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• Styling individual radio buttons in drupal form

  - by Andrew

  I have this group of radio buttons in which each of individual button has of its own position set through style attribute. I would like to how can I archive the same by using drupal form api. I found how to style as whole but, not as individual control within group. Here's how my html code look like - <input type="radio" name="base_location" checked="checked" value="0" style="margin-left:70px;float:left;"/><span style="float:left;">District</span> <input type="radio" name="base_location" value="1" style="margin-left:50px;float:left;"/><span style="float:left;">MRT</span> <input type="radio" name="base_location" value="2" style="margin-left:60px;float:left;"/><span style="float:left;">Address</span> And this is the drupal code I'm stuck at - $form['base_location'] = array( '#type' => 'radios', '#title' => t('base location'), '#default_value' => variable_get('search_type', 0), '#options' => array( '0'=>t('District'), '1'=>t('MRT'), '2'=>t('Address')), '#description' => t('base location'), I'm aware of #type=radio existence. However, I do not know how to group all my radio buttons together in this regard. If I use same array key for all of them, they would collide each other. If I don't, they aren't seen as part of the same group. I thank you in advance.

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• How to create custom pages (Drupal 6.x)

  - by jc70

  In the template.php file I inserted the code below: I found a tutorial online that gives the code, but I'm confused on how to get it to work. I copied the code below and inserted it into the template.php from the theme HTML5_base. I duplicated the page.tpl.php file and created custom pages -- page-gallery.tpl.php and page-articles.tpl.php. I inserted some text to the files just see that I've navigated to the pages w/ the changes. It looks like Drupal is not recognizing gallery.tpl.php and page-articles.tpl.php. In the template.php there are the following functions: html5_base_preprocess_page() html5_base_preprocess_node() html5_base_preprocess_block() In the tutorial it uses these functions: phptemplate_preprocess_page() phptemplate_preprocess_block() phptemplate_preprocess_node() function phptemplate_preprocess_page(&$vars) { //code block from the Drupal handbook //the path module is required and must be activated if(module_exists('path')) { //gets the "clean" URL of the current page $alias = drupal_get_path_alias($_GET['q']); $suggestions = array(); $template_filename = 'page'; foreach(explode('/', $alias) as $path_part) { $template_filename = $template_filename.'-'.$path_part; $suggestions[] = $template_filename; } $vars['template_files'] = $suggestions; } } function phptemplate_preprocess_node(&$vars) { //default template suggestions for all nodes $vars['template_files'] = array(); $vars['template_files'][] = 'node'; //individual node being displayed if($vars['page']) { $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-page'; $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-'.$vars['node']->type.'-page'; $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-'.$vars['node']->nid.'-page'; } //multiple nodes being displayed on one page in either teaser //or full view else { //template suggestions for nodes in general $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-'.$vars['node']->type; $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-'.$vars['node']->nid; //template suggestions for nodes in teaser view //more granular control if($vars['teaser']) { $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-'.$vars['node']->type.'-teaser'; $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-'.$vars['node']->nid.'-teaser'; } } } function phptemplate_preprocess_block(&$vars) { //the "cleaned-up" block title to be used for suggestion file name $subject = str_replace(" ", "-", strtolower($vars['block']->subject)); $vars['template_files'] = array('block', 'block-'.$vars['block']->delta, 'block-'.$subject); }

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• Custom Silverlight Splash Screen causes White Screen of Death

  - by wickster05

  I'm developing a Silverlight 4 application and I've created a custom splash screen. At first glance, the custom splash screen worked well - really well. After a few days I started noticing that the splash screen would no longer show and the screen would remain blank. This seems to only occur when I open multiple IE tabs/windows all pointing to this same application. The first few will load fine, while the following tabs/windows will remain "white" - as if nothing has/is loaded. This doesn't appear to be an issue with other browsers that I've tested with (i.e., Firefox and Chrome). Unfortunately, this product requires multiple screens to be open (and I'm not going to require our users to use a non-Microsoft internet browser). Furthermore, we have another product that hosts this Silverlight application inside a WPF WebBrowser control (which is similar to IE - and experiences the same issues as delineated above). Does anyone have any ideas on how to get around this? This is becoming increasingly frustrating. I should also point out, that the default splash screen seems to avoid these issues. When I remove the custom splash screen, we no longer see these problems. ANY help would be appreciated greatly! -Tom

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• ASP .NET Added Event Handlers to buttons on Page_Load. Event handlers do not fire the first click, b

  - by John

  Background: I am customizing an existing ASP .NET / C# application. It has it's own little "framework" and conventions for developers to follow when extending/customizing its functionality. I am currently extending some of it's administrative functionality, to which the framework provides a contract to enforce implementation of the GetAdministrationInterface() method, which returns System.Web.UI.Control. This method is called during the Page_Load() method of the page hosting the GUI interface. Problem: I have three buttons in my GUI, each of which have been assigned an Event Handler. My administration GUI loads up perfectly fine, but clicking any of the buttons doesn't do what I expect them to do. However, when I click them a second time, the buttons work. I placed breakpoints at the the beginning of each event handler method and stepped through my code. On the first click, none of the event handlers are triggered. On the second click, they are triggered. Any ideas? Example of Button Definition Button btn = new Button(); btn.Text = "Click Me Locked Screen"; bth.Click += new EventHandler(Btn_Click); Example of Event Handler Method Definition void Btn_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Do Something }

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• How to make placeholder varablies in jquery validate 1.7?

  - by chobo2

  Hi I am using jquery 1.4.2 and jquery validate 1.7(http://bassistance.de/jquery-plugins/jquery-plugin-validation/) Say I have this example that I just grabbed off some random site(http://www.webreference.com/programming/javascript/jquery/form_validation/) 8 <script type="text/javascript"> 9 $(document).ready(function() { 10 $("#form1").validate({ 11 rules: { 12 name: "required",// simple rule, converted to {required:true} 13 email: {// compound rule 14 required: true, 15 email: true 16 }, 17 url: { 18 url: true 19 }, 20 comment: { 21 required: true 22 } 23 }, 24 messages: { 25 comment: "Please enter a comment." 26 } 27 }); 28 }); 29 </script> now is it possible to do something like this 10 $("#form1").validate({ var NameHolder = "name" 11 rules: { 12 NameHolder: "required",// simple rule, converted to {required:true} 13 email: {// compound rule 14 required: true, 15 email: true So basically I want to make sort of a global variable to hold theses rule names( what correspond to the names on that html control). My concern is the names of html controls can change and it kinda sucks that I will have to go around and change it in many places of my code to make it work again. So basically I am wondering is there away to make a global variable to store this name. So if I need to change the name I only have to change it in one spot in my javascript file sort of the way stopping magic numbers ?

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• VS2010 renders controls JS awkwardly

  - by Juergen Hoffmann

  I have created a Website Project in VS2010. My Controls are not rendered correctly. The JS that is produced is not correctly formatted. Here is an example: protected void Page_PreRender(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { objListBox.Attributes.Add("onchange", "Control_doPostBack('" + objListBox.ClientID + "','ListBox_OnClick'); return false;"); objListBox.Attributes.Add("onblur", "Control_doPostBack('" + trListbox.ClientID + "','ListBox_OnBlur'); return false;"); img.Attributes.Add("onclick", "Control_doPostBack('" + trListbox.ClientID + "','IMG_OnClick'); return false;"); } } and the responding control is rendered as: <select size="4" name="ctl00$PlaceHolder_Content$drop$objListBox" onchange="Control_doPostBack(&#39;PlaceHolder_Content_drop_objListBox&#39;,&#39;ListBox_OnClick&#39;); return false;setTimeout(&#39;__doPostBack(\&#39;ctl00$PlaceHolder_Content$drop$objListBox\&#39;,\&#39;\&#39;)&#39;, 0)" id="PlaceHolder_Content_drop_objListBox" onblur="Control_doPostBack(&#39;PlaceHolder_Content_drop_trListbox&#39;,&#39;ListBox_OnBlur&#39;); return false;" style="position:absolute;"> </select> As you can see, the ' are rendered to &#39 which screwes up the Browser. Is there a tweak to msbuild or inside the project properties? Any help is highly appreciated.

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• Firefox extension: How to inject javascript into page and run it?

  - by el griz

  I'm writing a Firefox extension to allow users to annotate any page with text and/or drawings and then save an image of the page including the annotations. Use cases would be clients reviewing web pages, adding feedback to the page, saving the image of this and emailing it back to the web developer or testers taking annotated screenshots of GUI bugs etc. I wrote the annotation/drawing functionality in javascript before developing the extension. This script adds a <canvas> element to the page to draw upon as well as a toolbar (in a <div>) that contains buttons (each <canvas> elements) for the different draw tools e.g. line, box, ellipse, text, etc. This works fine when manually included in a page. I now need a way for the extension to: Inject this script into any page including pages I don't control. This needs to occur when the user invokes the extension, which can be after the page has loaded. Once injected the init() function in this script that adds the canvas and toolbar elements etc. needs to be run somehow, but I can't determine how to call this from the extension. Note that once injected I don't need this script to interact with the extension (as the extension just takes a screenshot of the entire document (and removes the added page elements) when the user presses the save button in the extension chrome).

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• Getting unhandled exception when DataTemplate is created dynamically using Silverlight 3.0

  - by Bhaskar

  Requirement is to create a reusable multi-select combobox custom control. To accomplish this, I am creating the DataTemplate dynamically through code and set the combobox ItemTemplate. I am able to load the datatemplate dynamically and set the ItemTemplate, but getting unhandled exception (code: 7054) when combobox is selected. Here is the code Class MultiSelCombBox: ComboBox { public override void OnApplyTemplate() { base.OnApplyTemplate(); CreateTemplate(); } void CreateTemplate() { DataTemplate dt = null; if (CreateItemTemplate) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(CheckBoxBind)) { dt = XamlReader.Load(@"<DataTemplate xmlns='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation' xmlns:x='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml' x:Name=""DropDownTemplate""><Grid xmlns='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation' xmlns:x='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml' x:Name=""CheckboxGrid""><TextBox xmlns='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation' xmlns:x='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml' x:Name=""test"" xml:space=""preserve"" Text='{Binding " + TextContent + "}'/></Grid></DataTemplate>") as DataTemplate; this.ItemTemplate = dt; } } } //Other code goes here }} what am i doing wrong? suggestion?

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• How to stream pdf document from servlet?

  - by Kumar

  Hi,I am creating pdf document using jasper report and i need to stream that pdf document from servlet.Can anyone help me where i did mistake.This is the code snippet which i am using in my application. ServletOutputStream servletOutputStream = response.getOutputStream(); String fileName="test.pdf"; response.setContentType("application/pdf"); response.setHeader("Content-Disposition","attachment; filename=\"" + fileName + "\""); response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-cache"); try { Map parameters = new HashMap(); parameters.put("SUBREPORT_DIR", JasperReportFilepath); parameters.put("TestId", testID); JasperPrint jprint=JasperFillManager.fillReport(filePath, parameters, conn); byte[] output=JasperExportManager.exportReportToPdf(jprint); System.out.println("Size====>"+output.length); servletOutputStream.write(output); servletOutputStream.flush(); servletOutputStream.close(); System.out.println("===============>Streaming perfectly"); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println("===============>+JasperException"+e.getMessage()); } and i could not get any error message also.Everything is working fine but document is not streaming. Please help me to sort out the problem.

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• Python on Mac: Fink? MacPorts? Builtin? Homebrew? Binary installer?

  - by BastiBechtold

  For the last few days, I have been trying to use Python for some audio development. The thing is, Mac OSX does not handle uninstalling stuff well. Actually, there is no way to uninstall anything. Once it is on your system, you better pray that it didn't do any funny stuff. Hence, I don't really want to rely on installer packages for Python. So I turn to Homebrew and install Python using Homebrew. Works fabulously. Using pip, Numpy, SciPy, Matplotlib were no (big) problem, either. Now I want to play audio. There is a host of different packages out there, but pip does not seem willing to install any. But, there is a binary distribution for PyGame, which I guess should work with the built-in Python. Hence my question: What would you do? Would you just install the binary distributions and hope that they interoperate well and never need uninstalling? Would you hack your way through whichever package control management system you prefer and deal with its problems? Something else?

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• C# class can not disguise to be another class because GetType method cannot be override

  - by zinking

  there is a statement in the CLR via C# saying in C#, one class cannot disguise to be another, because GetType is virutal and thus it cannot be override but I think in C# we can still hide the parent implementation of GetType. I must missed something if I hide the base GetType implementation then I can disguise my class to be another class, is that correct? The key here is not whether GetType is virutal or not, the question is can we disguise one class to be another in C# Following is the NO.4 answer from the possible duplicate, so My question is more on this. is this kind of disguise possible, if so, how can we say that we can prevent class type disguise in C# ? regardless of the GetType is virtual or not While its true that you cannot override the object.GetType() method, you can use "new" to overload it completely, thereby spoofing another known type. This is interesting, however, I haven't figured out how to create an instance of the "Type" object from scratch, so the example below pretends to be another type. public class NotAString { private string m_RealString = string.Empty; public new Type GetType() { return m_RealString.GetType(); } } After creating an instance of this, (new NotAString()).GetType(), will indeed return the type for a string. share|edit|flag answered Mar 15 at 18:39 Dr Snooze 213 By almost anything that looks at GetType has an instance of object, or at the very least some base type that they control or can reason about. If you already have an instance of the most derived type then there is no need to call GetType on it. The point is as long as someone uses GetType on an object they can be sure it's the system's implementation, not any other custom definition. – Servy Mar 15 at 18:54 add comment

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• ASP.net MVC Linq-To-SQL Many-To-Many Field Binding

  - by user336858

  Hi there, The short version of this question is "Is there a way to gracefully handle database insertion for an object that has a many-to-many field that has been set up in a partial class?" Apologies if it's been asked before. Example Suppose I have a typical MVC setup with the tables: Posts {PostID, ...} Categories {CategoryID, ...} A post can have more than one category, and a category can identify more than one post. Thus suppose further that I need an extra table: PostCategories {PostID, CategoryID, ...} This handles the many-to-many relationship between posts and categories. As far as I know, there's no way to do this in Linq-to-SQL right now so I have to shoehorn it in by adding a partial Post class to the project to add that functionality. Something like: public partial class Post { public IEnumerable<Category> Categories{ get { ... } set { ... } } } So I can now create a "Create" view that automatically populates a "Categories" UI item. This is where the trouble starts. So here's my question: How do you get automatic object model binding to work cleanly with an object that has a many-to-many relationship to control? The workaround that makes many-to-many relationships possible relies on the Post object having a PostID in order to be associated with CategoryID(s), which is only issued after the Post object has been submitted for validation and insertion. Bit of a Catch22 here. Any terminology, links, or tips you can provide would be tremendously helpful!

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• Test if Java trusts an SSL certificate

  - by Eric R. Rath

  My java web application uses the standard mail libraries to establish an IMAPS connection to a mail server under my control. The mail server used a valid SSL cert issued by a CA. When the cert expired, I renewed it from the same CA, and put the cert into use. But my web application wouldn't trust the new cert. We had never explicitly trusted the old cert, or managed any trust stores. I talked with someone from the CA, and we tracked it down to a difference in the intermediate certs between the old and new cert. The old one used multiple intermediates, including one tied to a root that must've been trusted by default by our version of Java. The new cert used only one intermediate cert, and it was tied to a root missing from our Java version's default trusted cert store. When we renew this cert again in the future, is there an easy way, given a new crt and intermediate crt file, test if Java will consider that cert valid? I didn't see anything in keytool that looked promising. A code solution is okay, but I'd prefer one based on the Java command-line tools.

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• Linq to SQL code generator features

  - by Anders Abel

  I'm very fond of Linq to SQL and the programming model it encourages. I think that in many cases when you are in control of both the database schema and the code it is not worth the effort to have different relational and object models for the data. Working with Linq to SQL makes it simple to have type safe data access from .NET, using the partial extension methods to implement business rules. Unfortunately I do not like the dbml designer due to the lack of a schema refresh function. So far I have used SqlMetal, but that lacks the customization options of the dbml designer. Because of that I've started working on a tool which regenerates the whole code file like SqlMetal, but has the ability to do the customizations that are available in the dbml designer (and maybe more in the future). The customizations will be described in an xml file which only contains those parts that shouldn't have default values. This should keep the xml file size down as well as the maintenance burden of it. To help me focus on the right features, I would like to know: What would be your favourite feature in a linq to sql code generator?

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• Difference in BackgroundWorker thread access in VS2010 / .NET 4.0?

  - by Jonners

  Here's an interesting one - in VS2005 / VS2008 running against .NET 2.0 / .NET 3.0 / .NET 3.5, a BackgroundWorker thread may not directly update controls on a WinForms form that initiated that thread - you'll get a System.InvalidOperationException out of the BackgroundWorker stating "Cross-thread operation not valid: Control 'thecontrol' accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on". I remember hitting this back in 2004 or so when I first started writing .NET WinForms apps with background threads. There are several ways around the problem - this is not a question asking for that answer. I've been told recently that this kind of operation is now allowed when written in VS2010 / .NET 4.0. This seems unlikely to me, since this kind of object access restriction has always been a fairly fundamental part of thread-safe programming. Allowing a BackgroundWorker thread direct access to objects owned not by itself but by its parent UI form seems contrary to that principle. A trawl through the .NET 4.0 docs hasn't revealed any obvious changes that could account for this behaviour. I don't have VS2010 / .NET 4.0 to test this out - does anyone who has access to that toolset know for sure whether the model has changed to allow that kind of thread interaction? I'd like to either take advantage of it in future, or deploy the cluestick. ;)

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• NSCollectionView: Can the same object not be in the array more than once or is this a bug?

  - by Sean

  I may be doing this all wrong, but I thought I was on the right track until I hit this little snag. Basically I was putting together a toy using NSCollectionView and trying to understand how to hook that all up using IB. I have a button which will add a couple of strings to the NSArrayController: The first time I press this button, my strings appear in the collection view as expected: The second time I press the button, the views scroll down and room is made - but the items don't appear to get added. I just see blank space: The button is implemented as follows (controller is a pointer to the NSArrayController I added in IB): - (IBAction)addStuff:(id)control { [controller addObjects:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"String 1",@"String 2",@"String 3",nil]]; } I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. Rather than try to explain all the connections/binds/etc, if you need more info, I'd be grateful if you could just take a quick look at the toy project itself. UPDATE: After more experimentation as suggested by James Williams, it seems the problem stems from having multiple objects with the same memory address in the array. This confuses either NSArrayController or NSCollectionView (not sure which). Changing my addStuff: to this resulted in the behavior I originally expected: [controller addObjects:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:[NSMutableString stringWithString:@"String 1"],[NSMutableString stringWithString:@"String 2"],[NSMutableString stringWithString:@"String 3"],nil]]; So the question now, I guess, is if this is a bug I should report to Apple or if this is intended/documented behavior and I just missed it?

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• Does QThread::sleep() require the event loop to be running?

  - by suszterpatt

  I have a simple client-server program written in Qt, where processes communicate using MPI. The basic design I'm trying to implement is the following: The first process (the "server") launches a GUI (derived from QMainWindow), which listens for messages from the clients (using repeat fire QTimers and asynchronous MPI receive calls), updates the GUI depending on what messages it receives, and sends a reply to every message. Every other process (the "clients") runs in an infinite loop, and all they are intended to do is send a message to the server process, receive the reply, go to sleep for a while, then wake up and repeat. Every process instantiates a single object derived from QThread, and calls its start() method. The run() method of these classes all look like this: from foo.cpp: void Foo::run() { while (true) { // Send message to the first process // Wait for a reply // Do uninteresting stuff with the reply sleep(3); // also tried QThread::sleep(3) } } In the client's code, there is no call to exec() anywhere, so no event loop should start. The problem is that the clients never wake up from sleeping (if I surround the sleep() call with two writes to a log file, only the first one is executed, control never reaches the second). Is this because I didn't start the event loop? And if so, what is the simplest way to achieve the desired functionality?

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• Call ASP.NET 2.0 Server side code from Javascript

  - by Kannabiran

  I'm struggling with this for the past 3 days. I need to call asp.net serverside code from Javascript when the user closes the browser. I'm using the following code to accomplish this. In my asp.net form I have various validation controls. Even if there are some validation errors, When I close the form the server side code works perfectly in my development box(windows 7). But the same code doesnt work in my production environment(windows server). Does it have something to do with the Validation summary or Validation controls. The button control has Causes validation set to false. So even if there is a validation error still my form will post back. Am I correct? I suspect the form is not getting post back to the server when there is a validation error. But i'm disabling all the validation controls in the javascript before calling the button click event. Can someone throw some light on this issue. There are few blogs which suggests to use JQUERY, AJAX (Pagemethods and script manager). function ConfirmClose(e) { var evtobj = window.event ? event : e; if (evtobj == e) { //firefox if (!evtobj.clientY) { evtobj.returnValue = message; } } else { //IE if (evtobj.clientY < 0) { DisablePageValidators(); document.getElementById('<%# buttonBrowserCloseClick.ClientID %>').click(); } } } function DisablePageValidators() { if ((typeof (Page_Validators) != "undefined") && (Page_Validators != null)) { var i; for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { ValidatorEnable(Page_Validators[i], false); } } } //HTML <div style="display:none" > <asp:Button ID="buttonBrowserCloseClick" runat="server" onclick="buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click" Text="Button" Width="141px" CausesValidation="False" /> //Server Code protected void buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //Some C# code goes here }

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• problem in showing and hiding dialog boxes in MFC

  - by Rakesh

  Hello all, I am trying to create a wizard like structure using dialog boxes...So I replaced the code in CDialog1App as below CDialog1Dlg* dlg = new CDialog1Dlg; m_pMainWnd = dlg; dlg->Create(IDD_DIALOG1); dlg->ShowWindow(SW_SHOW); the above worked fine...its displying the dialog box.but I have added another dialog box... So in the first dialog box if the user clicks Next it has to hide the first dialog box and display the second dialog.. //CDialog1 class void CDialog1Dlg::OnBnClickedNext() { // TODO: Add your control notification handler code here CDialog2* dialog2 = new CDialog2(); dialog2->Create(IDD_DIALOG2); dialog2->ShowWindow(SW_SHOW); this->ShowWindow(SW_HIDE); } in the above code am creating an object for the Dialog2 class and trying to show that.... Now the problem is,when I click next its hiding both the windows..What can I do..I tried several types but its still its not workin..Please dont suggest me to do with PropertySheet..It will work with that, i know ...but I want this using Dialog Box for some reason

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• Using IAM for user authentication

  - by mdavis6890

  I've read lots and lots of posts that touch on what I think should be a very common use case - but without finding exactly what I want, or a simple reason why it can't be done. I have some files on S3. I want to be able to grant certain users access to certain files, via a front end that I build. So far, I've made it work this way: I built the front end in Django, using it's built-in Users and Groups I have a model for Buckets, in which I mirror my S3 buckets. I have a m2m relationship from groups to buckets representing the S3 permissions. The user logs in and authenticates against Django's users. I grab from Django the list of buckets that the user is allowed to see I use boto to grab a list of links to files from those buckets and display to user. This works, but isn't ideal, and also just doesn't feel right. I've got to keep a mirror of the buckets, and I also have to maintain my own list of user/passwords and permissions, when AWS already has all that built in. What I really want is to simply create the users in IAM and use group permissions in IAM to control access to the S3 buckets. No duplication of data or function. My app would request a UN/PW from the user and use that to connect to IAM/S3 to pull the list of buckets and files, then display links to the user. Simple. How can I, or why can't I? Am I looking at this the wrong way? What's the "right" way to address this (I assume) very common use case?

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• JDBC call not executing

  - by dbyrne

  I am working on one of the DAOs for a medium sized web application. Unfortunately, it contains very convoluted logic, and makes hundreds of JDBC stored proc calls in loops. This is out of my control. I am working on a method inside the DAO which makes a single JDBC call. The simplified version of what this method looks like is this: DriverManager.registerDriver(new com.sybase.jdbc2.jdbc.SybDriver()); Connection con = DriverManager.getConnection((String)connectionDetails.get("DATABASE_URL") (String)connectionDetails.get("USERID"), (String)connectionDetails.get("PASSWORD")); String sqlToExecute = "{call " + STORED_PROC + "(?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?)}"; CallableStatement stmt = con.prepareCall(sqlToExecute); //Maybe I should try calling clearParameters here? stmt.setString(1,someData); //....Set of parameters.... if (!stmt.execute()) { //execute method never returns false } stmt.close(); Its pretty much a textbook JDBC call. All this stored proc does is insert a single row. Here is where things get crazy: This code works when you run it through a debugger line by line, but fails when you run it "full speed". Not only does it fail, but it doesn't throw any exception! The execute method always returns true. It just breezes right through the JDBC call without inserting a row to the database. If you go through the log files, copy the stored proc call and run it manually, it works (just like it does in debug mode). Whats strange is that the rest of the DAO, with all its hundreds of looped stored proc calls, works fine. My thinking is that Connection or CallableStatement is caching some value behind the scenes that is screwing things up. Has anyone ever seen anything like this before? A JDBC call failing with no exceptions? I know it will be impossible to provide a complete solution to this without seeing the whole application, I am just looking for suggestions on possible issues to investigate.

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• What is an elegant way to set up a leiningen project that requires different dependencies based on the build platform?

  - by Savanni D'Gerinel

  In order to do some multi-platform GUI development, I have just switched from GTK + Clojure (because it looks like the Java bindings for GTK never got ported to Windows) to SWT + Clojure. So far, so good in that I have gotten an uberjar built for Linux. The catch, though, is that I want to build an uberjar for Windows and I am trying to figure out a clean way to manage the project.clj file. At first, I thought I would set the classpath to point to the SWT libraries and then build the uberjar. This would require that I set a classpath to the SWT libraries before running the jar, but I would likely need a launcher script, anyway. However, leiningen seems to ignore the classpath in this instance because it always reports that Currently, project.clj looks like this for me: (defproject alyra.mana-punk/character "1.0.0-SNAPSHOT" :description "FIXME: write" :dependencies [[org.clojure/clojure "1.2.0"] [org.clojure/clojure-contrib "1.2.0"] [org.eclipse/swt-gtk-linux-x86 "3.5.2"]] :main alyra.mana-punk.character.core) The relevant line is the org.eclipse/swt-gtk-linux-x86 line. If I want to make an uberjar for Windows, I have to depend on org.eclipse/swt-win32-win32-x86, and another one for x86-64, and so on and so forth. My current solution is to simply create a separate branch for each build environment with a different project.clj. This seems kinda like using a semi to deliver a single gallon of milk, but I am using bazaar for version control, so branching and repeated integrations are easy. Maybe the better way is to have a project.linux.clj, project.win32.clj, etc, but I do not see any way to tell leiningen which project descriptor to use. What are other (preferably more elegant) ways to set up such an environment?

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• Java Socket Connection is flooding network OR resulting in high ping

  - by user1461100

  i have a little problem with my java socket code. I'm writing an android client application which is sending data to a java multithreaded socket server on my pc through direct(!) wireless connection. It works fine but i want to improve it for mobile applications as it is very power consuming by now. When i remove two special lines in my code, the cpu usage of my mobile device (htc one x) is totally okay but then my connection seems to have high ping rates or something like that... Here is a server code snippet where i receive the clients data: while(true) { try { .... Object obj = in.readObject(); if(obj != null) { Class clazz = obj.getClass(); String className = clazz.getName(); if(className.equals("java.lang.String")) { String cmd = (String)obj; if(cmd.equals("dc")) { System.out.println("Client "+id+" disconnected!"); Server.connectedClients[id-1] = false; break; } if(cmd.substring(0,1).equals("!")) { robot.keyRelease(PlayerEnum.getKey(cmd,id)); } else { robot.keyPress(PlayerEnum.getKey(cmd,id)); } } } } catch .... Heres the client part, where i send my data in a while loop: private void networking() { try { if(client != null) { .... out.writeObject(sendQueue.poll()); .... } } catch .... when i write it this why, i send data everytime the while loop gets executed.. when sendQueue is empty, a null "Object" will be send. this results in "high" network traffic and in "high" cpu usage. BUT: all send comments are received nearly immediately. when i change the code to following: while(true) ... if(sendQueue.peek() != null) { out.writeObject(sendQueue.poll()); } ... the cpu usage is totally okay but i'm getting some laggs.. the commands do not arrive fast enough.. as i said, it works fine (besides cpu usage) if i'm sending data(with that null objects) every while execution. but i'm sure that this is very rough coding style because i'm kind of flooding the network. any hints? what am i doing wrong?? Thanks for your Help! Sincerly yours, maaft

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• WPF: How to bind and update display with DataContext

  - by Am

  I'm trying to do the following thing: I have a TabControl with several tabs. Each TabControlItem.Content points to PersonDetails which is a UserControl Each BookDetails has a dependency property called IsEditMode I want a control outside of the TabControl , named ToggleEditButton, to be updated whenever the selected tab changes. I thought I could do this by changing the ToggleEditButton data context, by it doesn't seem to work (but I'm new to WPF so I might way off) The code changing the data context: private void tabControl1_SelectionChanged(object sender, SelectionChangedEventArgs e) { if (e.Source is TabControl) { if (e.Source.Equals(tabControl1)) { if (tabControl1.SelectedItem is CloseableTabItem) { var tabItem = tabControl1.SelectedItem as CloseableTabItem; RibbonBook.DataContext = tabItem.Content as BookDetails; ribbonBar.SelectedTabItem = RibbonBook; } } } } The DependencyProperty under BookDetails: public static readonly DependencyProperty IsEditModeProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("IsEditMode", typeof (bool), typeof (BookDetails), new PropertyMetadata(true)); public bool IsEditMode { get { return (bool)GetValue(IsEditModeProperty); } set { SetValue(IsEditModeProperty, value); SetValue(IsViewModeProperty, !value); } } And the relevant XAML: <odc:RibbonTabItem Title="Book" Name="RibbonBook"> <odc:RibbonGroup Title="Details" Image="img/books2.png" IsDialogLauncherVisible="False"> <odc:RibbonToggleButton Content="Edit" Name="ToggleEditButton" odc:RibbonBar.MinSize="Medium" SmallImage="img/edit_16x16.png" LargeImage="img/edit_32x32.png" Click="Book_EditDetails" IsChecked="{Binding Path=IsEditMode, Mode=TwoWay}"/> ... There are two things I want to accomplish, Having the button reflect the IsEditMode for the visible tab, and have the button change the property value with no code behind (if posible) Any help would be greatly appriciated.

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• Problem with jquery #find on partial postback

  - by anonymous

  I have a third party component. It is a calendar control. I have a clientside event on it which fires javascript to show a popup menu. I do everything client side so I can use MVC. dd function MouseDown(oDayView, oEvent, element) { try { e = oEvent.event; var rightClick = (e.button == 2); if (rightClick) { var menu = $find("2_menuSharedCalPopUp"); menu.showAt(200, 200, e); } } catch (err) { alert("MouseDown() err: " + err.description); } } The javascript fires perfectly withe $find intially. I have another clientside method which updates the calendar via a partial postback. Once I have done this all subsequent MouseDowns( rightclicks) which use the $find statment error with 'null'. All similar problems people have out there seem to be around calling javascript after a postback - with solutions being re-registering an event using PageRequestManager or registering a clientside function on the server - et cetera. However, the event is firing, and the javascript working - it's the reference in the DOM that seems an issue. Any ideas?

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