Search Results

Search found 42264 results on 1691 pages for 'template method pattern'.

Page 107/1691 | < Previous Page | 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114  | Next Page >

  • Using C++, how to call a base class method from a derived class method and apply this to an object passed as an argument?

    - by Chris
    I can't figure out how to call a base class method from a derived class method but concurrently applying this method call at an object passed as argument. What I mean is this: class Animal { virtual void eat(Animal& to_be_eaten) = 0; }; class Carnivores: public Animal { virtual void eat(Animal& to_be_eaten) { /*implementation here*/} }; class Wolf : public Carnivores { virtual void eat(Animal& to_be_eaten) { /*call eat method(of Base class) of Base to_be_eaten here*/ } } I thought of something like this dynamic_cast<Carnivores&>(to_be_eaten).eat(*this) //and got a segmentation fault Is there any way for this to be done? Thank you! New edit:: Updated the code

    Read the article

  • Create view or SP, only if the DB contains a pattern

    - by Randall Salas
    Hi all: I am working on a script, that needs to be run in many different SQL servers. Some of them, shared the same structure, in other words, they are identical, but the filegroups and the DB names are different. This is because is one per client. Anyway, I would like when running a script, If I chose the wrong DB, it should not be executed. I am trying to mantain a clean DB. here is my example, which only works for dropping a view if exists, but does not work for creating a new one. I also wonder how it would be for creating a stored procedure. Thx a lot. if exists (select * from dbo.sysobjects where id = object_id(N'[dbo].[ContentModDate]') and OBJECTPROPERTY(id, N'IsView') = 1) AND CHARINDEX('Content', DB_NAME()) 0 drop view [dbo].[ContentModDate] GO IF (CHARINDEX('Content', DB_NAME()) 0)BEGIN CREATE VIEW [dbo].[Rx_ContentModDate] AS SELECT 'Table1' AS TableName, MAX(ModDate) AS ModDate FROM Tabl1 WHERE ModDate IS NOT NULL UNION SELECT 'Table2', MAX(ModDate) AS ModDate FROM Table2 WHERE ModDate IS NOT NULL END END GO

    Read the article

  • Events and references pattern

    - by serhio
    In a project I have the following relation between BO and GUI By e.g. G could represent a graphic with time lines, C a TimeLine curve, P - points of that curve and T the time that represents each point. Each GUI object is associated with the BO corresponding object. When T changes GUI P captures the Changed event and changes its location. So, when G should be modified, it modifies internally its objects and as result T changes, P moves and the GuiG visually changes, everything is OK. But there is an inconvenient of this architecture... BO should not be recreated, because this will breack the link between BO and GUIO. In particular, GUI P should always have the same reference of T. If in a business logic I do by e.g. P1.T = new T(this.T + 10) GUI_P1 will not move anymore, because it wait an event from the reference of former P1.T object, that does not belongs to P1 anymore. So the solution was to always modify the existing objects, not to recreate it. But here is an other inconvenient: performance. Say I have a ready newC object that should replace the older one. Instead of doing G1.C = newC I should do foreach T in foreach P in C replace with T from P from newC. Is there an other more optimal way to do it?

    Read the article

  • Inserting an element within jQuery Validation plugin's error template

    - by simshaun
    I'm utilizing the jQuery Validation plugin for my form. It lets you change the errorElement and wrap the errorElement using with the wrapper option. But, I want to insert an element within errorElement like this: <label class="error"><em></em>Error message goes here</label> Is there an easy way to accomplish inserting the em tag? I've tried prepending the em tag using the errorPlacement option (see below), but it seems the plugin is replacing the contents of errorElement afterwards. $.validator.setDefaults({ errorPlacement: function(error, element) { error.prepend('<em/>'); error.insertBefore(element); } }); I've also tried prepending the em tag using the showErrors option (see below). Again, it seems the plugin is replacing the contents of errorElement afterwards. $.validator.setDefaults({ showErrors: function(errorMap, errorList) { for (var i = 0; i < errorList.length; i++) { var error = errorList[i], $label = this.errorsFor(error.element), $element = $(error.element); if ($label.length && $label.find('em').length == 0) { $label.prepend('<em/>'); } } this.defaultShowErrors(); } }); I've also tried modifying the plugin so that when the error element is generated, the <em> tag is prepended. That works until I focus on a form element that has an error, after which the em tag is removed. (It's doing this because jQuery validation is constantly updating the contents of the error element as I focus and/or type in the field, therefore erasing my em tag added at error-element creation.)

    Read the article

  • How to get a reference to a method's caller object from within the method in Objective-C

    - by shakeelw
    Hi guys. I have a few text fields and text views on my application's view. The keyboard comes up when I click in anyone of them. I have a method that gets called when any one of these objects is tapped in. However, I would like the method to execute its code only if the a certain Text Field(s) or a certain Text View(s) is tapped in. I would therefore like to have something like this in the method body: { if(currentField != mySpecialField) {return;} //Rest of the method code... } Now, my question is, how do I get a reference to the currently tapped in field so that I can perform the if-check. Thanks guys. I'm a total noobee in Objective-C. :(

    Read the article

  • How to get everything in the string, but a particular pattern

    - by José Leal
    Yet another regexp question: I have a string as the following, "This is a string, and I have a priority !1" So I want to build a regexp that extracts my priority, which is this number 1 preceded by the "!". To extract it is very easy, "!([1-4])". But now I want to extract the text, leaving it out! How can I do that? DETAIL: The !1 can be anywhere in the string, so this is also perfectly fine: "This is a string, !1 and I have a priority" Thanks! UPDATE: I'm using scala

    Read the article

  • multiple classes with same methods - best pattern

    - by Tony
    I have a few classes in my current project where validation of Email/Website addresses is necessary. The methods to do that are all the same. I wondered what's the best way to implement this, so I don't need to have these methods copy pasted everywhere? The classes themselves are not necessarily related, they only have those validation methods in common.

    Read the article

  • Trouble implementing Singleton pattern in Tomcat web application due to Class Loader

    - by jwegan
    I'm trying to implement a Singleton in Tomcat 6.24 on Linux with x86_64 OpenJDK 1.6. My application is just a bunch of JSPs and some static content and the JSPs make calls to my Java code. Currently the web.xml just looks like this: <web-app xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee/web-app_2_5.xsd" version="2.5"> <description> App Name </description> <display-name>App Name</display-name> <!-- The Usual Welcome File List --> <welcome-file-list> <welcome-file>pages/index.jsp</welcome-file> </welcome-file-list> </web-app> Before when I was trying to load my Singleton it was getting instantiated twice since the class was getting loaded by two different class loaders (I'm not sure why) and each loader would create an instance of the singleton which is not acceptable for my application. I finally figured out if I exported my code as a jar and put it in $CATALINA_HOME/lib then there was only one instance, but this is not an elegant solution. I've been googling for hours, but I haven't come up with anything yet. I'm wondering if there is some other solution. Currently I'm not precompling my JSPs, could this be part of the problem? Could I write a servlet to ensure the singleton is created? If so how do I do that?

    Read the article

  • Pattern Matching in Columns

    - by Chronicles
    File 1 A11;F1;BMW A23;F2;BMW B12;F3;BMW H11;F4;JBW File 2 P01;A1;0;0--00 ;123;456;150 P01;A11;0;0--00 ;123;444;208 P01;B12;0;0--00 ;123;111;36 P01;V11;0;0--00 ;123;787;33.9 Output -;-;-;P01;A1;0;0--00 ;123;456;150 A11;F1;BMW;P01;A11;0;0--00 ;123;444;208 B12;F3;BMW;P01;B12;0;0--00 ;123;111;36 -;-;-;P01;V11;0;0--00 ;123;787;33.9 I TRIED awk 'FNR==NR {a[$2] = $0; next }{ if($1 in a) {p=$1;$1="";print a[p],$0}}' File1 File2 But didnt work. Basically I want to get the details from FILE 1 and compare with FILE2 (master list) . Example : A1 in FILE2 was not available in FILE1 , so in output file we have “-“ for 1st three fields and rest from FILE2 . Now, we have A11 and we got the detail in FILE1. So we write details of A11 from both File 1 & 2

    Read the article

  • Pattern for null settings

    - by user21243
    Hi, I would like to hear your thoughts and ideas about this one. in my application i have controls that are binded to objects properties. but.. the controls always looks like that: a check box, label that explain the settings and then the edited control (for ex: text box) when unchecking the checkbox i disable the text box (using binding) when the checkbox is unchecked i want the property to contain null, and when it is checked i would like the property to contain the text box's text. Of course text box can be NumericUpDown, ComboBox, DatePicker etc.. Do you have any smart way of doing it using binding or do i have to do everything on code; I really would like to a build a control that supports that and re-use it all over Ideas? Thanks,

    Read the article

  • Ruby: Calling class method from instance

    - by Peter
    In Ruby, how do you call a class method from one of that class's instances? Say I have class Truck def self.default_make # Class method. "mac" end def initialize # Instance method. Truck.default_make # gets the default via the class's method. # But: I wish to avoid mentioning Truck. Seems I'm repeating myself. end end the line Truck.default_make retrieves the default. But is there a way of saying this without mentioning Truck? It seems like there should be.

    Read the article

  • Capitalize Words in PHP with custom delimitor

    - by Paulie
    Hey guys, i need a method to capitalize every first letter of a word. This is what i got so far and it is working for almost every string...but it fails on this one "WELLNESS & RENOMME". // method in stringModify Class function capitalizeWords($words, $charList) { $capitalizeNext = true; for ($i = 0, $max = strlen($words); $i < $max; $i++) { if (strpos($charList, $words[$i]) !== false) { $`capitalizeNext` = true; } else if ($capitalizeNext) { $capitalizeNext = false; $words[$i] = strtoupper($words[$i]); } } return $words; } // Calling method $stringModify->capitalizeWords("WELLNESS & RENOMME", " -&"); I hope someone can help me out...i tried for 1,5 hours now and don't have a clue. Thanks in advance for any tips or hints. Greetz Paulie

    Read the article

  • Control Reference Static Method Performance

    - by dotnetguts
    I have just asked which one is better? Static Vs Non-Static? http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3016717/static-vs-non-static-method-performance-c I would like to take this discussion one step ahead. Consider If i pass reference of Panel control as parameter to Public static method, will static method still rules in performance?

    Read the article

  • Missing Project Template after installing ASP.NET MVC 2

    - by DotNetHacker
    Hi, I have downloaded the ASP.NET MVC 2 Release version (using Web Platform Installer) as well as the downloading the file directly from the link in WPI. No error messages are reported after the install. When I go into Visual Web Developer and select Create New project I only the project reference to ASP.NET MVC version 1.0 and not version 2 (for clarity I have all the other project types, this is just in reference to the MVC projects). I have restarted, uninstalled and restarted and installed my PC multiple times and it still won't play. When clicking add a reference I can see the MVC.dll version 2.0.0.0 and add that no problem, but cannot manually upgrade the project since the ProjectTypeGuid used is not recognized. For reference I am using Visual Web Developer 2008 on Windows XP. ASP.NET MVC version 1.0 is working fine and without issue. Hope someone else can help. DNH

    Read the article

  • C#: Preferred pattern for functions requiring arguments that implement two interfaces

    - by JS Bangs
    The argument to my function f() must implement two different interfaces that are not related to each other by inheritance, IFoo and IBar. I know of two different ways of doing this. The first is to declare an empty interface that inherits from both: public interface IFooBar : IFoo, IBar { // nothing to see here } public int f(IFooBar arg) { // etc. } This, of course, requires that the classes declare themselves as implementing IFooBar rather than IFoo and IBar separately. The second way is to make f() generic with a constraint: public int f<T>(T arg) where T : IFoo, IBar { // etc. } Which of these do you prefer, and why? Are there any non-obvious advantages or disadvantages to each?

    Read the article

  • Cannot call action method 'System.Web.Mvc.PartialViewResult Foo[T](T)' on controller 'Controller' be

    - by MedicineMan
    Cannot call action method 'System.Web.Mvc.PartialViewResult FooT' on controller 'Controller' because the action method is a generic method <% Html.RenderAction("Foo", model = Model}); %> Is there a workaround for this limitation on ASP MVC 2? I would really prefer to use a generic. The workaround that I have come up with is to change the model type to be an object. It works, but is not preferred: public PartialViewResult Foo<T>(T model) where T : class { // do stuff }

    Read the article

  • BeginInvoke not invoking the target method in Release build

    - by Elan
    I have a method, which I wish to execute on the UI message pump and thus do the following: private void SomeMethod() { BeginInvoke(new MethodInvoker(MethodToInvoke)); } private void MethodToInvoke() { // This method contains code that I wish to execute on UI message pump. } Now, the above works just fine when I create a Debug build of the project. However, when I create a Release build, the "MethodToInvoke" method does not get invoked. Does anyone have any idea why this might be? Thanks, Elan

    Read the article

  • Why would a "view" object in Interface Builder prevent my didFinishLaunchingWithOptions method from

    - by BeachRunnerJoe
    You may have already come across some of my other questions related to question, but I was having an issue with a SplitView iPad app where my application:didFinishLaunchingWithOptions method stopped executing after I went into Interface Builder and changed around the structure of my apps interface. I couldn't figure out what was preventing my didFinishLauchingWithOptions method from executing, but then I removed a "view" object I had in my view heirarchy (shown below) and suddenly my didFinishLauchingWithOptions method started executing again. I've moved passed it now, but I'm still unclear why that would cause the problem. Any ideas why that "view" object would prevent the didFinishLaunchingWithOptions method from executing?

    Read the article

  • Running Send_SMS method from BroadcastReceiver

    - by burmat
    My application is an auto-reply application for text messages. I have a BroadcastReceiver for when a message arrives, and I need it to run a public method (Send_SMS). SMS_Sender.sendSMS(phoneNumber, messageText); does not work however, and eclipse wants to change my method to static. This would not be an issue if I did not have more receivers that catch when the message is sent/delivered/etc in this class. These receivers are then errors for being contained in a static method. So my question is, how do I run this method from a broadcast receiver so I can send the auto reply whenever it is triggered with a received message? -Thank you in advance, Nate

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114  | Next Page >