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• Reporting Services "cannot connect to the report server database"

  - by Dano

  We have Reporting Services running, and twice in the past 6 months it has been down for 1-3 days, and suddenly it will start working again. The errors range from not being able to view the tree root in a browser, down to being able to insert parameters on a report, but crashing before the report can generate. Looking at the logs, there is 1 error and 1 warning which seem to correspond somewhat. ERROR:Event Type: Error Event Source: Report Server (SQL2K5) Event Category: Management Event ID: 107 Date: 2/13/2009 Time: 11:17:19 AM User: N/A Computer: ******** Description: Report Server (SQL2K5) cannot connect to the report server database. For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. WARNING: always comes before the previous error Event code: 3005 Event message: An unhandled exception has occurred. Event time: 2/13/2009 11:06:48 AM Event time (UTC): 2/13/2009 5:06:48 PM Event ID: 2efdff9e05b14f4fb8dda5ebf16d6772 Event sequence: 550 Event occurrence: 5 Event detail code: 0 Process information: Process ID: 5368 Process name: w3wp.exe Account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Exception information: Exception type: ReportServerException Exception message: For more information about this error navigate to the report server on the local server machine, or enable remote errors. During the downtime we tried restarting everything from the server RS runs on, to the database it calls to fill reports with no success. When I came in monday morning it was working again. Anyone out there have any ideas on what could be causing these issues? Edit Tried both suggestions below several months ago to no avail. This issue hasn't arisen since, maybe something out of my control has changed....

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• AJAX, same-origin Policy and working XML Requests

  - by Joern

  Hello guys, so, currently I develop Widgets for Smartphones and am going a bit more advanced into fields of data exchange between client and server applications. My problem is: For my current project I want my client file to request data from a PHP script with the help of AJAX XmlHttpRequest and the POST method: function xmlRequestNotes() { var parameter = 'p=1234'; xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("POST", url, true); // Http Header xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-length", parameter.length); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { json = JSON.parse(xmlhttp.responseText); // Doing Stuff with the Response } }; xmlhttp.send(parameter); } This works perfectly fine on my local server set up in XAMPP and the local Widget emulator. But if it gets onto the device (also with access to the target network) I receive the 101 Network Error. And as far as I have read, this is due to the "Same-Origin Policy" of XmlHttpRequests? My problem is to really understand that. Although the idea of this policy is clear to me, I'm a bit confused by the fact that another XmlHttpRequest for a Yahoo Weather XML Feed works fine. Now, could anyone be so helpful to enlighten me? Here is the request that returns a city name from Yahoo's weather feed: function getCityName() { xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("GET", "http://weather.yahooapis.com/forecastrss?w=645458&u=c", true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { xmlhttp.responseXML; var yweather = "http://xml.weather.yahoo.com/ns/rss/1.0"; alert(xmlhttp.responseXML.getElementsByTagNameNS(yweather, "location")[0].getAttribute("city")); } }; xmlhttp.send(null); } Obvious differences are the POST and GET methods for once, but seeing that the Same-Origin Policy takes effect no matter what method, I can't really make much sense of it. Why does the latter request work but not the first? I would really appreciate some help here. Greetings and a merry Christmas to you guys!

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• calling java script function then C# function after clicking ASP.NET button

  - by Eyla

  I have this serious: I have ASP.NET page, This page contents Update panel with ASP.NET control. I have Java script function to do validation so when I click the button I will use onclientclick to call the java function to do the validation and after this one done should call then event click button function from code behind. I tried vew methods but they did not work for me. here is sample of my code that after I click the button onclientclick will call the java script function for validation and if the validation is OK should call onclick event. .................... java script function ........................ <script type="text/javascript" > function add(){ if (tag == trye) { document.getElementById('<%=btnInfor.ClientID%>').click(); alert("DataAdded") } else { alert("Requiered Field Missing.") return false; } } </script> ..................... ASP.NET button ................... <asp:Button ID="btnInfor" runat="server" Text="Add Information" Style="position: absolute; top: 1659px; left: 433px;" onclientclick="JavaScript: return myAdd()" /> .................... code behind in C# ...................... protected void btnInfor_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { \\mycode }

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• What about race condition in multithreaded reading?

  - by themoob

  Hi, According to an article on IBM.com, "a race condition is a situation in which two or more threads or processes are reading or writing some shared data, and the final result depends on the timing of how the threads are scheduled. Race conditions can lead to unpredictable results and subtle program bugs." . Although the article concerns Java, I have in general been taught the same definition. As far as I know, simple operation of reading from RAM is composed of setting the states of specific input lines (address, read etc.) and reading the states of output lines. This is an operation that obviously cannot be executed simultaneously by two devices and has to be serialized. Now let's suppose we have a situation when a couple of threads access an object in memory. In theory, this access should be serialized in order to prevent race conditions. But e.g. the readers/writers algorithm assumes that an arbitrary number of readers can use the shared memory at the same time. So, the question is: does one have to implement an exclusive lock for read when using multithreading (in WinAPI e.g.)? If not, why? Where is this control implemented - OS, hardware? Best regards, Kuba

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• Python opening a file and putting list of names on separate lines

  - by Jeremy Borton

  I am trying to write a python program using Python 3 I have to open a text file and read a list of names, print the list, sort the list in alphabetical order and then finally re-print the list. There's a little more to it than that BUT the problem I am having is that I'm supposed to print the list of names with each name on a separate line Instead of printing each name on a separate line, it prints the list all on one line. How can I fix this? def main(): #create control loop keep_going = 'y' #Open name file name_file = open('names.txt', 'r') names = name_file.readlines() name_file.close() #Open outfile outfile = open('sorted_names.txt', 'w') index = 0 while index < len(names): names[index] = names[index].rstrip('\n') index += 1 #sort names print('original order:', names) names.sort() print('sorted order:', names) #write names to outfile for item in names: outfile.write(item + '\n') #close outfile outfile.close() #search names while keep_going == 'y' or keep_going == 'Y': search = input('Enter a name to search: ') if search in names: print(search, 'was found in the list.') keep_going = input('Would you like to do another search Y for yes: ') else: print(search, 'was not found.') keep_going = input('Would you like to do another search Y for yes: ') main()

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• When to drop an IT job

  - by Nippysaurus

  In my career I have had two programming jobs. Both these jobs were in a field that I am most familiar with (C# / MSSQL) but I have quit both jobs for the same reason: unmanageable code and bad (loose) company structure. There was something in common with both these jobs: small companies (in one I was the only developer). Currently I am in the following position: being given written instructions which are almost impossible to follow (somewhat of a fools errand). we are given short time constraints, but seldom asked how long work will take, and when we do it is always too long and needs to be shorter (and when it ends up taking longer than they need it to take, it's always our fault). there is no time for proper documenting, but we get blamed for not documenting (see previous point). Management is constantly screwing me around, saying I'm underperforming on a given task (which is not true, and switching me to a task which is much more confusing). So I must ask my fellow developers: how bad does a job need to be before you would consider jumping ship? And what to look out for when considering taking a job. In future I will be asking about documented procedures, release control, bug management and adoption of new technologies. EDIT: Let me add some more fuel to the fire ... I have been in my current job for just over a year, and the work I am doing almost never uses any of the knowledge I have gained from the other work I have been doing here. Everything is a giant learning curve. Because of this about 30% of my time is learning what is going on with this new product (who's owner / original developer has left the company), 30% trying to find the relevant documentation that helps the whole thing make sense, 30% actually finding where to make the change, 10% actually making the change.

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• Strategies for Mapping Views in NHibernate

  - by Nathan Fisher

  It seems that NHibernate needs to have an id tag specified as part of the mapping. This presents a problem for views as most of the time (in my experience) a view will not have an Id. I have mapped views before in nhibernate, but they way I did it seemed to be be messy to me. Here is a contrived example of how I am doing it currently. Mapping <class name="ProductView" table="viewProduct" mutable="false" > <id name="Id" type="Guid"> <generator class="guid.comb" /> </id> <property name="Name" /> <!-- more properties --> </class> View SQL Select NewID() as Id, ProductName as Name, --More columns From Product Class public class ProductView { public virtual Id {get; set;} public virtual Name {get; set;} } I don't need an Id for the product or in the case of some views I may not have an id for the view, depending on if I have control over the View Is there a better way of mapping views to objects in nhibernate?

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• Can't get KnownType to work with WCF

  - by Kelly Cline

  I have an interface and a class defined in separate assemblies, like this: namespace DataInterfaces { public interface IPerson { string Name { get; set; } } } namespace DataObjects { [DataContract] [KnownType( typeof( IPerson ) ) ] public class Person : IPerson { [DataMember] public string Name { get; set; } } } This is my Service Interface: public interface ICalculator { [OperationContract] IPerson GetPerson ( ); } When I update my Service Reference for my Client, I get this in the Reference.cs: public object GetPerson() { return base.Channel.GetPerson(); I was hoping that KnownType would give me IPerson instead of "object" here. I have also tried [KnownType( typeof( Person ) ) ] with the same result. I have control of both client and server, so I have my DataObjects (where Person is defined) and DataInterfaces (where IPerson is defined) assemblies in both places. Is there something obvious I am missing? I thought KnownType was the answer to being able to use interfaces with WCF. ----- FURTHER INFORMATION ----- I removed the KnownType from the Person class and added [ServiceKnownType( typeof( Person ) ) ] to my service interface, as suggested by Richard. The client-side proxy still looks the same, public object GetPerson() { return base.Channel.GetPerson(); , but now it doesn't blow up. The client just has an "object", though, so it has to cast it to IPerson before it is useful. var person = client.GetPerson ( ); Console.WriteLine ( ( ( IPerson ) person ).Name );

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• asp.net ajax collapsible panel in ie8 problem

  - by stuart

  Anyone try this simple bit of code in an ie8 browswer and try refreshing the page, in ie8 you will get an error around getelementbyid on refresh. When i run it it complains of not being able to find control with id of 'ctl00_main_dd' <cc1:CollapsiblePanelExtender ID="CollapsiblePanelExtender2" runat="server" ImageControlID="Image2" CollapsedImage="~/App_Themes/IMStandard/icons/uparrow.png" ExpandedImage="~/App_Themes/IMStandard/icons/downarrow.png" CollapseControlID="dd" ExpandControlID="dd" TargetControlID="pnlQuickKeywordSearch" SuppressPostBack="true"> </cc1:CollapsiblePanelExtender> <asp:Panel ID="dd" runat="server"> <h3 class="loginHeader"> <asp:Image ID="Image2" runat="server" /> &nbsp;&nbsp;Quick Keyword search&nbsp;<asp:Image ID="HelpIconImage" runat="server" Width="16px" Height="16px" ImageUrl="~/App_Themes/IMStandard/icons/help.png" /></h3> </asp:Panel> <asp:Panel ID="pnlQuickKeywordSearch" Style="float: left; border: double 3px #C9DF86;" runat="server" > <div style="clear: both; padding: 5px;"> </div></asp:Panel> Anybody know why this is happening? is it a bug in ie8 or am i missing something? By the way, i am using masterpages, but i dont think that has anything to do with it. Thanks

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• Regarding some Update Stored procedure

  - by Serenity

  I have two Tables as follows:- Table1:- ------------------------------------- PageID|Content|TitleID(FK)|LanguageID ------------------------------------- 1 |abc |101 |1 2 |xyz |102 |1 -------------------------------------- Table2:- ------------------------- TitleID|Title |LanguageID ------------------------- 101 |Title1|1 102 |Title2|1 ------------------------ I don't want to add duplicates in my Table1(Content Table). Like..there can be no two Pages with the same Title. What check do I need to add in my Insert/Update Stored Procedure ? How do I make sure duplicates are never added. I have tried as follows:- CREATE PROC InsertUpdatePageContent ( @PageID int, @Content nvarchar(2000), @TitleID int ) AS BEGIN IF(@PageID=-1) BEGIN IF(NOT EXISTS(SELECT TitleID FROM Table1 WHERE LANGUAGEID=@LANGUAGEID)) BEGIN INSERT INTO Table1(Content,TitleID) VALUES(@Content,@TitleID) END END ELSE BEGIN IF(NOT EXISTS(SELECT TitleID FROM Table1 WHERE LANGUAGEID=@LANGUAGEID)) BEGIN UPDATE Table1 SET Content=@Content,TitleID=@TitleID WHERE PAGEID=@PAGEID END END END Now what is happening is that it is inserting new records alright and won't allow duplicates to be added but when I update its giving me problem. On my aspx Page I have a drop down list control that is bound to DataSource that returns Table 2(Title Table) and I have a text box in which user types Page's content to be stored. When I update, like lets say I have a row in my Table 1 as shown above with PageID=1. Now when I am updating this row, like I didn't change the Title from the drop down and only changed Content in the text box, its not updating the record ..and when Stored procedure's Update Query does not execute it displays a Label that says "Page with this title exists already." So whenever I am updating an existing record that label is displayed on screen.How do I change that IF condition in my Update Stored procedure?? EDIT:- @gbn :: Will that IF condition work in case of update? I mean lets say I am updating the Page with TitleID=1, I changed its content, then when I update, it's gonna execute that IF condition and it still won't update coz TitleID=1 already exits!It will only update if TitleID=1 is not there in Table1. Isn't it? Guess I am getting confused. Please answer.Thanks.

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• Set focus to a button in a new TabItem

  - by Jan

  I use a TabControl to display a list of items. The ItemView is a separate control I wrote. <TabControl SelectedItem="{Binding CurrentItem}" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" ItemsSource="{Binding ItemList}"> <TabControl.ContentTemplate> <DataTemplate> <ctrls:ItemView/> </DataTemplate> </TabControl.ContentTemplate> <TabControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Text="{Binding ShortItemDescription}"/> </DataTemplate> </TabControl.ItemTemplate> </TabControl> If the user presses a Button a new ViewModel is added to the list of ViewModels and the TabControl displays it as a new tab. After adding the new tab is selected. <Button Command="{Binding AddItemCommand}" Content="Add item"/> Inside of the new ViewModel is a button that needs to be focused each time a new tab is added. I have tried to use the FocusManager and the Initialized event in the ItemView but these are only called for the first time I add a new tab. <UserControl x:Class="ItemView" ... Initialized="ViewInitialized"> <Grid> ... <!-- Set focus to this button --> <Button Content="Search" Command="{Binding SearchCommand}" Name="SearchButton" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="0"/> </Grid> </UserControl> Any ideas?

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• Validations for a has_many/belongs_to relationship

  - by Craig Walker

  I have a Recipe model which has_many Ingredients (which in turn belongs_to Recipe). I want Ingredient to be existent dependent on Recipe; an Ingredient should never exist without a Recipe. I'm trying to enforce the presence of a valid Recipe ID in the Ingredient. I've been doing this with a validates :recipe, :presence => true (Rails 3) statement in Ingredient. This works fine if I save the Recipe before adding an Ingredient to it's ingredients collection. However, if I don't have explicit control over the saving (such as when I'm creating a Recipe and its Ingredients from a nested form) then I get an error: Ingredients recipe can't be blank I can get around this simply by dropping the presence validation on Ingredient.recipe. However, I don't particularly like this, as it means I'm working without a safety net. What is the best way to enforce existence-dependence in Rails? Things I'm considering (please comment on the wisdom of each): Adding a not-null constraint on the ingredients.recipe_id database column, and letting the database do the checking for me. A custom validation that somehow checks whether the Ingredient is in an unsaved recipe's ingredient collection (and thus can't have a recipe_id but is still considered valid).

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• Opening URL in New Tab doesn't work in existing, programmatically-opened New Window (Firefox)

  - by seth

  I am building a web app, for myself, to control some servers on my home network, and discovered what I think is very odd behavior in Firefox. If you open a pop-up, via javascript, in Firefox, is it then impossible to open a new tab, via javascript in that pop-up? If not impossible, how do you do it? Given a clean, default Firefox 3.6.3 installation... If I open a page in Firefox and then call var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com','_blank','top=10'); A brand new "pop-up" window opens. However, if instead I call var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com'); A get a new tab. HOWEVER... If I call the first version var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com','_blank','top=10'); And then in the new "pop-up" that opens, I call var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com'); It opens a new tab in the original window, not a new tab in the pop-up. This seems very odd, and not intuitive at all. Why would the call in the pop-up open a tab in the "parent" window?

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• Using the same code in different (partial) views

  - by Danny Chen

  Maybe this question is quite simple because I'm new to MVC2. I have a simple demo MVC project. (1) A weak-typed view: Index.aspx <% Html.RenderPartial("ArticalList", ViewData["AllArticals"] as List<Artical>); %> (2) A strong-typed partical view: ArticalList.ascx <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<List<Artical>>" %> <% foreach (Artical a in Model) { %> <%= Html.ActionLink(a.Title, "About", new { id = a.ID })%><br /> <%} %> (3) Here is the HomeController.cs public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["AllArticals"] = Artical.GetArticals(); return View(); } public ActionResult ArticalList() { return PartialView(Artical.GetArticals()); } Sorry I'm using a Web-Form "angle", because if I'm using a Web-Form, when I visit Index.aspx, rendering ArticalList.ascx will call public ActionResult ArticalList(). But here I need to write Artical.GetArticals() twice in two actions. How can I put them in one?

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• Reporting Services: Tablix RepeatColumnHeaders doesn't work on some reports

  - by I Have the Hat

  So I've got various reports that consist of a DataSet rendered in a Tablix... pretty garden variety stuff. There is a property for the Tablix control named RepeatColumnHeaders, which I have set to True for each report in question. The explanation for this property states “Indicates whether column headers are repeated on each page on which part of the data region appear.” Sounds pretty straightforward, but on some reports it works and on others it does not. I can't seem to find what's different about the reports that might affect this. On one report where the headers do repeat, there is some fairly arcane grouping mojo, but in an example where it doesn't work the Tablix only has one level--no grouping. I would expect the multi-nested one to be the problem, not the flat one. Maybe it's a different problem altogether. I threw together a simple Tablix rendering SELECT * FROM Foo, accepted all the default values, which results in RepeatColumnHeaders being set to False, and lo and behold the column headers do repeat for that report... Grrr. Any insights greatly appreciated.

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• Javascript not working in firefox

  - by Samuel Meddows

  Hi guys, I have a PHP form validation function that I developed in chrome and now will not work in firefox or Opera. The function checks to see if a section of the form is blank and shows and error message. If there is no error then then the form submits through document.events.submit(); CODE: function submit_events() { //Check to see if a number is entered if the corosponding textbox is checked if (document.events.dj_card.checked == true && dj_amount.value==""){ //Error Control Method //alert ('You didn\'t enetr an Amount for DJ\'s Card!'); var txt=document.getElementById("error") txt.innerHTML="<p><font color=\"#FF0000\"> You didn\'t enetr an Amount for DJ\'s Card!</font></p>"; window.document.getElementById("dj_card_label").style.color = '#FF0000'; //Reset window.document.getElementById("company_amount_label").style.color = '#000000'; window.document.getElementById("own_amount_label").style.color = '#000000'; }else{ document.events.submit(); } The document.events.submit();does work across all my browsers however the check statements do not. If the box is not ticked the form submits. If the box is ticked it does not matter whether there is data in the dj_amount.value or not. The form will not submit and no error messages are displayed. Thanks guys.

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• Need an Overview of Possibilities for multicolumn programming

  - by Sam

  Hi folks, From source1 and source2 i gather that IE9 will NOT support multi-column css3!! Since it is still the most popular browser (another thing i cannot understand), i am left but no other choice than to use Programming Power to make multi-columns work. Now, I use three divs that float to left, and which are manually filled with text. Please don't laugh i know its stupid! But I would wish to not to have to worry about the columns and just have a one piece of (un-interrupted) text which all goes into only 1 div, and then have a program smart enough to split it up into X equally wide columns. Question: before i start reinvent the wheel, what methods of programming power have you known that tackle this elegantly? Please suggest your best working multi-column layout sources so I can evaluate which option is the best (I will update the below table). Exploring all possibilities 2011 and further, to enable multi column text user experience: Language Author SourceCodeUsage WorksOnAllMajorBrowser? ================================================================================= html manual labour put text manually in separate left-floating divs "Y" // Upside: control! Downside: few changes necessitates to reflow 3 divs manually! CSS3 w3c css3.info/preview/multi-column-layout/ "N" // {-moz-column-count: 3; -webkit-column-count: 3; } Thats all! javascript a list apart will add url soon ? // php ? ? ? //

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• Test if Java trusts an SSL certificate

  - by Eric R. Rath

  My java web application uses the standard mail libraries to establish an IMAPS connection to a mail server under my control. The mail server used a valid SSL cert issued by a CA. When the cert expired, I renewed it from the same CA, and put the cert into use. But my web application wouldn't trust the new cert. We had never explicitly trusted the old cert, or managed any trust stores. I talked with someone from the CA, and we tracked it down to a difference in the intermediate certs between the old and new cert. The old one used multiple intermediates, including one tied to a root that must've been trusted by default by our version of Java. The new cert used only one intermediate cert, and it was tied to a root missing from our Java version's default trusted cert store. When we renew this cert again in the future, is there an easy way, given a new crt and intermediate crt file, test if Java will consider that cert valid? I didn't see anything in keytool that looked promising. A code solution is okay, but I'd prefer one based on the Java command-line tools.

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• Populate a column as a result of performing math on two columns in a jqGrid.

  - by HacksawOnRye

  Background: Our company selected a workflow tool that has some "interersting" UI restrictions. jqGrid has been identified as one of best ways to overcome these restrictions. Consequently, the answers to this question need to be restricted to functionlity available within the jqGrid space. It pains me to pose this question and I know you will tempted to go down a million other paths - most that we have already traveled before. :( Question: Can jqGrid populate a column as a result of performing math on two other columns. The source of those two columns is in our control so we can "guarantee" that numeric data will be returned. Also, the result is something that we simplay want to display on demand but not store yet. On the example below, is there a function that allow the 'total' column to be populated from the following calculation: 'amount' * 'tax' Example jqGrid javascript: jQuery("#list3").jqGrid({ url:'server.php?q=2', datatype: "json", colNames:['Inv No','Date', 'Client', 'Amount','Tax','Total','Notes'], colModel:[ {name:'id',index:'id', width:60, sorttype:"int"}, {name:'invdate',index:'invdate', width:90, sorttype:"date"}, {name:'name',index:'name', width:100}, {name:'amount',index:'amount', width:80, align:"right",sorttype:"float"}, {name:'tax',index:'tax', width:80, align:"right",sorttype:"float"}, {name:'total',index:'total', width:80,align:"right",sorttype:"float"}, {name:'note',index:'note', width:150, sortable:false} ], rowNum:20, rowList:[10,20,30], pager: '#pager3', sortname: 'id', viewrecords: true, sortorder: "desc", loadonce: true, caption: "Load Once Example" });

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• NSSegmentedControl -selectedSegment always returns 0

  - by SphereCat1

  I have an NSSegmentedControl with two segments set to "Select None" mode in Interface Builder. No matter what I try, I can't get -selectedSegment to return anything but 0, even though segment 0 is even disabled by default and can't possibly be selected. Here's the relevant function that gets called when you click any segment on the control: -(IBAction)changeStep:(id)sender { [stepContainer setHidden:TRUE]; [(NSView *)[[wizard stepArray] objectAtIndex:(NSInteger)[wizard step]] removeFromSuperview]; switch ([[navigationButton cell] selectedSegment]) { case 0: [wizard setStep:(NSInteger *)[wizard step]-1]; break; case 1: [wizard setStep:(NSInteger *)[wizard step]+1]; break; default: break; } //[[navigationButton cell] setSelected:FALSE forSegment:[navigationButton selectedSegment]]; if ([wizard step] > 0) { [wizard setStep:0]; [navigationButton setEnabled:FALSE forSegment:0]; } NSLog(@"%d", [wizard step]); [stepContainer addSubview:(NSView *)[[wizard stepArray] objectAtIndex:(NSInteger)[wizard step]]]; [stepContainer setHidden:FALSE withFade:TRUE]; } I've also tried using -isSelectedForSegment, but it has the same result. Any help you can provide would be awesome, I have no idea what I'm doing wrong. Thanks! SphereCat1

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• Approaches for cross server content sharing?

  - by Anonymity

  I've currently been tasked with finding a best solution to serving up content on our new site from another one of our other sites. Several approaches suggested to me, that I've looked into include using SharePoint's Lists Web Service to grab the list through javascript - which results in XSS and is not an option. Another suggestion was to build a server side custom web service and use SharePoint Request Forms to get the information - this is something I've only very briefly looked at. It's been suggested that I try permitting the requesting site in the HTTP headers of the serving site since I have access to both. This ultimately resulted in a semi-working solution that had major security holes. (I had to include username/password in the request to appease AD Authentication). This was done by allowing Access-Control-Allow-Origin: * The most direct approach I could think of was to simply build in the webpart in our new environment to have the authors manually update this content the same as they would on the other site. Are any one of the suggestions here more valid than another? Which would be the best approach? Are there other suggestions I may be overlooking? I'm also not sure if WebCrawling or Content Scrapping really holds water here...

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• WCF cross-domain policy security error

  - by George2

  Hello everyone, I am using VSTS 2008 + C# + WCF + .Net 3.5 + Silverlight 3.0. I host Silverlight control in an html page and debug it from VSTS 2008 (press F5, then run in VSTS 2008 built-in ASP.Net development web server), then call another WCF service (hosted in another machine running IIS 7.0 + Vista). The WCF service is very simple, just return a constant string to client. When invoking the WCF service from Silverlight, I got the following error message, An error occurred while trying to make a request to URI 'https://LabTest/Test.svc'. This could be due to attempting to access a service in a cross-domain way without a proper cross-domain policy in place, or a policy that is unsuitable for SOAP services. You may need to contact the owner of the service to publish a cross-domain policy file and to ensure it allows SOAP-related HTTP headers to be sent. This error may also be caused by using internal types in the web service proxy without using the InternalsVisibleToAttribute attribute. Please see the inner exception for more details. Here is the clientaccesspolicy.xml file, anything wrong? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <access-policy> <cross-domain-access> <policy> <allow-from http-request-headers="*"> <domain uri="*"> </domain> </allow-from> <grant-to> <resource path="/" include-subpaths="true"></resource> </grant-to> </policy> </cross-domain-access> </access-policy> thanks in advance, George

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• Pass scalar/list context to called subroutine

  - by Will

  I'm trying to write a sub that takes a coderef parameter. My sub does some initialization, calls the coderef, then does some cleanup. I need to call the coderef using the same context (scalar, list, void context) that my sub was called in. The only way I can think of is something like this: sub perform { my ($self, $code) = @_; # do some initialization... my @ret; my $ret; if (not defined wantarray) { $code->(); } elsif (wantarray) { @ret = $code->(); } else { $ret = $code->(); } # do some cleanup... if (not defined wantarray) { return; } elsif (wantarray) { return @ret; } else { return $ret; } } Obviously there's a good deal of redundancy in this code. Is there any way to reduce or eliminate any of this redundancy? EDIT   I later realized that I need to run $code->() in an eval block so that the cleanup runs even if the code dies. Adding eval support, and combining the suggestions of user502515 and cjm, here's what I've come up with. sub perform { my ($self, $code) = @_; # do some initialization... my $w = wantarray; return sub { my $error = $@; # do some cleanup... die $error if $error; # propagate exception return $w ? @_ : $_[0]; }->(eval { $w ? $code->() : scalar($code->()) }); } This gets rid of the redundancy, though unfortunately now the control flow is a little harder to follow.

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• How can I keep an event from being delivered to the GUI until my code finished running?

  - by Frerich Raabe

  I installed a global mouse hook function like this: mouseEventHook = ::SetWindowsHookEx( WH_MOUSE_LL, mouseEventHookFn, thisModule, 0 ); The hook function looks like this: RESULT CALLBACK mouseEventHookFn( int code, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam ) { if ( code == HC_ACTION ) { PMSLLHOOKSTRUCT mi = (PMSLLHOOKSTRUCT)lParam; // .. do interesting stuff .. } return ::CallNextHookEx( mouseEventHook, code, wParam, lParam ); } Now, my problem is that I cannot control how long the 'do interesting stuff' part takes exactly. In particular, it might take longer than the LowLevelHooksTimeout defined in the Windows registry. This means that, at least on Windows XP, the system no longer delivers mouse events to my hook function. I'd like to avoid this, but at the same time I need the 'do interesting stuff' part to happen before the target GUI receives the event. I attempted to solve this by doing the 'interesting stuff' work in a separate thread so that the mouseEventHookFn above can post a message to the worker thread and then do a return 1; immediately (which ends the hook function but avoids that the event is handed to the GUI). The idea was that the worker thread, when finished, performs the CallNextHookEx call itself. However, this causes a crash inside of CallNextHookEx (in fact, the crash occurs inside an internal function called PhkNextValid. I assume it's not safe to call CallNextHookEx from outside a hook function, is this true? If so, does anybody else know how I can run code (which needs to interact with the GUI thread of an application) before the GUI receives the event and avoid that my hook function blocks too long?

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• Using IAM for user authentication

  - by mdavis6890

  I've read lots and lots of posts that touch on what I think should be a very common use case - but without finding exactly what I want, or a simple reason why it can't be done. I have some files on S3. I want to be able to grant certain users access to certain files, via a front end that I build. So far, I've made it work this way: I built the front end in Django, using it's built-in Users and Groups I have a model for Buckets, in which I mirror my S3 buckets. I have a m2m relationship from groups to buckets representing the S3 permissions. The user logs in and authenticates against Django's users. I grab from Django the list of buckets that the user is allowed to see I use boto to grab a list of links to files from those buckets and display to user. This works, but isn't ideal, and also just doesn't feel right. I've got to keep a mirror of the buckets, and I also have to maintain my own list of user/passwords and permissions, when AWS already has all that built in. What I really want is to simply create the users in IAM and use group permissions in IAM to control access to the S3 buckets. No duplication of data or function. My app would request a UN/PW from the user and use that to connect to IAM/S3 to pull the list of buckets and files, then display links to the user. Simple. How can I, or why can't I? Am I looking at this the wrong way? What's the "right" way to address this (I assume) very common use case?

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