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  • Google's Oauth for Installed apps vs. Oauth for Web Apps

    - by burgerguy
    So I'm having trouble understanding something... If you do Oauth for Web Apps, you register your site with a callback URL and get a unique consumer secret key. But once you've obtained an Oauth for Web Apps token, you don't have to generate Oauth calls to the google server from your registered domain. I regularly use my key and token from scripts running via an apache server at localhost on my laptop and Google never says "you're not sending this request from the registered domain." It just sends me the data. Now, as I understand it, if you do Oauth for Installed Apps, you use "anonymous" instead of a secret key you got from Google. I've been thinking of just using the OAuth for Web Apps auth method, then passing that token to an installed app that has my secret code embedded in its innards. The worry is that the code could be discovered by bad people. But what's more secure... making them work for the secret code or letting them default to anonymous? What really goes bad if the "secret" is discovered when the alternative is using "anonymous" as the secret?

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  • In .NET, Why Can I Access Private Members of a Class Instance within the Class?

    - by AMissico
    While cleaning some code today written by someone else, I changed the access modifier from Public to Private on a class variable/member/field. I expected a long list of compiler errors that I use to "refactor/rework/review" the code that used this variable. Imagine my surprise when I didn't get any errors. After reviewing, it turns out that another instance of the Class can access the private members of another instance declared within the Class. Totally unexcepted. Is this normal? I been coding in .NET since the beginning and never ran into this issue, nor read about it. I may have stumbled onto it before, but only "vaguely noticed" and move on. Can anyone explain this behavoir to me? I would like to know the "why" I can do this. Please explain, don't just tell me the rule. Am I doing something wrong? I found this behavior in both C# and VB.NET. The code seems to take advantage of the ability to access private variables. Sincerely, Totally Confused Class Jack Private _int As Integer End Class Class Foo Public Property Value() As Integer Get Return _int End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) _int = value * 2 End Set End Property Private _int As Integer Private _foo As Foo Private _jack As Jack Private _fred As Fred Public Sub SetPrivate() _foo = New Foo _foo.Value = 4 'what you would expect to do because _int is private _foo._int = 3 'TOTALLY UNEXPECTED _jack = New Jack '_jack._int = 3 'expected compile error _fred = New Fred '_fred._int = 3 'expected compile error End Sub Private Class Fred Private _int As Integer End Class End Class

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  • Project Euler (P14): recursion problems

    - by sean mcdaid
    Hi I'm doing the Collatz sequence problem in project Euler (problem 14). My code works with numbers below 100000 but with numbers bigger I get stack over-flow error. Is there a way I can re-factor the code to use tail recursion, or prevent the stack overflow. The code is below: import java.util.*; public class v4 { // use a HashMap to store computed number, and chain size static HashMap<Integer, Integer> hm = new HashMap<Integer, Integer>(); public static void main(String[] args) { hm.put(1, 1); final int CEILING_MAX=Integer.parseInt(args[0]); int len=1; int max_count=1; int max_seed=1; for(int i=2; i<CEILING_MAX; i++) { len = seqCount(i); if(len > max_count) { max_count = len; max_seed = i; } } System.out.println(max_seed+"\t"+max_count); } // find the size of the hailstone sequence for N public static int seqCount(int n) { if(hm.get(n) != null) { return hm.get(n); } if(n ==1) { return 1; } else { int length = 1 + seqCount(nextSeq(n)); hm.put(n, length); return length; } } // Find the next element in the sequence public static int nextSeq(int n) { if(n%2 == 0) { return n/2; } else { return n*3+1; } } }

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  • Not getting response using SOAP and PHP.

    - by Nitish
    I'm using PHP5 and NuSOAP - SOAP Toolkit for PHP. I created the server using the code below: <?php function getStockQuote($symbol) { mysql_connect('localhost','user','pass'); mysql_select_db('test'); $query = "SELECT stock_price FROM stockprices WHERE stock_symbol = '$symbol'"; $result = mysql_query($query); $row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result); echo $row['stock_price']; } $a=require('lib/nusoap.php'); $server = new soap_server(); $server->configureWSDL('stockserver', 'urn:stockquote'); $server->register("getStockQuote", array('symbol' => 'xsd:string'), array('return' => 'xsd:decimal'), 'urn:stockquote', 'urn:stockquote#getStockQuote'); $HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA = isset($HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA) ? $HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA : ''; $server->service($HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA); ?> The client has the following code: <?php require_once('lib/nusoap.php'); $c = new soapclientNusoap('http://localhost/stockserver.php?wsdl'); $stockprice = $c->call('getStockQuote', array('symbol' => 'ABC')); echo "The stock price for 'ABC' is $stockprice."; ?> The database was created using the code below: CREATE TABLE `stockprices` ( `stock_id` INT UNSIGNED NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `stock_symbol` CHAR( 3 ) NOT NULL , `stock_price` DECIMAL(8,2) NOT NULL , PRIMARY KEY ( `stock_id` ) ); INSERT INTO `stockprices` VALUES (1, 'ABC', '75.00'); INSERT INTO `stockprices` VALUES (2, 'DEF', '45.00'); INSERT INTO `stockprices` VALUES (3, 'GHI', '12.00'); INSERT INTO `stockprices` VALUES (4, 'JKL', '34.00'); When I run the client the result I get is this: The stock price for 'ABC' is . 75.00 is not being printed as the price.

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  • Can I have two separate projects, 1 WebForms and 1 ASP.NET MVC, to both point to the same domain?

    - by Hamman359
    Is it possible to setup two separate projects, 1 WebForms and 1 ASP.NET MVC, to both point to the same domain? i.e. both point to different pages within www.somesite.com. Here's some background on the application and why I'm asking. This is a brownfield application that is currently 2.0 WebForms and is full of WebFormy 'goodness' (i.e. ObjectDataSources, FormView controls, UpdatePanels, etc...) There are lost of other 'fun' things in the code base like 600+ Stored Procedures and 200+ line methods in the business layer code that get data from the DB via stored proc, do some processing on the data, build an HTML string using string concatenation and then return that string to the UI layer. What we are planning on doing is developing new features in MVC and slowly converting the existing features over to MVC one at a time. As part of this transition, we will also be re-writing the layers below the UI to clean up the mess there and to do things like replace the stored procedures with NHibernate and introduce an IOC container. I know that you can run WebForms and MVC side-by-side in the same project, however, because we will be making wholesale changes to the way we do many things throughout our entire development stack, I'd like the new stuff to be a completely separate project within the solution. This should help serve as very visual reminder that this is a different way of doing things than before and make it easier to remove the old code as it is no longer needed. What I don't know is, is this even possible? Can two separate project point to the same domain? Here's an quick example of what I'm thinking: www.somesite.com/orders.aspx?id=123 (Orders page from existing WebForms project) www.somesite.com/customer/987 (Customer page from new MVC project)

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  • Proper use of the IDisposable interface

    - by cwick
    I know from reading the MSDN documentation that the "primary" use of the IDisposable interface is to clean up unmanaged resources http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.idisposable.aspx. To me, "unmanaged" means things like database connections, sockets, window handles, etc. But, I've seen code where the Dispose method is implemented to free managed resources, which seems redundant to me, since the garbage collector should take care of that for you. For example: public class MyCollection : IDisposable { private List<String> _theList = new List<String>(); private Dictionary<String, Point> _theDict = new Dictionary<String, Point>(); // Die, you gravy sucking pig dog! public void Dispose() { _theList.clear(); _theDict.clear(); _theList = null; _theDict = null; } My question is, does this make the garbage collector free memory used by MyCollection any faster than it normally would? edit: So far people have posted some good examples of using IDisposable to clean up unmanaged resources such as database connections and bitmaps. But suppose that _theList in the above code contained a million strings, and you wanted to free that memory now, rather than waiting for the garbage collector. Would the above code accomplish that?

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  • How do I use a modalViewController Identically in Two Controllers?

    - by Theory
    I'm using the Three20 TTMessageController in my app. I've figured out how to use it, adding on a bunch of other stuff (including TTMessageControllerDelegate methods and ABPeoplePickerNavigationControllerDelegate methods). It works great for me, after a bit of a struggle to figure it out. The trouble I'm having now is a design issue: I want to use it identically in two different places, including with the same delegate methods. My current approach is that I've put all the code into a single class inheriting from NSObject, called ComposerProxy, and I'm just having the two controllers that use it use the proxy, like so: ComposerProxy *proxy = [[ComposerProxy alloc] initWithController:this]; [proxy go]; The go method constructs the TTMessageController, configures it, adds it to a UINavigationController, and presents it: [self.controller presentModalViewController: navController animated: YES]; This works great, as I have all my code nicely encapsulated in ComposerProxy and I need only the above two lines anywhere I want to use it. The downside, though, is that I can't dealloc the proxy variable without getting crashes. I can't autorelease it, either: same problem. So I'm wondering if my proxy approach is a poor one. How does one normally encapsulate a bunch of behaviors like this without requiring a lot of duplicate code in the classes that use it? Do I need to add a delegate class to my ComposerProxy and make the controller responsible for dismissing the modal view controller in a hypothetical composerDidFinish method or some such? Many TIA!

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  • How to set SQL_BIG_SELECTS = 1 from VB(legacy ASP) with ADODB environment?

    - by conecon
    I encountered The SELECT would examine more than MAX_JOIN_SIZE rows; check your WHERE and use SET SQL_BIG_SELECTS=1 or SET SQL_MAX_JOIN_SIZE=# if the SELECT is okay error with my ASP code. ASP code has server side ADODB connection with MySQL and connection seems not be able to execute multiple query. How to implement SQL_BIG_SELECTS = 1 in my code? Set obj_db = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Session("ConnectionString") = "dsn=dsn1016189_mysql;uid=apns;pwd=mypassword;DATABASE=mydb;APP=ASP Script;STMT=SET CHARACTER SET SJIS" obj_db.Open Session("ConnectionString") Set obj_ret = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") obj_ret.CursorLocation = 3 and executing SQL... SQL_BIG_SELECTS = 1; SELECT pu.login_id, pu.p_login_id, pu.first_name, pu.last_name, pu.sex, pu.is_admin, pu.attendance, pu.invited, pu.reason, qaa1.answer AS qaa1_answer, COUNT(pu2.p_login_id) AS companion FROM party_user pu LEFT OUTER JOIN party_user pu2 ON pu2.p_login_id = pu.login_id LEFT OUTER JOIN qa_answer qaa1 ON qaa1.login_id = pu.login_id AND qaa1.party_id = pu.party_id AND qaa1.sort_num = '1' WHERE pu.party_id = '92' AND pu.p_login_id = '' GROUP BY pu.login_id, pu.p_login_id, pu.first_name, pu.last_name, pu.sex, pu.is_admin, pu.attendance, pu.reason, qaa1.answer, pu.invited ORDER BY pu.login_id ASC; I can't execute multiple query and above query become error. You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'SELECT pu.login_id, pu.p_login_id, pu.first_name, pu.last_name, pu.sex, pu.is_ad' at line 1

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  • iTextSharp Conversion from Table to pdfPTable

    - by Al.
    I have an old ASP.NET project originally done in ASP.NET 1.1 w/ iText.NET and converted to .NET 2.0 and iTextSharp 4.1.6.0. It uses lots of Table (I'm assuming pdfptable wasn't an option at the time it was created.) I am trying to convert this code to use the latest iTextSharp 5.0.0 dll and now see Table and cell have been removed. I started converting it anyway and soon found there is no equivalent to a lot of the functionality that Table offered. Mainly AddCell no longer allows a col,row setting. There are literally thousands of these calls in this code and the posibility of changing it to generate linearly row by row looks hopeless at the moment. The current code looks something like: Dim myTable As New Table(NumReq + 2, IngDS.Tables(0).Rows.Count + 3) myTable.SetWidths(Width) myTable.Width = 100 myTable.Padding = 2 myCell = New Cell(New Phrase("Some Text", New iTextSharp.text.Font(iTextSharp.text.Font.HELVETICA, 8, iTextSharp.text.Font.NORMAL, iTextSharp.text.Color.BLACK))) myCell.SetHorizontalAlignment(Element.ALIGN_RIGHT) myCell.GrayFill = 0.75 myTable.AddCell(myCell, Row, Col) myCell = New Cell(New Phrase("Other Text",New iTextSharp.text.Font(iTextSharp.text.Font.HELVETICA, 8, iTextSharp.text.Font.NORMAL, iTextSharp.text.Color.BLACK))) myCell.GrayFill = 0.75 myTable.AddCell(myCell, Row, Col+1) Before I embark down that road I was hoping someone would be able to point me in a direction that I'm just totally missing that will make this conversion much more simple. Any ideas? Thanks.

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  • Telephone Number to Geolocation UK

    - by David Toy
    Is there a service that provides latitude and longitude for UK phone numbers? For example: Query: 0141 574 xxx, Returns: (55.8659829, -4.2602205) [Glasgow City Centre] Allow me to stress that I am not looking for a reverse-directory-enquires. I am more interested in 'local area' for things like weather by phone or "Where's my nearest Pizza Shop?" If this service doesn't exist your suggestions on how to implement it or where to get data from would also be incredibly useful. I am aware that Ofcom provides a list of area codes with a place name [1] suitable for geolocation, but I have my concerns about resolution. I see this as a particular problem in smaller towns and rural areas where an area code will cover a large geographical area. Second Example: Area Code: 01555, Ofcom: Lanark However: 01555 860xxx is Crossford (4 miles W of Lanark) 01555 77xxxx is Carluke (5 miles NW) 01555 89xxxx is Lesmahagow (5 miles SW) 01555 840xxx is Carnwath (7 miles NE) Therefore 01555 covers about ~80 sq miles. That's not particularly local. [1] Ofcom Area Code Tool: http://www.ofcom.org.uk/consumer/2009/09/telephone-area-codes-tool/

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  • CLR Stored Procedures

    - by Paul Hatcherian
    In an ASP.NET application, I have a small number of fairly complex, frequently used operations to execute against a database. In these operations, one or more of several tables needs updates or inserts based a logical evaluation of both input parameters and values of certain tables. I've maintained a separation of logic and data access, so the operation currently looks like this: Request received from client Business layer invokes data layer to retrieve data from database Business layer processes result and determines which operation to execute Business layer invokes appropriate data operation Response sent to client As you can see, the client is kept waiting while two separate requests are made to the database. In searching for a solution to this, I've found CLR Stored Procedures, but I'm not sure if I have the right idea about what they are useful for. I have written a replacement for the code above which especially places steps 2-4 in a CLR SP. My understanding is that the SP will be executed locally by SQL Server and result in only one call being made to the server. My initial benchmark tests show this is actually orders of magnitude slower than my original code, but I attribute that recompilation of the code I have not worked out yet and/or some flaw in my environment. My question is basically, is this the intended use of CLR SPs or am I missing something? I realize this is a bit of a compromise structurally, so if there's a better way to do it I'd love to hear it.

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  • Use the repository pattern when using PLINQO generated data?

    - by Chad
    I'm "upgrading" an MVC app. Previously, the DAL was a part of the Model, as a series of repositories (based on the entity name) using standard LINQ to SQL queries. Now, it's a separate project and is generated using PLINQO. Since PLINQO generates query extensions based on the properties of the entity, I started using them directly in my controller... and eliminated the repositories all together. It's working fine, this is more a question to draw upon your experience, should I continue down this path or should I rebuild the repositories (using PLINQO as the DAL within the repository files)? One benefit of just using the PLINQO generated data context is that when I need DB access, I just make one reference to the the data context. Under the repository pattern, I had to reference each repository when I needed data access, sometimes needing to reference multiple repositories on a single controller. The big benefit I saw on the repositories, were aptly named query methods (i.e. FindAllProductsByCategoryId(int id), etc...). With the PLINQO code, it's _db.Product.ByCatId(int id) - which isn't too bad either. I like both, but where it gets "harrier" is when the query uses predicates. I can roll that up into the repository query method. But on the PLINQO code, it would be something like _db.Product.Where(x = x.CatId == 1 && x.OrderId == 1); I'm not so sure I like having code like that in my controllers. Whats your take on this?

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  • How to open child forms positioned within MDI parent in VB.NET?

    - by user961627
    How do we arrange child forms in a parent MDI window? I'm able to call and display a child form from a menu on the parent, but the child pops up outside the parent - I want it to actually be inside the parent. I've checked in C# and VB.Net solutions but they all say pretty much the same, i.e. try to access LayoutMDI, such as here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/x9fhk181.aspx The problem is, where do I access this? When I'm in the code of my MDI parent, Me.LayoutMdi is not recognized. In which part of the application do I put the Me.LayoutMDI code? Edit The Me.LayoutMDI code worked in the parent after all. I'd been trying for a while but don't know where I was going wrong. However, the child continues to pop up out of the parent. Here's an image of how that happens. The broader form in the back is the parent, and the one with the gridview and two buttons is the new child that popped up. I want it to pop up "Docked" within the parent.

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  • MS Access: Why is ADODB.Recordset.BatchUpdate so much slower than Application.ImportXML?

    - by apenwarr
    I'm trying to run the code below to insert a whole lot of records (from a file with a weird file format) into my Access 2003 database from VBA. After many, many experiments, this code is the fastest I've been able to come up with: it does 10000 records in about 15 seconds on my machine. At least 14.5 of those seconds (ie. almost all the time) is in the single call to UpdateBatch. I've read elsewhere that the JET engine doesn't support UpdateBatch. So maybe there's a better way to do it. Now, I would just think the JET engine is plain slow, but that can't be it. After generating the 'testy' table with the code below, I right clicked it, picked Export, and saved it as XML. Then I right clicked, picked Import, and reloaded the XML. Total time to import the XML file? Less than one second, ie. at least 15x faster. Surely there's an efficient way to insert data into Access that doesn't require writing a temp file? Sub TestBatchUpdate() CurrentDb.Execute "create table testy (x int, y int)" Dim rs As New ADODB.Recordset rs.CursorLocation = adUseServer rs.Open "testy", CurrentProject.AccessConnection, _ adOpenStatic, adLockBatchOptimistic, adCmdTableDirect Dim n, v n = Array(0, 1) v = Array(50, 55) Debug.Print "starting loop", Time For i = 1 To 10000 rs.AddNew n, v Next i Debug.Print "done loop", Time rs.UpdateBatch Debug.Print "done update", Time CurrentDb.Execute "drop table testy" End Sub I would be willing to resort to C/C++ if there's some API that would let me do fast inserts that way. But I can't seem to find it. It can't be that Application.ImportXML is using undocumented APIs, can it?

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  • Using .NET XmlSerializer with get properties and setter functions

    - by brone
    I'm trying to use XmlSerializer from C# to save out a class that has some values that are read by properties (the code being just a simple retrieval of field value) but set by setter functions (since there is a delegate called if the value changes). What I'm currently doing is this sort of thing. The intended use is to use the InT property to read the value, and use SetInT to set it. Setting it has side-effects, so a method is more appropriate than a property here. XmlSerializationOnly_InT exists solely for the benefit of the XmlSerializer (hence the name), and shouldn't be used by normal code. class X { public double InT { get { return _inT; } } public void SetInT(double newInT) { if (newInT != _inT) { _inT = newInT; Changed();//includes delegate call; potentially expensive } } private double _inT; // not called by normal code, as the property set is not just a simple // field set or two. [XmlElement(ElementName = "InT")] public double XmlSerializationOnly_InT { get { return InT; } set { SetInT(value); } } } This works, it's easy enough to do, and the XML file looks like you'd expect. It's manual labour though, and a bit ugly, so I'm only somewhat satisfied. What I'd really like is to be able to tell the XML serialization to read the value using the property, and set it using the setter function. Then I wouldn't need XmlSerializationOnly_InT at all. I seem to be following standard practise by distinguishing between property sets and setter functions in this way, so I'm sure I'm not the only person to have encountered this (though google suggests I might be). What have others done in this situation? Is there some easy way to persuade the XmlSerializer to handle this sort of thing better? If not, is there perhaps some other easy way to do it?

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  • Avoid the problem with BigDecimal when migrating to Java 1.4 to Java 1.5+

    - by romaintaz
    Hello, I've recently migrated a Java 1.4 application to a Java 6 environment. Unfortunately, I encountered a problem with the BigDecimal storage in a Oracle database. To summarize, when I try to store a "7.65E+7" BigDecimal value (76,500,000.00) in the database, Oracle stores in reality the value of 7,650,000.00. This defect is due to the rewritting of the BigDecimal class in Java 1.5 (see here). In my code, the BigDecimal was created from a double using this kind of code: BigDecimal myBD = new BigDecimal("" + someDoubleValue); someObject.setAmount(myBD); // Now let Hibernate persists my object in DB... In more than 99% of the cases, everything works fine. Except that in really few case, the bug mentioned above occurs. And that's quite annoying. If I change the previous code to avoid the use of the String constructor of BigDecimal, then I do not encounter the bug in my uses cases: BigDecimal myBD = new BigDecimal(someDoubleValue); someObject.setAmount(myBD); // Now let Hibernate persists my object in DB... However, how can I be sure that this solution is the correct way to handle the use of BigDecimal? So my question is to know how I have to manage my BigDecimal values to avoid this issue: Do not use the new BigDecimal(String) constructor and use directly the new BigDecimal(double)? Force Oracle to use toPlainString() instead of toString() method when dealing with BigDecimal (and in this case how to do that)? Any other solution? Environment information: Java 1.6.0_14 Hibernate 2.1.8 (yes, it is a quite old version) Oracle JDBC 9.0.2.0 and also tested with 10.2.0.3.0 Oracle database 10.2.0.3.0

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  • What makes merging in DVCS easy?

    - by afriza
    I read at Joel on Software: With distributed version control, the distributed part is actually not the most interesting part. The interesting part is that these systems think in terms of changes, not in terms of versions. and at HgInit: When we have to merge, Subversion tries to look at both revisions—my modified code, and your modified code—and it tries to guess how to smash them together in one big unholy mess. It usually fails, producing pages and pages of “merge conflicts” that aren’t really conflicts, simply places where Subversion failed to figure out what we did. By contrast, while we were working separately in Mercurial, Mercurial was busy keeping a series of changesets. And so, when we want to merge our code together, Mercurial actually has a whole lot more information: it knows what each of us changed and can reapply those changes, rather than just looking at the final product and trying to guess how to put it together. By looking at the SVN's repository folder, I have the impression that Subversion is maintaining each revisions as changeset. And from what I know, Hg is using both changeset and snapshot while Git is purely using snapshot to store the data. If my assumption is correct, then there must be other ways that make merging in DVCS easy. What are those?

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  • PHP (A few questions) OO, refactoring, eclipse

    - by jax
    I am using PHP in eclipse. It works ok, I can connect to my remote site, there is colour coding of code elements and some code hints. I realise this may be too long to answer all questions, if you have a good answer for one part, answering just that is ok. Firstly General Coding I have found that it is easy to loose track of included files and their variables. For example if there was a database $cursor it is difficult to remember or even know that it was declared in the included file (this becomes much worse the more files you include). How are people dealing with this? How are people documenting their code - in particular the required GET and POST data? Secondly OO Development: Should I be going full OO in my development. Currently I have a functions library which I can include and have separated each "task" into a separate file. It is a bit nasty but it works. If I go OO how do I structure the directories in PHP, java uses packages - what about php? How should I name my files, should I use all lower case with _ for spaces "hello_world.php"? Should I name classes with Uppercase like Java "HelloWorld.php"? Is there a different naming convention for Classes and regular function files? Thirdly Refactoring I must say this is a real pain. If I change the name of a variable in one place I have to go through whole document and each file that included this file and change the name their too. Of course, errors everywhere is what results. How are people dealing with this problem? In Java if you change the name in one place it changes everywhere. Are there any plugins to improve php refactoring? I am using the official PHP version of Eclipse from their website. thanks

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  • Javascript: prototypal inheritance and the prototype property

    - by JanD
    Hi, I have a simple code fragment in JS working with prototype inheritance. function object(o) { function F() {} F.prototype = o; return new F(); } //the following code block has a alternate version var mammal = { color: "brown", getColor: function() { return this.color; } } var myCat = object(mammal); myCat.meow = function(){return "meow";} that worked fine but adding this: mammal.prototype.kindOf = "predator"; does not. ("mammal.prototype is undefined") Since I guessed that object maybe have no prototype I rewrote it, replacing the var mammal={... block with: function mammal() { this.color = "brown"; this.getColor = function() { return this.color; } } which gave me a bunch of other errors: "Function.prototype.toString called on incompatible object" and if I try to call _myCat.getColor() "myCat.getColor is not a function" Now I am totally confused. After reading Crockford, and Flanagan I did not get the solution for the errors. So it would be great if somebody knows... - why is the prototype undefined in the first example (which is foremost concern; I thought the prototype of explicitly set in the object() function) - why get I these strange errors trying to use the mammal function as prototype object in the object() function? Edit by the Creator of the Question: These two links helped a lot too: Prototypes_in_JavaScript on the spheredev wiki explains the way the prototype property works relativily simple. What it lacks is some try-out code examples. Some good examples are provided by Morris John's Article. I personally find the explanations are not that easy as in the first link, but still very good. The most difficult part even after I actually got it is really not to confuse the .prototype propery with the internal [[Prototype]] of an object.

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  • Getting proper indentation using XMLBuilder in a helper

    - by Robbie
    I'm attempting to use a view helper to create some dynamic links based on if you're logged in or not. What I want returned, for sake of easy code readability, is: <ul class="right"> <li><a href="#">Login</a></li> <li><a href="#">Register</a></li> </ul> In the view helper I have this Ruby code: def loginh xm = Builder::XmlMarkup.new(:indent=>2, :margin=>4) xm.ul("class" => "right") { xm.li('class' => 'text') { xm.text("test") } } end In the view, the line that calls login helper is already indented 4 levels. Because of this, the first line gets 'skewed', so in the view I have: <%= loginh %> Which results in: <ul class="right"> <li class="text"> <text>test</text> </li> </ul> You can see it works perfectly, except for the first line. It would appear that the first line is affected by the indent before <%= loginh % is called. I can easily remedy this by removing the indentation prior to <%= loginh % - but in essence I'd be sacrificing code readability for markup readability. Which isn't what I'm looking to do. Is there any way I could remove the beginning whitespace?

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  • Python regex look-behind requires fixed-width pattern

    - by invictus
    Hi When trying to extract the title of a html-page I have always used the following regex: (?<=<title.*>)([\s\S]*)(?=</title>) Which will extract everything between the tags in a document and ignore the tags themselves. However, when trying to use this regex in Python it raises the following Exception: Traceback (most recent call last): File "test.py", line 21, in pattern = re.compile('(?<=)([\s\S]*)(?=)') File "C:\Python31\lib\re.py", line 205, in compile return _compile(pattern, flags) File "C:\Python31\lib\re.py", line 273, in _compile p = sre_compile.compile(pattern, flags) File "C:\Python31\lib\sre_compile.py", line 495, in compile code = _code(p, flags) File "C:\Python31\lib\sre_compile.py", line 480, in _code _compile(code, p.data, flags) File "C:\Python31\lib\sre_compile.py", line 115, in _compile raise error("look-behind requires fixed-width pattern") sre_constants.error: look-behind requires fixed-width pattern The code I am using is: pattern = re.compile('(?<=<title.*>)([\s\S]*)(?=</title>)') m = pattern.search(f) if I do some minimal adjustments it works: pattern = re.compile('(?<=<title>)([\s\S]*)(?=</title>)') m = pattern.search(f) This will, however, not take into account potential html titles that for some reason have attributes or similar. Anyone know a good workaround for this issue? Any tips are appreciated.

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  • How do I use Perl's WWW::Facebook::API to publish to a user's newsfeed?

    - by Russell C.
    We use Facebook Connect on our site in conjunction with the WWW::Facebook::API CPAN module to publish to our users newsfeed when requested by the user. So far we've been able to successfully update the user's status using the following code: use WWW::Facebook::API; my $facebook = WWW::Facebook::API->new( desktop => 0, api_key => $fb_api_key, secret => $fb_secret, session_key => $query->cookie($fb_api_key.'_session_key'), session_expires => $query->cookie($fb_api_key.'_expires'), session_uid => $query->cookie($fb_api_key.'_user') ); my $response = $facebook->stream->publish( message => qq|Test status message|, ); However, when we try to update the code above so we can publish newsfeed stories that include attachments and action links as specified in the Facebook API documentation for Stream.Publish, we have tried about 100 different ways without any success. According to the CPAN documentation all we should have to do is update our code to something like the following and pass the attachments & action links appropriately which doesn't seem to work: my $response = $facebook->stream->publish( message => qq|Test status message|, attachment => $json, action_links => [@links], ); For example, we are passing the above arguments as follows: $json = qq|{ 'name': 'i\'m bursting with joy', 'href': ' http://bit.ly/187gO1', 'caption': '{*actor*} rated the lolcat 5 stars', 'description': 'a funny looking cat', 'properties': { 'category': { 'text': 'humor', 'href': 'http://bit.ly/KYbaN'}, 'ratings': '5 stars' }, 'media': [{ 'type': 'image', 'src': 'http://icanhascheezburger.files.wordpress.com/2009/03/funny-pictures-your-cat-is-bursting-with-joy1.jpg', 'href': 'http://bit.ly/187gO1'}] }|; @links = ["{'text':'Link 1', 'href':'http://www.link1.com'}","{'text':'Link 2', 'href':'http://www.link2.com'}"]; The above, nor any of the other representations we tried seem to work. I'm hoping some other perl developer out there has this working and can explain how to create the attachment and action_links variables appropriately in Perl for posting to the Facebook news feed through WWW::Facebook::API. Thanks in advance for your help!

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  • Does DefaultAppPool run with special elevated privilegs on IIS?

    - by Leeks and Leaks
    I'm running a piece of code within a web page that queries the IIS metabase using ADSI. The code is as simple as this: DirectoryEntry iisNode = new DirectoryEntry("/LM/W3SVC/1/ROOT/MyAspWebsite-1-128886021498831845"); foreach (DirectoryEntry de in iisNode.Parent.Children) { System.Console.WriteLine(de.Name); } This works fine when I run the page/site under the DefaultAppPool on IIS7/W2K8. However when I create my own app pool and leave the properties the same as the default app pool, this code fails with the following error: Caught: System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException Failed to parse virtual directory: /LM/W3SVC/1/ROOT/MyAspWebsite-1-128889542757187500 System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x80070005): Access is denied. What special privileges does the DefaultAppPool have? I don't see any documented. I need this to work in non default app pools, but without giving the entire worker process elevated privileges. I've also tried using the username and password parameters of the DirectoryEntry constructor, by using the Admin on the machine that IIS7 is running on, but that didn't change anything. I'll also note that this works fine on IIS6 and W2K3. Any help is appreciated.

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  • JPA - Performance with using multiple entity manager

    - by Nguyen Tuan Linh
    My situation is: The code is not mine I have two kinds of database: one is Dad, one is Son. In Dad, I have a table to store JNDI name. I will look up Dad using JNDI, create entity manager, and retrieve this table. From these retrieved JNDI names, I will create multiple entity managers using multiple Son databases. The problem is: Son have thousands of entities. It takes each Son database around 10 minutes to load all entities. If there is 4 Son databases, it will be 40 minutes. My question: Is there any way to load all entities and use them for all entity manager? Please look at the code below For each Son JNDI: Map<String, String> puSonProperties = new HashMap<String, String>(); puSonProperties.put("javax.persistence.jtaDataSource", sonJndi); EntityManagerFactory emf = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory("PUSon", puSonProperties); PUSon - All of them use the same persistence unit log.info("Verify entity manager for son: {0} - {1}", sonCode, emSon.find(Son_configuration.class, 0) != null ? "ok" : "failed!"); This is the actual code where the loading of all entities begins. 10 mins.

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  • How to avoid chaotic ASP.NET web application deployment?

    - by emzero
    Ok, so here's the thing. I'm developing an existing (it started being an ASP classic app, so you can imagine :P) web application under ASP.NET 4.0 and SQLServer 2005. We are 4 developers using local instances of SQL Server 2005 Express, having the source-code and the Visual Studio database project This webapp has several "universes" (that's how we call it). Every universe has its own database (currently on the same server) but they all share the same schema (tables, sprocs, etc) and the same source/site code. So manually deploying is really annoying, because I have to deploy the source code and then run the sql scripts manually on each database. I know that manual deploying can cause problems, so I'm looking for a way of automating it. We've recently created a Visual Studio Database Project to manage the schema and generate the diff-schema scripts with different targets. I don't have idea how to put the pieces together I would like to: Have a way to make a "sync" deploy to a target server (thanksfully I have full RDC access to the servers so I can install things if required). With "sync" deploy I mean that I don't want to fully deploy the whole application, because it has lots of files and I just want to deploy those new or changed. Generate diff-sql update scripts for every database target and combine it to just 1 script. For this I should have some list of the databases names somewhere. Copy the site files and executing the generated sql script in an easy and automated way. I've read about MSBuild, MS WebDeploy, NAnt, etc. But I don't really know where to start and I really want to get rid of this manual deploy. If there is a better and easier way of doing it than what I enumerated, I'll be pleased to read your option. I know this is not a very specific question but I've googled a lot about it and it seems I cannot figure out how to do it. I've never used any automation tool to deploy. Any help will be really appreciated, Thank you all, Regards

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