 to another folder for customer 2. This project is hosted in: http://project.example.com/customer2 Now when i try and run the project for customer2 (calling a single page), i get the error message: Fatal error: Cannot redeclare class SmsService in /var/www/html/project/customer1/application/service.class.php on line 3 Here, service.class.php is a simple interface with 3 methods: interface SmsService { public function SendSms($mobile, $customerId, $customerName, $message); public function QueryIncomingResponse(); public function CleanExpiredConfirmations($maxConfirmationDays); } printing the backtrace in service.class.php reveals something interresting: #0 require_once() called at [/var/www/html/project/customer2/endpoint/queryIncomingResponse.php:2] Fatal error: Cannot redeclare class SmsService in /var/www/html/project/customer1/application/service.class.php on line 3 Line 2 in queryIncomingResponses is the very first require line there is. Line 3 in service.class.php is the first statement there is in the file (Line 2 is an empty line and line 1 is the php file opening tag). Naturally, I only work with relative requires (double checked this) so there is no way one include/require from customer2 actually refers to a file for customer1. It seems to me that in some way SmsService and other classes gets cached by PHP. (I have little control over the server environment). One solution to this would be namespaces. Unfortunatly, we work with PHP 5.1.7 where namespaces are not a part of the language feature just yet. Another way would be to mimic namespaces by prefixing all classes but this approach just feels dirty. Does anyone have more information on this problem and possibly solutions? Many thanks in advance!

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• Images in IFRAME no longer showing after I log out of Flickr?

  - by contact-kram

  I have a iframe window which displays user's flickr images. I use the flickr.photos.search api to download the user's image from flickr. This works great when the user is logged into flickr. But when I explicitly log off the user from flickr and the yahoo network and then attempt to download the flickr images, I get redirected to www.yahoo.com in a full browser window (not in my iframe). If I remember correctly, I did not have this issue when I was not using iframes and I was being redirected to the yahoo login screen. Any suggestions? To elaborate, this URI - http://www.flickr.com/services/api/auth.howto.web.html, lists the below step - Create an auth handler When users follow your login url, they are directed to a page on flickr.com which asks them if they want to authorize your application. This page displays your application title and description along with the logo, if you uploaded one. When the user accepts the request, they are sent back to the Callback URL you defined in step 2. The URL will have a frob parameter added to it. For example, if your Callback URL was http://test.com/auth.php then the user might be redirected to http://test.com/auth.php?frob=185-837403740 (The frob value in this example is '185-837403740'). This does not happen when I am in my iframe window but it does happen in my full browser window.

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• Windows Media Player on top other DIV

  - by HP

  I have an embed window media player which is always on top of other DIV tags. I used wmode = opaque; WindowlessVideo = -1 but it does not help. Does anyone know how to make it appear below a certain element of the page. <object type="application/x-oleobject" classid="CLSID:6BF52A52-394A-11D3-B153-00C04F79FAA6" codebase= "http://activex.microsoft.com/activex/controls/mplayer/en/nsmp2inf.cab#Version=5,1,52,701" width="345" height="45"><param name="URL" value= "http://nhacso.net/Music/nghe_song.aspx?id=100004995" /> <param name="EnableContextMenu" value="0" /> <param name="uiMode" value="full" /> <param name="stretchToFit" value="True" /> <param name="AnimationAtStart" value="false" /> <param name="playcount" value="10" /> <param name="Volume" value="100" /> <param name="autostart" value="0" /> <param name="wmode" value="opaque" /> <param name="WindowlessVideo" value="-1" /> <embed src="http://nhacso.net/Music/nghe_song.aspx?id=100004995" type="application/x-mplayer2" width="345" height="45" align= "center" border="0" autostart="0" transparentatstart="1" animationatstart="1" showcontrols="true" showaudiocontrols="1" showpositioncontrols="0" enablecontextmenu="0" autosize="0" showstatusbar="1" displaysize="false" playcount="10" wmode="opaque" windowlessvideo="-1" /></object> Thanks

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• Runtime Error 1004 using Select with several workbooks

  - by Johaen

  I have an Excel workbook which pulls out data from two other workbooks. Since the data changes hourly there is the possibility that this macro is used more than one time a day for the same data. So I just want to select all previous data to this date period and want to delete them. Later on the data will be copied in anyway. But as soon as I want to use WBSH.Range(Cells(j, "A"), Cells(lastRow - 1, "M")).Select the code stopes with Error 1004 Application-defined or object-defined error. Followed just a snippet of the code with the relevant part. What is wrong here? 'Set source workbook Dim currentWb As Workbook Set currentWb = ThisWorkbook Set WBSH = currentWb.Sheets("Tracking") 'Query which data from the tracking files shoud get pulled out to the file CheckDate = Application.InputBox(("From which date you want to get data?" & vbCrLf & "Format: yyyy/mm/dd "), "Tracking data", Format(Date - 1, "yyyy/mm/dd")) 'states the last entry which is done ; know where to start ; currentWb File With currentWb.Sheets("Tracking") lastRow = .Range("D" & .Rows.Count).End(xlUp).Row lastRow = lastRow + 1 End With 'just last 250 entries get checked since not so many entries are made in one week j = lastRow - 250 'Check if there is already data to the look up date in the analyses sheet and if so deletes these records Do j = j + 1 'Exit Sub if there is no data to compare to prevent overflow If WBSH.Cells(j + 1, "C").Value = "" Then Exit Do End If Loop While WBSH.Cells(j, "C").Value < CheckDate If j <> lastRow - 1 Then 'WBSH.Range(Cells(j, "A"), Cells(lastRow - 1, "M")).Select 'Selection.ClearContents End If Thank you!

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• Problem Routing domains subfolder

  - by hkda150

  Hi there, I'm pretty new to ASP.NET MVC and I hope it is not a too silly question. So here it comes. I have ... a ASP.NET MVC application with a domain similar to http://mydomain/mysubfoler1/myappfolder My problem... The problem for me is the routing of my application (it worked fine without using a subfolder after the domain-name). The applications homepage loads not to bad, with css files but without ressources like images (defined in css files) and without jQuery ajax calls similar to /mycontroller/myaction links are only working once (the second time I get a page similar to this link: http://mydomain/mysubfoler1/myappfolder/myController/myController/myAction) Here's my Global.asax contaning the routing: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "myController", action = "Index", id = "" } defaults ); routes.MapRoute( "Root", "", new { controller = "myController", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } protected void Application_Start() { ViewEngines.Engines.Clear(); ViewEngines.Engines.Add(new MyApplicationWeb.LocalizationWebFormViewEngine()); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); //RouteDebug.RouteDebugger.RewriteRoutesForTesting(RouteTable.Routes); } Any suggestions? My first suggestion was to use areas like: "mysubfolder1/myappfolder/{controller}/{action}/{id}" (but without any luck) Thank you very much for your help!

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• CherryPy always returning HTTP 200 [closed]

  - by DarkArctic

  I'm having a bit of a problem when browsing to a non-existent resource. I get a response code of 200 instead of 404. I'm using the MethodDispatcher and I have a class that overloads the __getattr__ method to instantiate a resource if a child exists or to return AttributeError if one doesn't. My class is always returning the AttributeError correctly, but the data I actually get is always from the last good resource. Here's a simplified (except for __getattr__) version of my class: class BaseResource(object): exposed = True def __init__(self, name): self.children = [] # Pretend this has child resources def __getattr__(self, name): if name in self._children: uuid, application, obj_type, server = self._children[name] try: resource = getattr(app[application], obj_type) except AttributeError as e: raise cherrypy.HTTPError(500, e) return resource(uuid) else: raise AttributeError('Child with name \'{}\' could not be found.'.format(name)) def GET(self): cherrypy.log.error('*** {} not found, raising AttributeError'.format(name)) return 'GET request for {}'.format(self._name) So fetching I get the following when I browse to the following resources: http://localhost:8000/users - This resource exists, so it returns it correctly. http://localhost:8000/users/fake - This returns the "users" resource giving an HTTP 200. http://localhost:8000/users/fake/reallyfake - This returns the "users" resource again. So my question is, where can I start looking to find out why my code isn't returning a 404 for a non-existent resource. I'm sure I've done something wrong, but I'm not sure what. Whatever I did wrong I've undone and I'm now getting a 404 returned correctly. I'm sorry I can't give any detail on what the issue was, but I'm honestly not sure what I did.

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• after assembling jar - No Persistence provider for EntityManager named ....

  - by alabalaa

  im developing a standalone application and it works fine when starting it from my ide(intellij idea), but after creating an uberjar and start the application from it javax.persistence.spi.PersistenceProvider is thrown saying "No Persistence provider for EntityManager named testPU" here is my persistence.xml which is placed under meta-inf directory: <persistence-unit name="testPU" transaction-type="RESOURCE_LOCAL"> <provider>org.hibernate.ejb.HibernatePersistence</provider> <class>test.model.Configuration</class> <properties> <property name="hibernate.connection.username" value="root"/> <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class" value="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"/> <property name="hibernate.connection.password" value="root"/> <property name="hibernate.connection.url" value="jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/test"/> <property name="hibernate.show_sql" value="true"/> <property name="hibernate.dialect" value="org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLInnoDBDialect"/> <property name="hibernate.c3p0.timeout" value="300"/> <property name="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto" value="update"/> </properties> </persistence-unit> and here is how im creating the entity manager factory: emf = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory("testPU"); im using maven and tried the assembly plug-in with the default configuration fot it, i dont have much experience with assembling jars and i dont know if im missing something, so if u have any ideas ill be glad to hear them

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• Enterprise integration of disparate systems

  - by Chris Latta

  We're about to embark on a fairly large integration effort to kill off a bunch of Access and Sql Server databases and get everything into one coherent enterprise system. There are also a number of other systems (accounting, CRM, payroll, MS Exchange) that hold critical data that we need to integrate (use for data validation in other systems), report on and otherwise expose. It is likely that some of these systems will change in the next few years, so we need to isolate our systems to be ready for change. Ideally we would be able to expose our forms in a consistent manner across as many of our our systems as possible without having to re-develop them for each system. We are currently targeting SharePoint (2007 and soon 2010), Office (2007 and soon 2010 - Word, Excel, PowerPoint and Outlook), Reporting Services, .Net console applications, .Net Windows applications, shell extensions, and with the possibility of exposing some functionality on mobile devices (BlackBerries currently, maybe iPhones later) and via our website. We're moving development to Visual Studio 2010 (from 2005) ahead of migrating to SharePoint 2010 and Office 2010. Given that most of our development is presently targeted to the .Net framework (mostly in C#) it seems logical to stick with this unless there is some compelling reason to switch frameworks/platform for some aspects. We're thinking of your standard Database-Data Integration layer-Business Objects Layer-Web Services (or REST) layer-Client Application plus doing our own client application with WPF (or something else?) forms that can also be exposed in the MS systems (SharePoint, Office, Windows). So, we don't want much, just everything :) Basically we need to isolate ourselves from database and systems changes, create an API that can be used throughout our systems and then make this functionality available in our client applications. I'm very keen to get pointers from anyone who has tips on how to pull this off. Should we look at the Enterprise Library as a place to start? Is REST with ASP.Net MVC2 a better solution than Web Services for a system like this? Will WPF deliver forms re-use or is there something better?

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• How to get timestamp of tick precision in .NET / C#?

  - by Hermann

  Up until now I used DateTime.Now for getting timestamps, but I noticed that if you print DateTime.Now in a loop you will see that it increments in descrete jumps of approx. 15 ms. But for certain scenarios in my application I need to get the most accurate timestamp possible, preferably with tick (=100 ns) precision. Any ideas? Update: Apparently, StopWatch / QueryPerformanceCounter is the way to go, but it can only be used to measure time, so I was thinking about calling DateTime.Now when the application starts up and then just have StopWatch run and then just add the elapsed time from StopWatch to the initial value returned from DateTime.Now. At least that should give me accurate relative timestamps, right? What do you think about that (hack)? NOTE: StopWatch.ElapsedTicks is different from StopWatch.Elapsed.Ticks! I used the former assuming 1 tick = 100 ns, but in this case 1 tick = 1 / StopWatch.Frequency. So to get ticks equivalent to DateTime use StopWatch.Elapsed.Ticks. I just learned this the hard way. NOTE 2: Using the StopWatch approach, I noticed it gets out of sync with the real time. After about 10 hours, it was ahead by 5 seconds. So I guess one would have to resync it every X or so where X could be 1 hour, 30 min, 15 min, etc. I am not sure what the optimal timespan for resyncing would be since every resync will change the offset which can be up to 20 ms.

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• Unable to dismiss MFMailComposeViewController, delegate not called

  - by Rod

  HI, I am calling MFMailComposeViewController from UITableViewController. Problem is, delegate method mailComposeController:(MFMailComposeViewController)controllerdidFinishWithResult* is never called when I select Cancel or Send button in Mail compose window. Here is the table view class: @implementation DetailsTableViewController - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (indexPath.section==0 && indexPath.row==4){ //SEND MAIL MFMailComposeViewController *controller = [[MFMailComposeViewController alloc] init]; controller.mailComposeDelegate = self; if ([MFMailComposeViewController canSendMail]) { [controller setSubject:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"Ref %@",[item objectForKey:@"reference"]]]; [controller setMessageBody:@" " isHTML:NO]; [controller setToRecipients:[NSArray arrayWithObject:[item objectForKey:@"email"]]]; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; } [controller release]; } } - (void)mailComposeController:(MFMailComposeViewController*)controllerdidFinishWithResult:(MFMailComposeResult)result error:(NSError*)error { // NEVER REACHES THIS PLACE [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; NSLog (@"mail finished"); } The application don't crash. After Cancel or Send button is presses Compose Window stays on the screen with buttons disabled. I can exit application pressing Home key. I am able to open other Modal Views form TableView but not MailCompose.

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• Thumbnail image saved with worse quality on Windows Server 2003

  - by Angelo

  Hello, In asp.net 2.0 application I am trying to create thumbnails from uploaded images. However when I test the application on my PC under Windows7 it works fine, but on the real Windows 2003 Server the resized image has worse quality. Where this difference could come from? Different JPEG codec or what, if Yes how it can be updated on Win 2003 Server? Thanks! Here is the code: Resize of the Image: Bitmap newBmp = new Bitmap(imgWidth, imgHeight, PixelFormat.Format24bppRgb); newBmp.SetResolution(inputBmp.HorizontalResolution, inputBmp.VerticalResolution); //Create a graphics object attached to the new bitmap Graphics newBmpGraphics = Graphics.FromImage(newBmp); newBmpGraphics.InterpolationMode = InterpolationMode.HighQualityBicubic; newBmpGraphics.SmoothingMode = SmoothingMode.HighQuality; newBmpGraphics.PixelOffsetMode = PixelOffsetMode.HighQuality; newBmpGraphics.DrawImage(inputBmp, new Rectangle(0, 0, imgWidth, imgHeight), new Rectangle(0, 0, inputBmp.Width, inputBmp.Height), GraphicsUnit.Pixel); Save of the Image: System.IO.Stream imgStream = new System.IO.MemoryStream(); //Get the ImageCodecInfo for the desired target format ImageCodecInfo destCodec = FindCodecForType(ImageMimeTypes.JPEG); if (destCodec == null) { //No codec available for that format throw new ArgumentException("The requested format image/jpeg does not have an available codec installed", "destFormat"); } //Create an EncoderParameters collection to contain the //parameters that control the dest format's encoder EncoderParameters destEncParams = new EncoderParameters(1); EncoderParameter qualityParam = new EncoderParameter(System.Drawing.Imaging.Encoder.Quality,(long)quality); destEncParams.Param[0] = qualityParam; //Save w/ the selected codec and encoder parameters inputBmp.Save(imgStream, destCodec, destEncParams); Bitmap destBitmap = new Bitmap(imgStream);

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• How to make Spring load a JDBC Driver BEFORE initializing Hibernate's SessionFactory?

  - by Bill_BsB

  I'm developing a Spring(2.5.6)+Hibernate(3.2.6) web application to connect to a custom database. For that I have custom JDBC Driver and Hibernate Dialect. I know for sure that these custom classes work (hard coded stuff on my unit tests). The problem, I guess, is with the order on which things get loaded by Spring. Basically: Custom Database initializes Spring load beans from web.xml Spring loads ServletBeans(applicationContext.xml) Hibernate kicks in: shows version and all the properties correctly loaded. Hibernate's HbmBinder runs (maps all my classes) LocalSessionFactoryBean - Building new Hibernate SessionFactory DriverManagerConnectionProvider - using driver: MyCustomJDBCDriver at CustomDBURL I get a SQLException: No suitable driver found for CustomDBURL Hibernate loads the Custom Dialect My CustomJDBCDriver finally gets registered with DriverManager (log messages) SettingsFactory runs SchemaExport runs (hbm2ddl) I get a SQLException: No suitable driver found for CustomDBURL (again?!) Application get successfully deployed but there are no tables on my custom Database. Things that I tried so far: Different techniques for passing hibernate properties: embedded in the 'sessionFactory' bean, loaded from a hibernate.properties file. Nothing worked but I didn't try with hibernate.cfg.xml file neither with a dataSource bean yet. MyCustomJDBCDriver has a static initializer block that registers it self with the DriverManager. Tried different combinations of lazy initializing (lazy-init="true") of the Spring beans but nothing worked. My custom JDBC driver should be the first thing to be loaded - not sure if by Spring but...! Can anyone give me a solution for this or maybe a hint for what else I could try? I can provide more details (huge stack traces for instance) if that helps. Thanks in advance.

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• Programmatically change the icon of the executable

  - by Dennis Delimarsky

  I am developing an application called WeatherBar. Its main functionality is based on its interaction with the Windows 7 taskbar — it changes the icon depending on the weather conditions in a specific location. The icons I am using in the application are all stored in a compiled native resource file (.res) — I am using it instead of the embedded resource manifest for icons only. By default, I modify the Icon property of the main form to change the icons accordingly and it works fine, as long as the icon is not pinned to the taskbar. When it gets pinned, the icon in the taskbar automatically switches to the default one for the executable (with index 0 in the resource file). After doing a little bit of research, I figured that a way to change the icon would be changing the shortcut icon (as all pinned applications are actually shortcuts stored in the user folder). But it didn't work. I assume that I need to change the icon for the executable, and therefore use UpdateResource, but I am not entirely sure about this. My executable is not digitally signed, so it shouldn't be an issue modifying it. What would be the way to solve this issue?

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• Random number generation in MVC applications

  - by SlimShaggy

  What is the correct way of generating random numbers in an ASP.NET MVC application if I need exactly one number per request? According to MSDN, in order to get randomness of sufficient quality, it is necessary to generate multiple numbers using a single System.Random object, created once. Since a new instance of a controller class is created for each request in MVC, I cannot use a private field initialized in the controller's constructor for the Random object. So in what part of the MVC app should I create and store the Random object? Currently I store it in a static field of the controller class and lazily initialize it in the action method that uses it: public class HomeController : Controller { ... private static Random random; ... public ActionResult Download() { ... if (random == null) random = new Random(); ... } } Since the "random" field can be accessed by multiple instances of the controller class, is it possible for its value to become corrupted if two instances attempt to initialize it simultaneously? And one more question: I know that the lifetime of statics is the lifetime of the application, but in case of an MVC app what is it? Is it from IIS startup till IIS shutdown?

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• Keyboard not dismissed

  - by sgosha

  I am developing a messaging application that have SMS.app-like UI. Conversation screen has text input field at the bottom which is moved up with keyboard. Tapping on conversation area dismisses keyboard by calling resignFirstResponder method on UITextView that we use. This usually works fine, but users report a weird bug which I can't reproduce and fix. People say that sometimes onscreen keyboard doesn't go away when they tap on conversation area, though text input field loses input focus. Once the view enters that abnormal state users are able to type with keyboard, but text that is being entered is not visible anywhere. This bug happens in one of conversation views and since then no one text input field in other views doesn't work as expected. The only way to stop this weird behavior is killing application from multitasking bar. Even more weird thing is that keyboard stays visible while navigating between view controllers in UINavigationController. I noticed two things: - if tap on ' Anyone else experiencing same problems. Any ideas on what may cause this bug?

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• Failed to create a 'System.Windows.RoutedEventHandler' from the text 'Button_Click'

  - by ay89

  In my windows phone 8 application, while trying to create a dependency property I am always getting this exception. what I am doing wrong, plz guide me. {System.Windows.Markup.XamlParseException: Failed to create a 'System.Windows.RoutedEventHandler' from the text 'Button_Click'. [Line: 108 Position: 66] at System.Windows.Application.LoadComponent(Object component, Uri resourceLocator) at com.sap.View.HomePage.InitializeComponent() at com.sap.View.HomePage..ctor()} this is code-behind of Header public static readonly DependencyProperty MenuClickProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("MenuClick", typeof(RoutedEventHandler), typeof(Header), new PropertyMetadata(OnMenuClickHandlerChanged)); public RoutedEventHandler MenuClick { get { return (RoutedEventHandler)GetValue(MenuClickProperty); } set { SetValue(MenuClickProperty, new RoutedEventHandler(value)); } } private static void OnMenuClickHandlerChanged(DependencyObject d, DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs e) { Header header = d as Header; header.OnMenuClickHandlerPropertyChanged(e); } private void OnMenuClickHandlerPropertyChanged(DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs e) { MenuButton.Click += MenuClick; } this is in my user control (Header) <Button Click="{Binding Path=MenuClick, Source={RelativeSource Mode=Self}}" /> this is how i am including control on my Page: <myControls:Header Title="{Binding Title}" MenuClick="Button_Click" /> this is in code-behind: public void Button_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { OpenSettings(); }

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• "|" pipe operator not working in command line in C++

  - by user332024

  I am having a windows application interacting with DB2 database. In my application i have code to execute some DB2 commands through command line interface. I have used windowsAPI "ShellExecuteEx()" to execute those DB2 commands through command line. Following is the code written to execute DB2 command through command line. string command = "/c /w /i DB2 UNCATALOG NODE DB_DATABASE "" test.log | echo %date% %time% test.log SHELLEXECUTEINFO shellInfo; ZeroMemory(&shellInfo, sizeof(shellInfo)); shellInfo.cbSize = sizeof(shellInfo); shellInfo.fMask = SEE_MASK_FLAG_NO_UI | SEE_MASK_NOCLOSEPROCESS; //shellInfo.lpFile = "db2cmd"; shellInfo.lpFile = "db2cmd"; shellInfo.lpParameters = command.c_str(); The code is executed successfully , however if test.log is observered i only get result of DB2 command and not date and time. If you see the above command there is "|" pipe operator and echo command to log date and time in test.log Please note that if I execute above DB2 command through separately command line i.e. not through code. I am able to view date and time log along with DB2 command result in test.log. Following is the full command which i executed through command line. DB2CMD /c /i /w DB2 UNCATALOG NODE DB_DATABASE "" test.log | echo %date% %time% test.log According to me since DB2 command is executed successfully through code, there is problem with only usage of "|" pipe operator or echo command.

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• How do i integrate paypal in my website? Java

  - by Nitesh Panchal

  Hello, I want to integrate paypal in my java web application. I saw that they offer many methods to accomplish this. But i want my visitors to remain on my site only. My friend told me that Paypal offers webservice. But i can't seem to find any documentation on Paypal site. If anybody could help me with this, i would be really very grateful. Please offer me the relevant links on Paypal where i could read and get my things done. Secondly, my friend also told me that we need to give location to paypal where my visitors would be redirected once paypal payment is complete. But i am confused. I am working on localhost. How would Paypal know about my localhost? I have already created my sandbox testing account. What should be my next step. Please explain me in detail. I don't know anything about Paypal. Once i created a demo application of Express checkout where they give a simple button of Pay Now and on clicking on it shopping cart etc appears. But now i want my visitors to stay on same website. Thanks in advance :)

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• How to run a long task in backgroung in iOS applications?

  - by John Canady

  I am developing an application which requires running a task in background. I am trying this by calling a method which will retrieve(download) data from web server through web services. this method will call some more methods which are in different view controller classes. Here when I tap on home button of device, the method is calling but no further execution of the remaining code. This is the code I have written in (void)applicationDidEnterBackground:(UIApplication )application { UIApplication app = [UIApplication sharedApplication]; UIBackgroundTaskIdentifier bgTask = 0; bgTask = [app beginBackgroundTaskWithExpirationHandler:^{ [app endBackgroundTask:bgTask]; bgTask = UIBackgroundTaskInvalid; }]; // Start the long-running task and return immediately. dispatch_async(dispatch_get_global_queue(DISPATCH_QUEUE_PRIORITY_DEFAULT, 0), ^{ // Do the work associated with the task. NSString *updatekey = [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] objectForKey:@"updatesetting"]; if([updatekey isEqualToString:@"enabled"]) { DataSettingsView *periodicUpdate = [[DataSettingsView alloc] init]; [periodicUpdate updateDataPeriodically]; //[periodicUpdate viewDidLoad]; //[periodicUpdate release]; } [app endBackgroundTask:bgTask]; bgTask = UIBackgroundTaskInvalid; }); } some one please help me in this background execution of long tasks with some example of code. Some help will appreciated and helpful to me.

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• How to efficiently implement a strategy pattern with spring ?

  - by Anth0

  I have a web application developped in J2EE 1.5 with Spring framework. Application contains "dashboards" which are simple pages where a bunch of information are regrouped and where user can modify some status. Managers want me to add a logging system in database for three of theses dashboards. Each dashboard has different information but the log should be traced by date and user's login. What I'd like to do is to implement the Strategy pattern kind of like this : interface DashboardLog { void createLog(String login, Date now); } // Implementation for one dashboard class PrintDashboardLog implements DashboardLog { Integer docId; String status; void createLog(String login, Date now){ // Some code } } class DashboardsManager { DashboardLog logger; String login; Date now; void createLog(){ logger.log(login,now); } } class UpdateDocAction{ DashboardsManager dbManager; void updateSomeField(){ // Some action // Now it's time to log dbManagers.setLogger = new PrintDashboardLog(docId, status); dbManagers.createLog(); } } Is it "correct" (good practice, performance, ...) to do it this way ? Is there a better way ? Note :I did not write basic stuff like constructors and getter/setter.

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• Avoiding resource (localizable string) duplication with String.Format

  - by Hrvoje Prgeša

  I'm working on a application (.NET, but not relevant) where there is large potential for resource/string duplication - most of these strings are simple like: Volume: 33 Volume: 33 (dB) Volume 33 dB Volume (dB) Command - Volume: 33 (dB) where X, Y and unit are the same. Should I define a new resource for each of the string or is it preferable to use String.Format to simplify some of these, eg.: String.Format("{0}: {1}", Resource.Volume, 33) String.Format("{0}: {1} {2}", Resource.Volume, 33, Resource.dB) Resource.Volume String.Format("{0} ({1})", 33, Resource.dB) String.Format("{0} ({1})", Resource.Volume, Resource.dB) String.Format("Command - {0}: {1} {2}", Resource.Volume, 33, Resource.dB) I would also define string formats like "{0}: {1}" in the resources so there would be a possibility of reordering words... I would not use this approach selectivly and not throughout the whole application.. And how about: String.Format("{0}: {1}", Volume, Resource.Muted_Volume) // = Volume: Muted Resource.Muted_Volume String.Format("{0}: {1} (by user {2})", Volume, Resource.Muted_Volume, "xy") // = Volume: Muted (by user xy) The advantage is cutting the number of resource by the factor of 4-5. Are there any hidden dangers of using this approach? Could someone give me an example (language) where this would not work correctly?

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• Excel VBA: Error Handling with Case Statement

  - by AME

  I am trying to validate a file that is uploaded by the user using the code below. The error handler checks the top row of the uploaded file for three specific column names. If one or more of the column names is not present, the program should return a prompt to the user notifying them which column(s) are missing from the file that they uploaded and then close the file. There are a couple issues with my current VBA code that I am seeking help with: The prompt doesn't specify which column(s) are missing to the user. The error handler is triggered even when all required columns are present in the uploaded file. Code: Sub getworkbook() ' Get workbook... Dim ws As Worksheet Dim filter As String Dim targetWorkbook As Workbook, wb As Workbook Dim Ret As Variant Set targetWorkbook = Application.ActiveWorkbook ' get the customer workbook filter = ".xlsx,.xls" caption = "Please select an input file " Ret = Application.GetOpenFilename(filter, , caption) If Ret = False Then Exit Sub Set wb = Workbooks.Open(Ret) On Error GoTo ErrorLine: 'Check for columns var1 = ActiveSheet.Range("1:1").Find("variable1", LookIn:=xlValues, LookAt:=xlWhole, MatchCase:=True).Column var2 = ActiveSheet.Range("1:1").Find("variable2", LookIn:=xlValues, LookAt:=xlWhole, MatchCase:=True).Column var3 = ActiveSheet.Range("1:1").Find("variable3", LookIn:=xlValues, LookAt:=xlWhole, MatchCase:=True).Column ErrorLine: MsgBox ("The selected file is missing a key data column, please upload a correctly formated file.") If Error = True Then ActiveWorkSheet.Close wb.Sheets(1).Move Before:=targetWorkbook.Sheets("Worksheet2") ActiveSheet.Name = "DATA" End Sub

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