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  • Retrieving/Updating Entity Framework POCO objects that already exist in the ObjectContext

    - by jslatts
    I have a project using Entity Framework 4.0 with POCOs (data is stored in SQL DB, lazyloading is enabled) as follows: public class ParentObject { public int ID {get; set;} public virtual List<ChildObject> children {get; set;} } public class ChildObject { public int ID {get; set;} public int ChildRoleID {get; set;} public int ParentID {get; set;} public virtual ParentObject Parent {get; set;} public virtual ChildRoleObject ChildRole {get; set;} } public class ChildRoleObject { public int ID {get; set;} public string Name {get; set;} public virtual List<ChildObject> children {get; set;} } I want to create a new ChildObject, assign it a role, then add it to an existing ParentObject. Afterwards, I want to send the new ChildObject to the caller. The code below works fine until it tries to get the object back from the database. The newChildObjectInstance only has the ChildRoleID set and does not contain a reference to the actual ChildRole object. I try and pull the new instance back out of the database in order to populate the ChildRole property. Unfortunately, in this case, instead of creating a new instance of ChildObject and assigning it to retreivedChildObject, EF finds the existing ChildObject in the context and returns the in-memory instance, with a null ChildRole property. public ChildObject CreateNewChild(int id, int roleID) { SomeObjectContext myRepository = new SomeObjectContext(); ParentObject parentObjectInstance = myRepository.GetParentObject(id); ChildObject newChildObjectInstance = new ChildObject() { ParentObject = parentObjectInstance, ParentID = parentObjectInstance.ID, ChildRoleID = roleID }; parentObjectInstance.children.Add(newChildObjectInstance); myRepository.Save(); ChildObject retreivedChildObject = myRepository.GetChildObject(newChildObjectInstance.ID); string assignedRoleName = retreivedChildObject.ChildRole.Name; //Throws exception, ChildRole is null return retreivedChildObject; } I have tried setting MergeOptions to Overwrite, calling ObjectContext.Refresh() and ObjectContext.DetectChanges() to no avail... I suspect this is related to the proxy objects that EF injects when working with POCOs. Has anyone run into this issue before? If so, what was the solution?

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  • Connect to SQLite Database using Eclipse (Java)

    - by bnabilos
    Hello, I'm trying to connect to SQLite database with Ecplise but I have some errors. This is my Java code and the errors that I get on output. Please see if you can help me. Thank you in advance. package jdb; import java.sql.*; public class Test { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { Class.forName("org.sqlite.JDBC"); Connection conn = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:sqlite:/Applications/MAMP/db/sqlite/test.sqlite"); Statement stat = conn.createStatement(); stat.executeUpdate("drop table if exists people;"); stat.executeUpdate("create table people (name, occupation);"); PreparedStatement prep = conn.prepareStatement( "insert into people values (?, ?);"); prep.setString(1, "Gandhi"); prep.setString(2, "politics"); prep.addBatch(); prep.setString(1, "Turing"); prep.setString(2, "computers"); prep.addBatch(); prep.setString(1, "Wittgenstein"); prep.setString(2, "smartypants"); prep.addBatch(); conn.setAutoCommit(false); prep.executeBatch(); conn.setAutoCommit(true); ResultSet rs = stat.executeQuery("select * from people;"); while (rs.next()) { System.out.println("name = " + rs.getString("name")); System.out.println("job = " + rs.getString("occupation")); } rs.close(); conn.close(); } } ans that what I get in Ecplise : Exception in thread "main" java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.sqlite.JDBC at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:200) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:188) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:315) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:330) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:250) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:398) at java.lang.Class.forName0(Native Method) at java.lang.Class.forName(Class.java:169) at jdb.Test.main(Test.java:7) Thank you

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  • Same data being returned by linq for 2 different executions of a stored procedure?

    - by Paul
    Hello I have a stored procedure that I am calling through Entity Framework. The stored procedure has 2 date parameters. I supply different argument in the 2 times I call the stored procedure. I have verified using SQL Profiler that the stored procedure is being called correctly and returning the correct results. When I call my method the second time with different arguments, even though the stored procedure is bringing back the correct results, the table created contains the same data as the first time I called it. dtStart = 01/08/2009 dtEnd = 31/08/2009 public List<dataRecord> GetData(DateTime dtStart, DateTime dtEnd) { var tbl = from t in db.SP(dtStart, dtEnd) select t; return tbl.ToList(); } GetData((new DateTime(2009, 8, 1), new DateTime(2009, 8, 31)) // tbl.field1 value = 45450 - CORRECT GetData(new DateTime(2009, 7, 1), new DateTime(2009, 7, 31)) // tbl.field1 value = 45450 - WRONG 27456 expected Is this a case of Entity Framework being clever and caching? I can't see why it would cache this though as it has executed the stored procedure twice. Do I have to do something to close tbl? using Visual Studio 2008 + Entity Framework. I also get the message "query cannot be enumerated more than once" a few times every now and then, am not sure if that is relevant? FULL CODE LISTING namespace ProfileDataService { public partial class DataService { public static List<MeterTotalConsumpRecord> GetTotalAllTimesConsumption(DateTime dtStart, DateTime dtEnd, EUtilityGroup ug, int nMeterSelectionType, int nCustomerID, int nUserID, string strSelection, bool bClosedLocations, bool bDisposedLocations) { dbChildDataContext db = DBManager.ChildDataConext(nCustomerID); var tbl = from t in db.GetTotalConsumptionByMeter(dtStart, dtEnd, (int) ug, nMeterSelectionType, nCustomerID, nUserID, strSelection, bClosedLocations, bDisposedLocations, 1) select t; return tbl.ToList(); } } } /// CALLER List<MeterTotalConsumpRecord> _P1Totals; List<MeterTotalConsumpRecord> _P2Totals; public void LoadData(int nUserID, int nCustomerID, ELocationSelectionMethod locationSelectionMethod, string strLocations, bool bIncludeClosedLocations, bool bIncludeDisposedLocations, DateTime dtStart, DateTime dtEnd, ReportsBusinessLogic.Lists.EPeriodType durMainPeriodType, ReportsBusinessLogic.Lists.EPeriodType durCompareToPeriodType, ReportsBusinessLogic.Lists.EIncreaseReportType rptType, bool bIncludeDecreases) { ///Code for setting properties using parameters.. _P2Totals = ProfileDataService.DataService.GetTotalAllTimesConsumption(_P2StartDate, _P2EndDate, EUtilityGroup.Electricity, 1, nCustomerID, nUserID, strLocations, bIncludeClosedLocations, bIncludeDisposedLocations); _P1Totals = ProfileDataService.DataService.GetTotalAllTimesConsumption(_StartDate, _EndDate, EUtilityGroup.Electricity, 1, nCustomerID, nUserID, strLocations, bIncludeClosedLocations, bIncludeDisposedLocations); PopulateLines() //This fills up a list of objects with information for my report ready for the totals to be added PopulateTotals(_P1Totals, 1); PopulateTotals(_P2Totals, 2); } void PopulateTotals(List<MeterTotalConsumpRecord> objTotals, int nPeriod) { MeterTotalConsumpRecord objMeterConsumption = null; foreach (IncreaseReportDataRecord objLine in _Lines) { objMeterConsumption = objTotals.Find(delegate(MeterTotalConsumpRecord t) { return t.MeterID == objLine.MeterID; }); if (objMeterConsumption != null) { if (nPeriod == 1) { objLine.P1Consumption = (double)objMeterConsumption.Consumption; } else { objLine.P2Consumption = (double)objMeterConsumption.Consumption; } objMeterConsumption = null; } } } }

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  • How do you use technology to memorize set of terms?

    - by user49767
    Always there are few set of items needs to be memorized in short span of time. Here are my following cases. 1) My Job requires some set of items needs to be memorized. 2) I am a developer who has to learn 150+ tags within next 3 days. 3) Fix developer/support has to remember minimum of 125+ tags (set of possible values). 4) It is better if team's SQL developer knows all the table and columns in my database. 5) When guys join new department or job. Memorizing few related items will definitely gives some benefit. Most of the cases, I suggest people to understand the domain better and nothing wrong in using google (but remember correct search-word). But recently I came across a junior developer who took lot of effort in memorizing set of things (150+ table structures, fix protocol tags, almost 300+ configuration items from property file) and was very very successful in his job and was swift in responding for support queries. Needless to say he is smart worker too (not a dumb guy). When I try to recollect some of the successful employees I met, they were so good in remembering entire schema and they did in short span of time. But I don't argue that memorizing alone gives success, but it greatly helps when situation demands. Here my question is, I am not good at remembering things, but it shouldn't be lame excuse. Hence I am evaluating using technolgies better to memorize set of items. Not very much interested in memory techniques (mnemoninc, photography memory, etc..). Even I have recorded 100+ items and listen to that whenever I found free time, defintely there were some fruitful result. Now I need your suggestion about what are all the ways to exploit technology to memorize. There could be so many reason why guys remember a subject (passionate, essential, author, creator, responsbile). Not interested in dissecting why guys remeber. Rather much interested in using ways, and techniques (cheat sheet...) to remember a set of itmes. Note : I appreciate, encourage people who could rephrase my question better. Note : I have kept couple of cheat-sheet close to my monitor, honestly it did not help me :).

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  • Creating a music catalog and extracting first 30 seconds as soon as the first words are sung

    - by Rad
    I already read a question: Separation of singing voice from music. I don’t need this complex audio processing. I only need some detection mechanism that would detect that there is some voice/vocal playing while the music is playing (or not playing) I need to extract first 30 seconds when a vocalist starts singing along with full band music. See question 2 below. I want to create a music catalog using ASP.NET MVC 2 and Silverlight clients and C#.NET 4.0 programming language that would be front store. On the backend I would also like to create a desktop WPF/Windows application to create the music catalog from already existing music files, most of which have metadata in them ID3v1, ID3v2.3, ID3v2.4, iTunes MP4, WMA, Vorbis Comments and APE Tags etc. I would possibly like to create a web service that would allow catalog contributors to upload a zipped album and trigger metadata extraction of music data and extraction of music segments as described below. I would be happy if I achieve no. 1 below. Let's say I have 1000ths of songs in mp3 (or other formats) grouped in subfolders using some classification (Genre, Artists, Albums, Composers or other groupings). I want to create tables in DB that would organize songs so they can be searched based on different criteria (year, length, above classification or by song title, description etc) like what iTune store allows to their customers. I want to extract metadata from various formats (I will try to get songs in mp3 format, but there may be other popular formats) and allow music Catalog manager person to add missing data from either desktop or web applications. He or other contributors can upload zipped music via an HTML or Silverlight upload or WPF. Can anybody suggest open source libraries, articles, code snippets that can do that in an automatic way using .NET and possibly SQL Server DB? My main questions are these. This is an audio processing challenge. I want to extract 2 segments of music (questions 1 and 2): 1. How to extract a music segment: 1-2 seconds before a vocal starts singing and up to 30 seconds from that point in time and 2. Much more challenging is to find repeating segments (One would usually find or recognize the names of the songs and songs are usually known by these refrains. How would I go about creating a list of songs that go great together like what Genius from iTune does? Is there any characteristics of music that can be used to match songs? The goal is for people quickly scan and recognize songs i.e. associate melody, words with a title/album so they can make intelligent decisions like buying a song, create similar mood songs.

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  • Using PHP session_id() to Make Sure iframe is Generated by Our Server Dynamically

    - by Michael Robinson
    We use iframes to show ads on our site. Iframes are used to allow us to keep the ad generation code and other site modules separate. As we track ad views on our site, and need to be able to keep an accurate count of which pagetype gets what views, I must ensure that users can't simply copy-paste the iframe in which the ad is loaded onto another site. This would cause ad count to become inflated for this page, and the count would not match the view count of the page the iframe "should" be displayed in. Before anyone says so: no I can't simply compare the page view count with the ad view count, or use the page view count * number of ads per page, as # of ads per page will not necessarily be static. I need to come up with a solution that will allow ads to be shown only for iframes that are generated dynamically and are shown on our pages. I am not familiar with PHP sessions, but from what little reading I have had time to do, the following seems to be to be an acceptable solution: Add "s = session_id()" to the src of the ad's iframe. In the code that receives and processes ad requests, only return (and count) and ad if s == session_id(). Please correct me if I'm wrong, but this would ensure: Ads would only be returned to iframes whose src was generated alongside the rest of the page's content, as is the case during normal use. We can return our logo to ad calls with an invalid session_id. So a simple example would be: One of our pages: <?php session_start(); ?> <div id="someElement"> <!-- EVERYONE LOVES ADS --> <iframe src="http//awesomesite.com/ad/can_has_ad.php?s=<?php echo session_id(); ?>></iframe> </div> ad/can_has_ad.php: <?php session_start(); ?> if($_GET['s'] == session_id()){ echo 'can has ad'; } else{ echo '<img src="http://awesomesite.com/images/canhaslogo.jpg"/>'; } And finally, copied code with static 's' parameter: <!-- HAHA LULZ I WILL SCREW WITH YOUR AD VIEW COUNTS LULZ HAHA --> <iframe src="http//awesomesite.com/ad/can_has_ad.php?s=77f2b5fcdab52f52607888746969b0ad></iframe> Which would give them an iframe showing our awesome site's logo, and not screw with our view counts. I made some basic test cases: two files, one that generates the iframe and echos it, and one that the iframe's src is pointed to, that checks the 's' parameter and shows an appropriate message depending on the result. I copied the iframe into a file and hosted it on a different server, and the correct message was displayed (cannot has ad). So, my question is: Would this work or am I being a PHP session noob, with the above test being a total fluke? Thanks for your time! Edit: I'm trying to solve this without touching the SQL server

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  • Error while sending email to Multiple Addresses From MYSQL Database using PHP

    - by user1751581
    I am trying to send an email to multiple email addresses which are contained in a database and sorted into a recordset... The recordset has multiple columns, but I only need one: "Email". I know that if I have them in an array I can implode them and separate them by commas, but I'm not sure how I could do that with a recordset column. Anyone know how? BTW I know I have the mail function commented out... The echo is returning null... Heres the code that I tried: $colname_rsAllLeads = "-1"; if (isset($_SESSION['MM_Username'])) { $colname_rsAllLeads = $_SESSION['MM_Username']; } mysql_select_db($database_myBackOfficeConn, $myBackOfficeConn); $query_rsAllLeads = sprintf("SELECT Email FROM Leads WHERE `User` = %s ORDER BY FullName ASC", GetSQLValueString($colname_rsAllLeads, "text")); $rsAllLeads = mysql_query($query_rsAllLeads, $myBackOfficeConn) or die(mysql_error()); $row_rsAllLeads = mysql_fetch_assoc($rsAllLeads); $totalRows_rsAllLeads = mysql_num_rows($rsAllLeads); $editFormAction = $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; if (isset($_SERVER['QUERY_STRING'])) { $editFormAction .= "?" . htmlentities($_SERVER['QUERY_STRING']); } if ((isset($_POST["MM_insert"])) && ($_POST["MM_insert"] == "form")) { $startcode = $_POST['messagefield']; $replaced = preg_replace( '/\\\\(?="|\')/', '', $startcode ); echo $replaced; $collectedleads = implode(',', $row_rsAllLeads['Email']); echo $collectedleads; /* $to = $collectedleads; $subject = $_POST['subjectfield']; $body = $replaced; $headers = "MIME-Version: 1.0\r\n"; $headers .= "Content-type: text/html; charset=iso-8859-1\r\n"; $headers .= "From: " . $row_rs_CurrentUser['FirstName'] . " " . $row_rs_CurrentUser['LastName'] . " <" . $row_rs_CurrentUser['Email'] . ">"; if (mail($to, $subject, $body, $headers)) { } else { echo("<p>Message delivery failed...</p>"); } */ $insertSQL = sprintf("INSERT INTO PendingEmails (`to`, subject, message) VALUES (%s, %s, %s)", GetSQLValueString($row_rsAllLeads['Email'], "text"), GetSQLValueString($_POST['subjectfield'], "text"), GetSQLValueString($_POST['messagefield'], "text")); mysql_select_db($database_myBackOfficeConn, $myBackOfficeConn); $Result1 = mysql_query($insertSQL, $myBackOfficeConn) or die(mysql_error()); $insertGoTo = "Email Sent.php"; if (isset($_SERVER['QUERY_STRING'])) { $insertGoTo .= (strpos($insertGoTo, '?')) ? "&" : "?"; $insertGoTo .= $_SERVER['QUERY_STRING']; } header(sprintf("Location: %s", $insertGoTo)); } When I use var_dump($row_rsAllLeads['Email']) it outputs string(16) "[email protected]" but I know that there is no error in my SQL query because when I put them in a select box, they all show up...

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  • Best way to test for a variable's existence in PHP; isset() is clearly broken

    - by chazomaticus
    From the isset() docs: isset() will return FALSE if testing a variable that has been set to NULL. Basically, isset() doesn't check for whether the variable is set at all, but whether it's set to anything but NULL. Given that, what's the best way to actually check for the existence of a variable? I tried something like: if(isset($v) || @is_null($v)) (the @ is necessary to avoid the warning when $v is not set) but is_null() has a similar problem to isset(): it returns TRUE on unset variables! It also appears that: @($v === NULL) works exactly like @is_null($v), so that's out, too. How are we supposed to reliably check for the existence of a variable in PHP? Edit: there is clearly a difference in PHP between variables that are not set, and variables that are set to NULL: <?php $a = array('b' => NULL); var_dump($a); PHP shows that $a['b'] exists, and has a NULL value. If you add: var_dump(isset($a['b'])); var_dump(isset($a['c'])); you can see the ambiguity I'm talking about with the isset() function. Here's the output of all three of these var_dump()s: array(1) { ["b"]=> NULL } bool(false) bool(false) Further edit: two things. One, a use case. An array being turned into the data of an SQL UPDATE statement, where the array's keys are the table's columns, and the array's values are the values to be applied to each column. Any of the table's columns can hold a NULL value, signified by passing a NULL value in the array. You need a way to differentiate between an array key not existing, and an array's value being set to NULL; that's the difference between not updating the column's value and updating the column's value to NULL. Second, Zoredache's answer, array_key_exists() works correctly, for my above use case and for any global variables: <?php $a = NULL; var_dump(array_key_exists('a', $GLOBALS)); var_dump(array_key_exists('b', $GLOBALS)); outputs: bool(true) bool(false) Since that properly handles just about everywhere I can see there being any ambiguity between variables that don't exist and variables that are set to NULL, I'm calling array_key_exists() the official easiest way in PHP to truly check for the existence of a variable. (Only other case I can think of is for class properties, for which there's property_exists(), which, according to its docs, works similarly to array_key_exists() in that it properly distinguishes between not being set and being set to NULL.)

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  • Different behaviour using unidirectional or bidirectional relation

    - by sinuhepop
    I want to persist a mail entity which has some resources (inline or attachment). First I related them as a bidirectional relation: @Entity public class Mail extends BaseEntity { @OneToMany(mappedBy = "mail", cascade = CascadeType.ALL, orphanRemoval = true) private List<MailResource> resource; private String receiver; private String subject; private String body; @Temporal(TemporalType.TIMESTAMP) private Date queued; @Temporal(TemporalType.TIMESTAMP) private Date sent; public Mail(String receiver, String subject, String body) { this.receiver = receiver; this.subject = subject; this.body = body; this.queued = new Date(); this.resource = new ArrayList<>(); } public void addResource(String name, MailResourceType type, byte[] content) { resource.add(new MailResource(this, name, type, content)); } } @Entity public class MailResource extends BaseEntity { @ManyToOne(optional = false) private Mail mail; private String name; private MailResourceType type; private byte[] content; } And when I saved them: Mail mail = new Mail("[email protected]", "Hi!", "..."); mail.addResource("image", MailResourceType.INLINE, someBytes); mail.addResource("documentation.pdf", MailResourceType.ATTACHMENT, someOtherBytes); mailRepository.save(mail); Three inserts were executed: INSERT INTO MAIL (ID, BODY, QUEUED, RECEIVER, SENT, SUBJECT) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?) INSERT INTO MAILRESOURCE (ID, CONTENT, NAME, TYPE, MAIL_ID) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?, ?) INSERT INTO MAILRESOURCE (ID, CONTENT, NAME, TYPE, MAIL_ID) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?, ?) Then I thought it would be better using only a OneToMany relation. No need to save which Mail is in every MailResource: @Entity public class Mail extends BaseEntity { @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, orphanRemoval = true) @JoinColumn(name = "mail_id") private List<MailResource> resource; ... public void addResource(String name, MailResourceType type, byte[] content) { resource.add(new MailResource(name, type, content)); } } @Entity public class MailResource extends BaseEntity { private String name; private MailResourceType type; private byte[] content; } Generated tables are exactly the same (MailResource has a FK to Mail). The problem is the executed SQL: INSERT INTO MAIL (ID, BODY, QUEUED, RECEIVER, SENT, SUBJECT) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?) INSERT INTO MAILRESOURCE (ID, CONTENT, NAME, TYPE) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?) INSERT INTO MAILRESOURCE (ID, CONTENT, NAME, TYPE) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?) UPDATE MAILRESOURCE SET mail_id = ? WHERE (ID = ?) UPDATE MAILRESOURCE SET mail_id = ? WHERE (ID = ?) Why this two updates? I'm using EclipseLink, will this behaviour be the same using another JPA provider as Hibernate? Which solution is better?

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  • XY-Scatter Chart In SSRS Won't Display Points

    - by Dalin Seivewright
    I'm a bit confused with this one. I have a Dataset with a BackupDate and a BackupTime as well as a BackupType. The BackupDate is comprised of 12 characters from the left of a datetime string within a table. The BackupTime is comprised of 8 characters from the right of that same datetime string. So for example: BackupDate would be 'December 12 2008' and the BackupTime would be '12:53PM.' I have added an XY-scatter chart to the report. I've added a 'series' value for the BackupType (so one can distinguish between a Full/Incr/Log backup). I've added a category value of BackupDate and set the Scale for the X-axis from the Min of BackupDate to the Max of BackupDate. I've then added an item to the Values with the Y variable set to BackupTime and the X variable set to BackupDate. The interval for the Y-axis is 12:00AM to 11:59PM and the formatting for the labels is 'hh:mmtt'. The BackupTime matches the format of the Y-axis. The BackupDate matches the format of the X-axis. 10 entries are retrieved by my Dataset and the Legend is properly populated by the BackupType field. No points are being plotted on the graph and no markers/pointers are shown if they are enabled. There should be a point on the graph for every point in time of each day there is a backup of a specific type. Am I missing something? Does anyone know of a good tutorial dealing specifically with XY-scatter graphs and using them in a way I intend? I am using the 2005 version of SSRS rather than the 2008 version. Screenshot of what my chart currently looks like: In case it could be dataset related: SELECT TOP (10) backup_type, LTRIM(RTRIM(LEFT(backup_finish_date, 12))) AS BackupDate, LTRIM(RTRIM(RIGHT(backup_finish_date, 8))) AS BackupTime FROM DBARepository.Backup_History As requested, here are the results of this query. There is a Where clause to constrain the results to a specific database of a specific server that was not included in the above SQL Query. Log Dec 26 2008 12:00PM Log Dec 27 2008 4:00AM Log Dec 27 2008 8:00AM Log Dec 27 2008 12:00PM Log Dec 27 2008 4:00PM Log Dec 27 2008 8:00PM Database Dec 27 2008 10:01PM Log Dec 28 2008 12:00AM Log Dec 28 2008 4:00AM Log Dec 28 2008 8:00AM

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  • A better way to delete a list of elements from multiple tables

    - by manyxcxi
    I know this looks like a 'please write the code' request, but some basic pointer/principles for doing this the right way should be enough to get me going. I have the following stored procedure: CREATE PROCEDURE `TAA`.`runClean` (IN idlist varchar(1000)) BEGIN DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR NOT FOUND ROLLBACK; DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION ROLLBACK; DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLWARNING ROLLBACK; START TRANSACTION; DELETE FROM RunningReports WHERE run_id IN (idlist); DELETE FROM TMD_INDATA_INVOICE WHERE run_id IN (idlist); DELETE FROM TMD_INDATA_LINE WHERE run_id IN (idlist); DELETE FROM TMD_OUTDATA_INVOICE WHERE run_id IN (idlist); DELETE FROM TMD_OUTDATA_LINE WHERE run_id IN (idlist); DELETE FROM TMD_TEST WHERE run_id IN (idlist); DELETE FROM RunHistory WHERE id IN (idlist); COMMIT; END $$ It is called by a PHP script to clean out old run history. It is not particularly efficient as you can see and I would like to speed it up. The PHP script gathers the ids to remove from the tables with the following query: $query = "SELECT id, stop_time FROM RunHistory WHERE config_id = $configId AND save = 0 AND NOT(stop_time IS NULL) ORDER BY stop_time"; It keeps the last five run entries and deletes all the rest. So using this query to bring back all the IDs, it determines which ones to delete and keeps the 'newest' five. After gathering the IDs it sends them to the stored procedure to remove them from the associated tables. I'm not very good with SQL, but I ASSUME that using an IN statement and not joining these tables together is probably the least efficient way I can do this, but I don't know enough to ask anything but "how do I do this better?" If possible, I would like to do this all in my stored procedure using a query to gather all the IDs except for the five 'newest', then delete them. Another twist, run entries can be marked save (save = 1) and should not be deleted. The RunHistory table looks like this: CREATE TABLE `TAA`.`RunHistory` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, `start_time` datetime default NULL, `stop_time` datetime default NULL, `config_id` int(11) NOT NULL, [...] `save` tinyint(1) NOT NULL default '0', PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB AUTO_INCREMENT=0 DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8;

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  • jQuery: form input values turns up undefined

    - by Seerumi
    Having problem with this bit of code qith jQuery. it should pick the values from current form and then submit them, but when I try to get them with jQuery they always turn up undefined. I know the SQL results are fine since they show correctly in HTML table, so it must be my inferior javascript skills. New with jQuery and I'm at loss :( PHP/HTML: echo "<table>\n" while ($row = odbc_fetch_array($query)) { echo "<form class='catForm'>\n"; echo "<input type=hidden class='catID' name='catID' value='".$row['running_id']."'/>\n"; echo "<tr>\n"; echo "<td>".$row['running_id']."</td>\n"; echo "<td>".$row['site_id']."</td>\n"; echo "<td>".$row['main_category']."</td>\n"; echo "<td>".$row['map_name']."</td>\n"; echo "<td><input type=textfield class='bCatID' value='".$row['mapping_id']."' size=6/></td>\n"; echo "<td><input type=submit class='saveCat' value='Save'/></td>\n"; echo "<td><input type=submit class='killCat' value='Delete' /></td>\n"; echo "</tr>\n"; echo "</form>\n"; } echo "</table>"; jQuery: $(".catForm").submit(function () { var id = $(this).find('.catID').val(); var bCatID = $(this).find('.bCatID').val(); var dataString = 'id='+id+'&bCatID='+bCatID; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: 'adminUI/bin/updateSCategories.php', dataType : 'json', data: dataString, success: function(data) { if (data.error == true) $('.failure').html("Error, save failed.").show().fadeOut(2000); if (data.error == false) $('.success').html("Saved succesfully").show().fadeOut(2000); }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { $('.failure').html("Error, save failed.").show().fadeOut(2000); } }); return false; }); RESULT: id: undefined bCatID: undefined

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  • ASP.NET MVC: How can I explain an invalid type violation to an end-user with Html.ValidationSummary?

    - by Terminal Frost
    Serious n00b warning here; please take mercy! So I finished the Nerd Dinner MVC Tutorial and I'm now in the process of converting a VB.NET application to ASP.NET MVC using the Nerd Dinner program as a sort of rough template. I am using the "IsValid / GetRuleViolations()" pattern to identify invalid user input or values that violate business rules. I am using LINQ to SQL and am taking advantage of the "OnValidate()" hook that allows me to run the validation and throw an application exception upon trying to save changes to the database via the CustomerRepository class. Anyway, everything works well, except that by the time the form values reach my validation method invalid types have already been converted to a default or existing value. (I have a "StreetNumber" property that is an integer, though I imagine this would be a problem for DateTime or any other non-strings as well.) Now, I am guessing that the UpdateModel() method throws an exception and then alters the value because the Html.ValidationMessage is displayed next to the StreetNumber field but my validation method never sees the original input. There are two problems with this: While the Html.ValidationMessage does signal that something is wrong, there is no corresponding entry in the Html.ValidationSummary. If I could even get the exception message to show up there indicating an invalid cast or something that would be better than nothing. My validation method which resides in my Customer partial class never sees the original user input so I do not know if the problem is a missing entry or an invalid type. I can't figure out how I can keep my validation logic nice and neat in one place and still get access to the form values. I could of course write some logic in the View that processes the user input, however that seems like the exact opposite of what I should be doing with MVC. Do I need a new validation pattern or is there some way to pass the original form values to my model class for processing? CustomerController Code // POST: /Customers/Edit/[id] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection formValues) { Customer customer = customerRepository.GetCustomer(id); try { UpdateModel(customer); customerRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = customer.AccountID }); } catch { foreach (var issue in customer.GetRuleViolations()) ModelState.AddModelError(issue.PropertyName, issue.ErrorMessage); } return View(customer); }

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  • Ajax, php, mysql not working mysql limit

    - by Hofmeister Ákos
    I have 3 files. list.php $articles = $mysqli->query("SELECT mainPictureBig, title, writer, writeDate, link FROM articles WHERE category=$this->category ORDER BY writeDate DESC LIMIT 0,10"); while($article = mysqli_fetch_row($articles)) { echo "<a href=\"".$this->url."/".$article[3]."/".$article[4]."\"><div id=\"listElement\"> <div id=\"listElementWallpaper\" style=\"background-image: url('category/img.jpg');\"></div> <div id=\"listElementContent\"><div id=\"listElementTitle\">".$article[1]."</div>".$this->giveWriter($article[2]).", ".$this->giveDate($article[3])."</div> </div></a>"; } $maximumElements=ceil($numberOfContent / 10) * 10; It's working, so there is no problem, it lists the first 10 elements from the sql table, and i got the $numberOfCOntent part also. Than i have a button: echo "<div id=\"listMore\"><div id=\"buttonOne\" onclick=\"listMore($this->category,$maximumElements)\">Load more</div></div>"; There is also no problem, i load the .js file, and it looks like: var from = 10; function listMore(categoryId, maximum) { $( "#listMore" ).slideUp( 200, function() { $( "#listMore" ).html("<center>Loading..</center>"); $( "#listMore" ).slideDown( 500, function() { $.post( "http://localhost/ajax.php", {type: "listMore", id: categoryId, sqlFrom: from} ) .done(function( elements ) { $("#listBody").append( elements ); if(maximum > from+10) { from = from+10; $( "#listMore" ).slideUp(200, function() { $( "#listMore" ).html("<div id=\"buttonOne\" onclick=\"listMore("+categoryId+","+maximum+")\">Load more</div>"); $( "#listMore" ).slideDown(200); }); } else $( "#listMore" ).slideUp(200); }); }); }); } And it's also working, and the problem is in the PHP file. As you can see, i'm sending an integer the "from" variable, the PHP file: $articles = $mysqli->query("SELECT mainPictureBig, title, writer, writeDate, link FROM articles WHERE category=$id ORDER BY writeDate DESC LIMIT $from,10"); It's also working, but not loading the next 10, only the next 9. So it skips the very next row and loads the rows only after the very first, so only 9. I tried to write here only the important part of the code, so i skipped some echo part etc. Any idea?

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  • MySQL forgot about automatically creating an index for a foreign key?

    - by bobo
    After running the following SQL statements, you will see that, MySQL has automatically created the non-unique index question_tag_tag_id_tag_id on the tag_id column for me after the first ALTER TABLE statement has run. But after the second ALTER TABLE statement has run, I think MySQL should also automatically create another non-unique index question_tag_question_id_question_id on the question_id column for me. But as you can see from the SHOW INDEXES statement output, it's not there. Why does MySQL forget about the second ALTER TABLE statement? By the way, since I have already created a unique index question_id_tag_id_idx used by both question_id and tag_id columns. Is creating a separate index for each of them redundant? mysql> DROP DATABASE mydatabase; Query OK, 1 row affected (0.00 sec) mysql> CREATE DATABASE mydatabase; Query OK, 1 row affected (0.00 sec) mysql> USE mydatabase; Database changed mysql> CREATE TABLE question (id BIGINT AUTO_INCREMENT, html TEXT, PRIMARY KEY(id)) ENGINE = INNODB; Query OK, 0 rows affected (0.05 sec) mysql> CREATE TABLE tag (id BIGINT AUTO_INCREMENT, name VARCHAR(10) NOT NULL, UNIQUE INDEX name_idx (name), PRIMARY KEY(id)) ENGINE = INNODB; Query OK, 0 rows affected (0.05 sec) mysql> CREATE TABLE question_tag (question_id BIGINT, tag_id BIGINT, UNIQUE INDEX question_id_tag_id_idx (question_id, tag_id), PRIMARY KEY(question_id, tag_id)) ENGINE = INNODB; Query OK, 0 rows affected (0.00 sec) mysql> ALTER TABLE question_tag ADD CONSTRAINT question_tag_tag_id_tag_id FOREIGN KEY (tag_id) REFERENCES tag(id); Query OK, 0 rows affected (0.10 sec) Records: 0 Duplicates: 0 Warnings: 0 mysql> ALTER TABLE question_tag ADD CONSTRAINT question_tag_question_id_question_id FOREIGN KEY (question_id) REFERENCES question(id); Query OK, 0 rows affected (0.13 sec) Records: 0 Duplicates: 0 Warnings: 0 mysql> SHOW INDEXES FROM question_tag; +--------------+------------+----------------------------+--------------+-------------+-----------+-------------+----------+--------+------+------------+---------+ | Table | Non_unique | Key_name | Seq_in_index | Column_name | Collation | Cardinality | Sub_part | Packed | Null | Index_type | Comment | +--------------+------------+----------------------------+--------------+-------------+-----------+-------------+----------+--------+------+------------+---------+ | question_tag | 0 | PRIMARY | 1 | question_id | A | 0 | NULL | NULL | | BTREE | | | question_tag | 0 | PRIMARY | 2 | tag_id | A | 0 | NULL | NULL | | BTREE | | | question_tag | 0 | question_id_tag_id_idx | 1 | question_id | A | 0 | NULL | NULL | | BTREE | | | question_tag | 0 | question_id_tag_id_idx | 2 | tag_id | A | 0 | NULL | NULL | | BTREE | | | question_tag | 1 | question_tag_tag_id_tag_id | 1 | tag_id | A | 0 | NULL | NULL | | BTREE | | +--------------+------------+----------------------------+--------------+-------------+-----------+-------------+----------+--------+------+------------+---------+ 5 rows in set (0.01 sec) mysql>

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  • how to design this relation in a DB schema

    - by raticulin
    I have a table Car in my db, one of the columns is purchaseDate. I want to be able to tag every car with a number of Policies (limited to 10 policies). Each policy has a time to life (ttl, a duration of time, like '5 years', '10 months' etc), that is, for how long since the car's purchaseDate the policy can be applied. I need to perform the following actions: when inserting a Car, it will be set with a number of Policies (at least one is set) sometimes a Car will be updated to add/remove a Policy searches must be done taking into account date/policies, for example: 'select all cars that are not covered by any policy as of today' My current design is (pol0..pol9 are the policies): CREATE TABLE Car ( id int NOT NULL IDENTITY(1,1), purchaseDate datetime NOT NULL, //more stuff... pol0 smallint default NULL, pol1 smallint default NULL, pol2 smallint default NULL, pol3 smallint default NULL, pol4 smallint default NULL, pol5 smallint default NULL, pol6 smallint default NULL, pol7 smallint default NULL, pol8 smallint default NULL, pol9 smallint default NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) ) CREATE TABLE Policy ( id smallint NOT NULL, name varchar(50) collate Latin1_General_BIN NOT NULL, ttl varchar(100) collate Latin1_General_BIN NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) ) The problem I am facing is that the sql to perform the query above is a nightmare to write. As I don't know in which column each policy can be, so I have to check all columns for every policy etc etc. So I am wondering wether it is worth changing this. My questions are: The smallint as Policy id was chosen instead of an 'int IDENTITY' in order to save some space as there are going to be millions of Car records. It just adds complexity when creating a Policy as we must handle the id etc. Was it worth doing this? I am thinking that maybe there is a much better design? Obviously we could move the policy/car relation to its own table CarPolicy, benefits would be: no limit on 10 policies per car adding/removing etc much easier when only the default policy is applied (when no others are applied one called Default policy is applied), we could signal that by not having any entry in CarPolicy, now this is just done inserting the Default policy id in one of the columns. The cons are that we would need to change the DB, ORM classes etc. What would you recommend? Maybe there is another smart way to implement this that we are not aware without using the CarPolicy table?

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  • MVC Bootstrap: Autocomplete doesn't show properly

    - by kicked11
    I have a MVC website and it had a searchbox with autocomplete, now I changed the layout using bootstrap. But now the autocomplete isn't been shown correctly anymore. See the picture the suggestions are not shown right. the autocomplete goes through the text. I was fine before I used bootstrap. I am using a SQL server to get the data and this is js file (I'm not good at ajax, i took it from a tutorial I followed) $(function () { var ajaxFormSubmit = function () { var $form = $(this); var options = { url: $form.attr("action"), type: $form.attr("method"), data: $form.serialize() }; $.ajax(options).done(function (data) { var $target = $($form.attr("data-aptitude-target")); var $newHtml = $(data); $target.replaceWith($newHtml); $newHtml.show("slide", 200); }); return false; }; var submitAutocompleteForm = function (event, ui) { var $input = $(this); $input.val(ui.item.label); var $form = $input.parents("form:first"); $form.submit(); }; var createAutocomplete = function () { var $input = $(this); var options = { source: $input.attr("data-aptitude-autocomplete"), select: submitAutocompleteForm }; $input.autocomplete(options); }; $("form[data-aptituder-ajax='true']").submit(ajaxFormSubmit); $("input[data-aptitude-autocomplete]").each(createAutocomplete); }); this is the form in my view <form method="get" action="@Url.Action("Index")" data-aptitude-ajax="true" data-aptitude-target="#testList"> <input type="search" name="searchTerm" data-aptitude-autocomplete="@Url.Action("Autocomplete")" /> <input type="submit" value=Search /> And this is part of the controller of the view public ActionResult Autocomplete(string term) { var model = db.tests .Where(r => term == null || r.name.Contains(term)) .Select(r => new { label = r.name }); return Json(model, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet); } // // GET: /Test/ public ActionResult Index(string searchTerm = null) { var model = db.tests .Where(r => searchTerm == null || r.name.StartsWith(searchTerm)); if (Request.IsAjaxRequest()) { return PartialView("_Test", model); } return View(model); } I'm new to ajax as well as bootstrap 3. I got the searchfunction and autocomplete from a tutorial I followed. Anybody any idea on how to fix this, because it worked fine? Thanks in advance!

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  • What regular expression(s) would I use to remove escaped html from large sets of data.

    - by Elizabeth Buckwalter
    Our database is filled with articles retrieved from RSS feeds. I was unsure of what data I would be getting, and how much filtering was already setup (WP-O-Matic Wordpress plugin using the SimplePie library). This plugin does some basic encoding before insertion using Wordpress's built in post insert function which also does some filtering. I've figured out most of the filters before insertion, but now I have whacko data that I need to remove. This is an example of whacko data that I have data in one field which the content I want in the front, but this part removed which is at the end: <img src="http://feeds.feedburner.com/~ff/SoundOnTheSound?i=xFxEpT2Add0:xFbIkwGc-fk:V_sGLiPBpWU" border="0"></img> <img src="http://feeds.feedburner.com/~ff/SoundOnTheSound?d=qj6IDK7rITs" border="0"></img> &lt;img src=&quot;http://feeds.feedburner.com/~ff/SoundOnTheSound?i=xFxEpT2Add0:xFbIkwGc-fk:D7DqB2pKExk&quot; Notice how some of the images are escape and some aren't. I believe this has to do with the last part being cut off so as to be unrecognizable as an html tag, which then caused it to be html endcoded. Another field has only this which is now filtered before insertion, but I have to get rid of the others: &lt;img src=&quot;http://farm3.static.flickr.com/2183/2289902369_1d95bcdb85.jpg&quot; alt=&quot;post_img&quot; width=&quot;80&quot; (all examples are on one line, but broken up for readability) Question: What is the best way to work with the above escaped html (or portion of an html tag)? I can do it in Perl, PHP, SQL, Ruby, and even Python. I believe Perl to be the best at text parsing, so that's why I used the Perl tag. And PHP times out on large database operations, so that's pretty much out unless I wanted to do batch processing and what not. PS One of the nice things about using Wordpress's insert post function, is that if you use php's strip_tags function to strip out all html, insert post function will insert <p> at the paragraph points. Let me know if there's anything more that I can answer. Some article that didn't quite answer my questions. (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2016751/remove-text-from-within-a-database-text-field) (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/462831/regular-expression-to-escape-html-ampersands-while-respecting-cdata)

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  • MySQL error problem

    - by comma
    I keep getting the error listed below but it only says line 1 what does this mean and how do I fix it? Here is the error I keep getting? You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '1' at line 1 here is the code. if (isset($_POST['info_submitted'])) { $user_id = '5'; $mysqli = mysqli_connect("localhost", "root", "", "sitename"); $dbc = mysqli_query($mysqli,"SELECT learned_skills.*, users_skills.* FROM learned_skills INNER JOIN users_skills ON learned_skills.id = users_skills.skill_id WHERE user_id='$user_id'"); $skill = $_POST['skill']; $experience = $_POST['experience']; $year = $_POST['year']; if (mysqli_num_rows($dbc) == 0) { $mysqli = mysqli_connect("localhost", "root", "", "sitename"); $query1 = mysqli_query($mysqli,"INSERT INTO learned_skills (skill, experience, year) VALUES ('" . $skill . "', '" . $experience . "', '" . $year . "')"); } if (!mysqli_query($mysqli, $query1)) { print mysqli_error($mysqli); return; } $mysqli = mysqli_connect("localhost", "root", "", "sitename"); $dbc = mysqli_query($mysqli,"SELECT id FROM learned_skills WHERE id='" . $skill . "' AND experience='" . $experience . "' AND year='" . $year . "'"); if (!$dbc) { print mysqli_error($mysqli); } else { while($row = mysqli_fetch_array($dbc)){ $id = $row["id"]; } } $query2 = "INSERT INTO users_skills (skill_id, user_id, date_created) VALUES ('$id', '$user_id', NOW())"; if (!mysqli_query($mysqli, $query2)) { print mysqli_error($mysqli); return; } if ($dbc == TRUE) { $dbc = mysqli_query($mysqli,"UPDATE learned_skills JOIN users_skills ON (users_skills.skill_id = learned_skills.id) SET skill = '$skill', experience = '$experience', year = '$year'"); echo '<p class="changes-saved">Your changes have been saved!</p>'; } if (!$dbc) { print mysqli_error($mysqli); return; } }

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  • MVC Entity Framework: Cannot open user default database. Login failed.

    - by Michael
    This type of stuff drives me nuts. I'm having trouble finding the exact issue that I'm having, maybe I just don't know the terminology. Anyway, I had a working website using MVC and Entity Framework, but then I coded an error in a partial view page (ascx). Then all of a sudden I started to get this message. Cannot open user default database. Login failed. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM' I've found plenty of suggestions about opening SQL Server Management Studio, Double Click on Security, Double Click on Logins, Double click on NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM and then double click on User Mapping. In this view I'm suppose to check the box for my database so that this user is mapped to this login. However, since I created my database in Visio Studio 2008 as part of my solution, it doesn't show up to allow me to click on it. So what do I do now? What drives me nuts is that everything was working fine. I was using my computer name to access the website and everything was working fine until the coding error. I've fix the error but still getting the error. I should also mention that this error started yesterday too around the same time but later cleared itself up. If I use localhost to access the site, it works just fine. IIS7 configuration for my website: Application Pool = DefaultAppPool Physical Path Credentials Logon = ClearText With in connection strings. I do see the one for my database in this solution. Entry Type is local metadata=res://*/Models.DataModel.csdl|res://*/Models.DataModel.ssdl|res://*/Models.DataModel.msl; provider=System.Data.SqlClient; provider connection string="Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=|DataDirectory|\FFBall.mdf;Integrated Security=True;User Instance=True;MultipleActiveResultSets=True" And somewhere I remember changing the identity from Network Service to LocalSystem. Because when I first stared I was getting this same message, but I changed this value and it started working. I saw that suggested somewhere too but I do not recall. Wait I remember now, I believe in IIS7, under Application Pools, DefaultAppPool identity is set to LocalSystem. Additional things I've tried. Restart the computer Recycle the application pool. Antivirus isn't running. Any help would be appreciated. Thank you in advance.

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  • remove data layer and put into it's own domain

    - by user334768
    I have a SL4 application that uses EF4 & RIA Services. DB is SQL 2008. All is working well. Now I want to put the Database and web services on one domain (A.com) with the web service exposing the same methods available in my working project. (one listed at top of message) Then put a Silverlight application (same one as above) on domain(B.com) and call the web services on A.com. I thought I had a fair understanding of RIA Services. Enough to get the above application working. Now when I say "working" I do mean on my local dev machine. I have yet to deployed as SL4 & .NET 4 application to my hosting site. But I don't think I understand it well enough. I normally create a new business app, add EF then create the RIA DomainService. Add any [Includes] I need, modify my linq queries and run application. And it works. Now I need to break off my data layer and put it on another hosting site (A.com) And put my UI and business logic on another hosting site (B.com) I think I need to do the following : On the Database & web service site: domain(A.com) create application, create EF4, create RIA Services and deploy. At this time, are the methods exposed available as a "WEB SERVICE" to other applications calling by http:// a.com/serviceName.svc address? I think I need to do the following : On the application site : domain(B.com) create a business application (later will need authentication and navigation). How can I create an EF when I don't have access to the database? (I know I do have access but I want know what happens here when I do not have access to the database, but only data provided by a web service) If I can not create an EF how do I create my RIA Service? I hope any one who takes time to help me understands what I'm asking. Sorry so long.

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  • Schema to support dynamic properties

    - by Johan Fredrik Varen
    Hi people. I'm working on an editor that enables its users to create "object" definitions in real-time. A definition can contain zero or more properties. A property has a name a type. Once a definition is created, a user can create an object of that definition and set the property values of that object. So by the click of a mouse-button, the user should ie. be able to create a new definition called "Bicycle", and add the property "Size" of type "Numeric". Then another property called "Name" of type "Text", and then another property called "Price" of type "Numeric". Once that is done, the user should be able to create a couple of "Bicycle" objects and fill in the "Name" and "Price" property values of each bike. Now, I've seen this feature in several software products, so it must be a well-known concept. My problem started when I sat down and tried to come up with a DB schema to support this data structure, because I want the property values to be stored using the appropriate column types. Ie. a numeric property value is stored as, say, an INT in the database, and a textual property value is stored as VARCHAR. First, I need a table that will hold all my object definitions: Table obj_defs id | name | ---------------- 1 | "Bicycle" | 2 | "Book" | Then I need a table for holding what sort of properties each object definition should have: Table prop_defs id | obj_def_id | name | type | ------------------------------------ 1 | 1 | "Size" | ? | 2 | 1 | "Name" | ? | 3 | 1 | "Price" | ? | 4 | 2 | "Title" | ? | 5 | 2 | "Author" | ? | 6 | 2 | "ISBN" | ? | I would also need a table that holds each object: Table objects id | created | updated | ------------------------------ 1 | 2011-05-14 | 2011-06-15 | 2 | 2011-05-14 | 2011-06-15 | 3 | 2011-05-14 | 2011-06-15 | Finally, I need a table that will hold the actual property values of each object, and one solution is for this table to have one column for each possible value type, such as this: Table prop_vals id | prop_def_id | object_id | numeric | textual | boolean | ------------------------------------------------------------ 1 | 1 | 1 | 27 | | | 2 | 2 | 1 | | "Trek" | | 3 | 3 | 1 | 1249 | | | 4 | 1 | 2 | 26 | | | 5 | 2 | 2 | | "GT" | | 6 | 3 | 2 | 159 | | | 7 | 4 | 3 | | "It" | | 8 | 5 | 3 | | "King" | | 9 | 6 | 4 | 9 | | | If I implemented this schema, what would the "type" column of the prop_defs table hold? Integers that each map to a column name, varchars that simply hold the column name? Any other possibilities? Would a stored procedure help me out here in some way? And what would the SQL for fetching the "name" property of object 2 look like?

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  • Sqlite issues with HTC Desire HD

    - by Greg
    Recently I have been getting a lot of complaints about the HTC Desire series and it failing while invoking sql statements. I have received reports from users with log snapshots that contain the following. I/Database( 2348): sqlite returned: error code = 8, msg = statement aborts at 1: [pragma journal_mode = WAL;] E/Database( 2348): sqlite3_exec to set journal_mode of /data/data/my.app.package/files/localized_db_en_uk-1.sqlite to WAL failed followed by my app basically burning in flames because the call to open the database results in a serious runtime error that manifests itself as the cursor being left open. There shouldn't be a cursor at this point as we are trying to open it. This only occurs with the HTC Desire HD and Z. My code basically does the following (changed a little to isolate the problem area). SQLiteDatabase db; String dbName; public SQLiteDatabase loadDb(Context context) throws IOException{ //Close any old db handle if (db != null && db.isOpen()) { db.close(); } // The name of the database to use from the bundled assets. String dbAsset = "/asset_dir/"+dbName+".sqlite"; InputStream myInput = context.getAssets().open(dbAsset, Context.MODE_PRIVATE); // Create a file in the app's file directory since sqlite requires a path // Not ideal but we will copy the file out of our bundled assets and open it // it in another location. FileOutputStream myOutput = context.openFileOutput(dbName, Context.MODE_PRIVATE); byte[] buffer = new byte[1024]; int length; while ((length = myInput.read(buffer)) > 0) { myOutput.write(buffer, 0, length); } // Close the streams myOutput.flush(); // Guarantee Write! myOutput.getFD().sync(); myOutput.close(); myInput.close(); // Not grab the newly written file File fileObj = context.getFileStreamPath(dbName); // and open the database return db = SQLiteDatabase.openDatabase(fileObj.getAbsolutePath(), null, SQLiteDatabase.OPEN_READONLY | SQLiteDatabase.NO_LOCALIZED_COLLATORS); } Sadly this phone is only available in the UK and I don't have one in my inventory. I am only getting reports of this type from the HTC Desire series. I don't know what changed as this code has been working without any problem. Is there something I am missing?

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  • .Net Remote Log Querying

    - by jlafay
    I have a Win Service that I'm working on that consists of the service, WF Service (using WorkflowServiceHost), a Workflow (WorkflowApplication) that queries/processes data from a SQL Server DB, and a Comm Marshall class that handles data flow between the service and the WF. The WF does a lot of heavy data processing and the original app (early VB6) logged all the processing and displayed the results on the screen of the host machine. Critical events will be committed to eventlog because I strongly believe that should be common practice because admins naturally will look there and because it already has support for remote viewing. The workflow will also need to write logging events as it processes and iterates according to our business logic. Such as: records queried, records returned, processed records, etc. The data is very critical and we need to log actions as they occur. The logs are currently kept as text files on disk and I think that is ok. Ideally I would like to record log events in XML so it's easier to query and because it is less costly than a DB, especially since our DB servers do a lot of heavy processing anyways. Since we are replacing essentially a VB6 application with a robust windows service (taking advantage of WF 4.0), it has been requested that a remote client also be created. It receives callbacks from the service after subscribing to it and being added to a collection of subscribers. Basic statistics and summaries are updated client side after receiving basic monitoring data of what is going on with the service. We would like to also provide a way to provide details when we need to examine what is going on further because this is a long running data processing service and issues need to be addressed immediately. What is the best way to implement some type of query from the client that is sent to the service and returned to the client? Would it be efficient to implement another method to expose on the service and then have that pass that off to some querying class/object to examine the XML files by whichever specification and then return it to the client? That's the main concern. I don't want the service to processing to bottleneck much while this occurs. It seems that WF already auto-magically threads well for the most part but I want to make sure this is the right way to go about it. Any suggestions/recommendations on how to architect and implement a small log querying framework for a remote service would be awesome.

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  • Good design of mapping Java Domain objects to Tables (using Hibernate)

    - by M. McKenzie
    Hey guys, I have a question that is more in the realm of design, than implementation. I'm also happy for anyone to point out resources for the answer and I'll gladly, research for myself. Highly simplified Java and SQL: Say I have a business domain POJO called 'Picture' with three attributes. class Picture int idPicture String fileName long size Say I have another business domain POJO called "Item" with 3 attributes Class Item int idItem String itemName ArrayList itemPictures These would be a normal simple relationship. You could say that 'Picture' object, will never exist outside an 'Item' object. Assume a picture belongs only to a specific item, but that an item can have multiple pictures Now - using good database design (3rd Normal Form), we know that we should put items and pictures in their own tables. Here is what I assume would be correct. table Item int idItem (primary key) String itemName table Picture int idPicture (primary key) varchar(45) fileName long size int idItem (foreign key) Here is my question: If you are making Hibernate mapping files for these objects. In the data design, your Picture table needs a column to refer to the Item, so that a foreign key relation can be maintained. However,in your business domain objects - your Picture does not hold a reference/attribute to the idItem - and does not need to know it. A java Picture instance is always instantiated inside an Item instance. If you want to know the Item that the Picture belongs to you are already in the correct scope. Call myItem.getIdItem() and myItem.getItemPictures(),and you have the two pieces of information you need. I know that Hibernate tools have a generator that can auto make your POJO's from looking at your database. My problem stems from the fact that I planned out the data design for this experiment/project first. Then when I went to make the domain java objects, I realized that good design dictated that the objects hold other objects in a nested way. This is obviously different from the way that a database schema is - where all objects(tables) are flat and hold no other complex types within them. What is a good way to reconcile this? Would you: (A) Make the hibernate mapping files so that Picture.hbm.xml has a mapping to the POJO parent's idItem Field (if it's even possible) (B) Add an int attribute in the Picture class to refer to the idItem and set it at instantiation, thus simplifying the hbm.xml mapping file by having all table fields as local attributes in the class (C) Fix the database design because it is wrong, dork. I'd truly appreciate any feedback

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