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• JavaScript setTimeout setInterval within one function

  - by dagoof

  I think I might be overtired but I cannot for the life of me make sense of this, and I think it's due to a lack of knowledge of javascript var itv=function(){ return setInterval(function(){ sys.puts('interval'); }, 1000); } var tout=function(itv){ return setTimeout(function(){ sys.puts('timeout'); clearInterval(itv); }, 5500); } With these two functions I can call a=tout(itv()); and get a looping timer to run for 5.5 seconds and then exit, essentially. By my logic, this should work but it simply is not var dotime=function(){ return setTimeout(function(){ clearInterval(function(){ return setInterval(function(){ sys.puts("interval"); }, 1000); }); }, 5500); } any insight in this matter would be appreciated.

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• Named Function Expressions in IE, part 2

  - by Polshgiant

  I asked this question a while back and was happy with the accepted answer. I just now realized, however, that the following technique: var testaroo = 0; (function executeOnLoad() { if (testaroo++ < 5) { setTimeout(executeOnLoad, 25); return; } alert(testaroo); // alerts "6" })(); returns the result I expect. If T.J.Crowder's answer from my first question is correct, then shouldn't this technique not work?

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• Func<sometype,bool> to Func<T,bool>

  - by user175528

  If i have: public static Func<SomeType, bool> GetQuery() { return a => a.Foo=="Bar"; } and a generic version public static Func<T, bool> GetQuery<T>() { return (Func<T,bool>)GetQuery(); } how can I do the case? The only way I have found so far is to try and combine it with a mock function: Func<T, bool> q=a => true; return (Func<T, bool>)Delegate.Combine(GetQuery(), q); I know how to do that with Expression.Lambda, but I need to work with plain functions, not expression trees

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• Trouble with LINQ databind to GridView and RowDataBound

  - by Michael

  Greetings all, I am working on redesigning my personal Web site using VS 2008 and have chosen to use LINQ to create by data-access layer. Part of my site will be a little app to help manage my budget better. My first LINQ query does successfully execute and display in a GridView, but when I try to use a RowDataBound event to work with the results and refine them a bit, I get the error: The type or namespace name 'var' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) This interesting part is, if I just try to put in a var s = "s"; anywhere else in the same file, I get the same error too. If I go to other files in the web project, var s = "s"; compiles fine. Here is the LINQ Query call: public static IQueryable pubGetRecentTransactions(int param_accountid) { clsDataContext db; db = new clsDataContext(); var query = from d in db.tblMoneyTransactions join p in db.tblMoneyTransactions on d.iParentTransID equals p.iTransID into dp from p in dp.DefaultIfEmpty() where d.iAccountID == param_accountid orderby d.dtTransDate descending, d.iTransID ascending select new { d.iTransID, d.dtTransDate, sTransDesc = p != null ? p.sTransDesc : d.sTransDesc, d.sTransMemo, d.mTransAmt, d.iCheckNum, d.iParentTransID, d.iReconciled, d.bIsTransfer }; return query; } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!this.IsPostBack) { this.prvLoadData(); } } internal void prvLoadData() { prvCtlGridTransactions.DataSource = clsMoneyTransactions.pubGetRecentTransactions(2); prvCtlGridTransactions.DataBind(); } protected void prvCtlGridTransactions_RowDataBound(object sender, GridViewRowEventArgs e) { if (e.Row.RowType == DataControlRowType.DataRow) { var datarow = e.Row.DataItem; var s = "s"; e.Row.Cells[0].Text = datarow.dtTransDate.ToShortDateString(); e.Row.Cells[1].Text = datarow.sTransDesc; e.Row.Cells[2].Text = datarow.mTransAmt.ToString("c"); e.Row.Cells[3].Text = datarow.iReconciled.ToString(); }//end if }//end RowDataBound My googling to date hasn't found a good answer, so I turn it over to this trusted community. I appreciate your time in assisting me.

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• "Decompile" Javascript function? *ADVANCED*

  - by caesar2k

  [1] Ok, I don't even know how to call this, to be honest. So let me get some semi-pseudo code, to show what I'm trying to do. I'm using jquery to get an already existing script declared inside the page, inside a createDocument() element, from an AJAX call. GM_xmlhttprequest({ ... load:function(r){ var doc = document_from_string(r.responseText); script_content = $('body script:regex(html, local_xw_sig)', doc).html(); var scriptEl = document.createElement('script'); scriptEl.type = 'text/javascript'; scriptEl.innerHTML = script_content; // good till here (function(sc){ eval(sc.innerHTML); // not exactly like this, but you get the idea, errors alert('wont get here ' + local_xw_sig); // local_xw_sig is a global "var" inside the source })(scriptEl); } }); so far so good, the script indeed contains the source from the entire script block. Now, inside this "script_content", there are auto executing functions, like $(document).ready(function(){...}) that, everything I "eval" the innerHTML, it executes this code, halting my encapsulated script. like variables that doesn't exist, etc removing certain parts of the script using regex isn't really an option... what I really wanted is to "walk" inside the function. like do a (completely fictional): script = eval("function(){" + script_content + "};"); alert(script['local_xw_sig']); // a03ucc34095cw3495 is there any way to 'disassemble' the function, and be able to reach the "var"s inside of it? like this function: function hello(){ var message = "hello"; } alert(hello.message); // message = var inside the function is it possible at all? or I will have to hack my way using regex? ;P [2] also, is there any way I can access javascript inside a document created with "createDocument"?

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• If I select from an IQueryable then the Include is lost

  - by Connor Murphy

  The include does not work after I perform a select on the IQueryable query. Is there a way arround this? My query is public IQueryable<Network> GetAllNetworks() { var query = (from n in _db.NetworkSet .Include("NetworkContacts.Contact") .Include("NetworkContacts.Contact.RelationshipSource.Target") .Include("NetworkContacts.Contact.RelationshipSource.Source") select (n)); return query;; } I then try to populate mya ViewModel in my WebUI layer using the following code var projectedNetworks = from n in GetAllNetworks() select new NetworkViewModel { Name = n.Name, Contacts = from contact in networkList .SelectMany(nc => nc.NetworkContacts) .Where(nc => nc.Member == true) .Where(nc => nc.NetworkId == n.ID) .Select(c => c.Contact) select contact, }; return projectedNetworks; The problem now occurs in my newly createdNetworkViewModel The Contacts object does include any loaded data for RelationshipSource.Target or RelationshipSource.Source The data should is there when run from the original Repository IQueryable object. However the related include data does not seem to get transferred into the new Contacts collection that is created from this IQueryable using the Select New {} code above. Is there a way to preserve this Include data when it gets passed into a new object?

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• Basic Java Multi-Threading Question

  - by Veered

  When an object is instantiated in Java, is it bound to the thread that instantiated in? Because when I anonymously implement an interface in one thread, and pass it to another thread to be run, all of its methods are run in the original thread. If they are bound to their creation thread, is there anyway to create an object that will run in whatever thread calls it?

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• Issue with translating a delegate function from c# to vb.net for use with Google OAuth 2

  - by Jeremy

  I've been trying to translate a Google OAuth 2 example from C# to Vb.net for a co-worker's project. I'm having on end of issues translating the following methods: private OAuth2Authenticator<WebServerClient> CreateAuthenticator() { // Register the authenticator. var provider = new WebServerClient(GoogleAuthenticationServer.Description); provider.ClientIdentifier = ClientCredentials.ClientID; provider.ClientSecret = ClientCredentials.ClientSecret; var authenticator = new OAuth2Authenticator<WebServerClient>(provider, GetAuthorization) { NoCaching = true }; return authenticator; } private IAuthorizationState GetAuthorization(WebServerClient client) { // If this user is already authenticated, then just return the auth state. IAuthorizationState state = AuthState; if (state != null) { return state; } // Check if an authorization request already is in progress. state = client.ProcessUserAuthorization(new HttpRequestInfo(HttpContext.Current.Request)); if (state != null && (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(state.AccessToken) || !string.IsNullOrEmpty(state.RefreshToken))) { // Store and return the credentials. HttpContext.Current.Session["AUTH_STATE"] = _state = state; return state; } // Otherwise do a new authorization request. string scope = TasksService.Scopes.TasksReadonly.GetStringValue(); OutgoingWebResponse response = client.PrepareRequestUserAuthorization(new[] { scope }); response.Send(); // Will throw a ThreadAbortException to prevent sending another response. return null; } The main issue being this line: var authenticator = new OAuth2Authenticator<WebServerClient>(provider, GetAuthorization) { NoCaching = true }; The Method signature reads as for this particular line reads as follows: Public Sub New(tokenProvider As TClient, authProvider As System.Func(Of TClient, DotNetOpenAuth.OAuth2.IAuthorizationState)) My understanding of Delegate functions in VB.net isn't the greatest. However I have read over all of the MSDN documentation and other relevant resources on the web, but I'm still stuck as to how to translate this particular line. So far all of my attempts have resulted in either the a cast error (see below) or no call to GetAuthorization. The Code (vb.net on .net 3.5) Private Function CreateAuthenticator() As OAuth2Authenticator(Of WebServerClient) ' Register the authenticator. Dim client As New WebServerClient(GoogleAuthenticationServer.Description, oauth.ClientID, oauth.ClientSecret) Dim authDelegate As Func(Of WebServerClient, IAuthorizationState) = AddressOf GetAuthorization Dim authenticator = New OAuth2Authenticator(Of WebServerClient)(client, authDelegate) With {.NoCaching = True} 'Dim authenticator = New OAuth2Authenticator(Of WebServerClient)(client, GetAuthorization(client)) With {.NoCaching = True} 'Dim authenticator = New OAuth2Authenticator(Of WebServerClient)(client, New Func(Of WebServerClient, IAuthorizationState)(Function(c) GetAuthorization(c))) With {.NoCaching = True} 'Dim authenticator = New OAuth2Authenticator(Of WebServerClient)(client, New Func(Of WebServerClient, IAuthorizationState)(AddressOf GetAuthorization)) With {.NoCaching = True} Return authenticator End Function Private Function GetAuthorization(arg As WebServerClient) As IAuthorizationState ' If this user is already authenticated, then just return the auth state. Dim state As IAuthorizationState = AuthState If (Not state Is Nothing) Then Return state End If ' Check if an authorization request already is in progress. state = arg.ProcessUserAuthorization(New HttpRequestInfo(HttpContext.Current.Request)) If (state IsNot Nothing) Then If ((String.IsNullOrEmpty(state.AccessToken) = False Or String.IsNullOrEmpty(state.RefreshToken) = False)) Then ' Store Credentials HttpContext.Current.Session("AUTH_STATE") = state _state = state Return state End If End If ' Otherwise do a new authorization request. Dim scope As String = AnalyticsService.Scopes.AnalyticsReadonly.GetStringValue() Dim _response As OutgoingWebResponse = arg.PrepareRequestUserAuthorization(New String() {scope}) ' Add Offline Access and forced Approval _response.Headers("location") += "&access_type=offline&approval_prompt=force" _response.Send() ' Will throw a ThreadAbortException to prevent sending another response. Return Nothing End Function The Cast Error Server Error in '/' Application. Unable to cast object of type 'DotNetOpenAuth.OAuth2.AuthorizationState' to type 'System.Func`2[DotNetOpenAuth.OAuth2.WebServerClient,DotNetOpenAuth.OAuth2.IAuthorizationState]'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidCastException: Unable to cast object of type 'DotNetOpenAuth.OAuth2.AuthorizationState' to type 'System.Func`2[DotNetOpenAuth.OAuth2.WebServerClient,DotNetOpenAuth.OAuth2.IAuthorizationState]'. I've spent the better part of a day on this, and it's starting to drive me nuts. Help is much appreciated.

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• How to perform Linq select new with datetime in SQL 2008

  - by kd7iwp

  In our C# code I recently changed a line from inside a linq-to-sql select new query as follows: OrderDate = (p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.Year.ToString() + "-" + p.OrderDate.Value.Month.ToString() + "-" + p.OrderDate.Value.Day.ToString() : "") To: OrderDate = (p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd") : "") The change makes the line smaller and cleaner. It also works fine with our SQL 2008 database in our development environment. However, when the code deployed to our production environment which uses SQL 2005 I received an exception stating: Nullable Type must have a value. For further analysis I copied (p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd") : "") into a string (outside of a Linq statement) and had no problems at all, so it only causes an in issue inside my Linq. Is this problem just something to do with SQL 2005 using different date formats than from SQL 2008? Here's more of the Linq: dt = FilteredOrders.Where(x => x != null).Select(p => new { Order = p.OrderId, link = "/order/" + p.OrderId.ToString(), StudentId = (p.PersonId.HasValue ? p.PersonId.Value : 0), FirstName = p.IdentifierAccount.Person.FirstName, LastName = p.IdentifierAccount.Person.LastName, DeliverBy = p.DeliverBy, OrderDate = p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.Date.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd") : ""}).ToDataTable(); This is selecting from a List of Order objects. The FilteredOrders list is from another linq-to-sql query and I call .AsEnumerable on it before giving it to this particular select new query. Doing this in regular code works fine: if (o.OrderDate.HasValue) tempString += " " + o.OrderDate.Value.Date.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd");

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• Why am I having this InstantiationException in Java when accessing final local variables?

  - by Oscar Reyes

  I was playing with some code to make a "closure like" construct ( not working btw ) Everything looked fine but when I tried to access a final local variable in the code, the exception InstantiationException is thrown. If I remove the access to the local variable either by removing it altogether or by making it class attribute instead, no exception happens. The doc says: InstantiationException Thrown when an application tries to create an instance of a class using the newInstance method in class Class, but the specified class object cannot be instantiated. The instantiation can fail for a variety of reasons including but not limited to: - the class object represents an abstract class, an interface, an array class, a primitive type, or void - the class has no nullary constructor What other reason could have caused this problem? Here's the code. comment/uncomment the class attribute / local variable to see the effect (lines:5 and 10 ). import javax.swing.*; import java.awt.event.*; import java.awt.*; class InstantiationExceptionDemo { //static JTextField field = new JTextField();// works if uncommented public static void main( String [] args ) { JFrame frame = new JFrame(); JButton button = new JButton("Click"); final JTextField field = new JTextField();// fails if uncommented button.addActionListener( new _(){{ System.out.println("click " + field.getText()); }}); frame.add( field ); frame.add( button, BorderLayout.SOUTH ); frame.pack();frame.setVisible( true ); } } class _ implements ActionListener { public void actionPerformed( ActionEvent e ){ try { this.getClass().newInstance(); } catch( InstantiationException ie ){ throw new RuntimeException( ie ); } catch( IllegalAccessException ie ){ throw new RuntimeException( ie ); } } } Is this a bug in Java? edit Oh, I forgot, the stacktrace ( when thrown ) is: Caused by: java.lang.InstantiationException: InstantiationExceptionDemo$1 at java.lang.Class.newInstance0(Class.java:340) at java.lang.Class.newInstance(Class.java:308) at _.actionPerformed(InstantiationExceptionDemo.java:25)

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• Why is one Func valid and the other (almost identical) not.

  - by runrunraygun

  private static Dictionary<Type, Func<string, object>> _parseActions = new Dictionary<Type, Func<string, object>> { { typeof(bool), value => {Convert.ToBoolean(value) ;}} }; The above gives an error Error 14 Not all code paths return a value in lambda expression of type 'System.Func<string,object>' However this below is ok. private static Dictionary<Type, Func<string, object>> _parseActions = new Dictionary<Type, Func<string, object>> { { typeof(bool), value => Convert.ToBoolean(value) } }; I don't understand the difference between the two. I thought the extra braces in example1 are to allow us to use multiple lines in the anon function so why have they affected the meaning of the code?

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• C# delegate or Func for 'all methods'?

  - by Michel

  Hi, i've read something about Func's and delegates and that they can help you to pass a method as a parameter. Now i have a cachingservice, and it has this declaration: public static void AddToCache<T>(T model, double millisecs, string cacheId) where T : class public static T GetFromCache<T>(string cacheId) where T : class So in a place where i want to cache some data, i check if it exists in the cache (with GetFromCache) and if not, get the data from somewhere, and the add it to the cache (with AddToCache) Now i want to extend the AddToCache method with a parameter, which is the class+method to call to get the data Then the declaration would be like this public static void AddToCache<T>(T model, double millisecs, string cacheId, Func/Delegate methode) where T : class Then this method could check wether the cache has data or not, and if not, get the data itself via the method it got provided. Then in the calling code i could say: AddToCache<Person>(p, 10000, "Person", new PersonService().GetPersonById(1)); AddToCache<Advert>(a, 100000, "Advert", new AdvertService().GetAdverts(3)); What i want to achieve is that the 'if cache is empty get data and add to cache' logic is placed on only one place. I hope this makes sense :) Oh, by the way, the question is: is this possible?

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• Use of var in linq

  - by mazhar

  What does var really do in the following case? var productInfos = from p in products select new { p.ProductName, p.Category, Price = p.UnitPrice };

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• Pass Linq Expression to a function

  - by Kushan Hasithe Fernando

  I want to pass a property list of a class to a function. with in the function based on property list I'm going to generate a query. As exactly same functionality in Linq Select method. Here I'm gonna implement this for Ingress Database. As an example, in front end I wanna run a select as this, My Entity Class is like this public class Customer { [System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Name="Id",IsPrimaryKey=true)] public string Id { get; set; } [System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Name = "Name")] public string Name { get; set; } [System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Name = "Address")] public string Address { get; set; } [System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Name = "Email")] public string Email { get; set; } [System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Name = "Mobile")] public string Mobile { get; set; } } I wanna call a Select function like this, var result = dataAccessService.Select<Customer>(C=>C.Name,C.Address); then,using result I can get the Name and Address properties' values. I think my Select function should looks like this, ( *I think this should done using Linq Expression. But im not sure what are the input parameter and return type. * ) Class DataAccessService { // I'm not sure about this return type and input types, generic types. public TResult Select<TSource,TResult>(Expression<Func<TSource,TResult>> selector) { // Here using the property list, // I can get the ColumnAttribute name value and I can generate a select query. } } This is a attempt to create a functionality like in Linq. But im not an expert in Linq Expressions. There is a project call DbLinq from MIT, but its a big project and still i couldn't grab anything helpful from that. Can someone please help me to start this, or can someone link me some useful resources to read about this.

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• C# 4.0 dynamics

  - by mehanik

  Hi. Code bellow is working well until I have class ClassSameAssembly in same assembly as class Program. But when I move class ClassSameAssembly to separate assembly I have runtime error. Is it posible to resolve it? using System; namespace ConsoleApplication2 { public static class ClassSameAssembly { public static dynamic GetValues() { return new { Name = "Michael", Age = 20 }; } } internal class Program { private static void Main(string[] args) { var d = ClassSameAssembly.GetValues(); Console.WriteLine("{0} is {1} years old", d.Name, d.Age); } } }

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• Is there a var type equivalent in C++?

  - by thyrgle

  So I know that C++ is strongly typed and was just wondering if there was any library (or any thing for that fact of the matter) that would allow you to make a variable that has no initial specific type like var in Python.

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• jQuery plugin call internal function

  - by pbcoder

  I want to call removeSomething() (see in line 9) internally: JS-Code is: (function($){ $.fn.extend({ Engine: function(options) { var defaults = { ... }; var options = $.extend(defaults, options); removeSomething(); //----------------------------------------------------------------------- //Public Functions ------------------------------------------------------ //----------------------------------------------------------------------- this.removeSomething = function() { ... }; } }); })(jQuery); But if I call removeSomething console outputs that removeSomething is not a function, how do I have to call this function? The function should be available internally and externally. Thanks for help!

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• Fire Box doesnot support program based calling function

  - by manish

  on clicking any row of the following program... i am firinf on function mail file click....function just having alert message that shoes deffrent file name on the bases of clicking... *its working properly in IE .....FireBox N other browser function doesnot call on clicking on any row.. whats problem..please help me......i am writing code for your better awareness* For Each info In fsi Response.Write("<span id=" & " 'userijd'" & " onmouseup=" & "mailfileclick('" & info.Name & "')" & ";>") Response.Write("<td width=" & "16%" & " bgcolor=" & "#FFFFFF" & " style=" & "border-bottom-style:&nbsp;solid;&nbsp;border-bottom-width:&nbsp;1px" & " bordercolor=" & "#C0C0C0" & " nowrap" & ">") Response.Write("<font face=" & "Arial" & "style=" & "font-size:&nbsp;9pt" & " color=" & "#000000" & ">" & Mid(contents, InStr(contents, "Date: ") + Len("Date:"), 17) & "</font></td>") Response.Write("</span>") Next

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• Token based Authentication for WCF HTTP/REST Services: Authorization

  - by Your DisplayName here!

  In the previous post I showed how token based authentication can be implemented for WCF HTTP based services. Authentication is the process of finding out who the user is – this includes anonymous users. Then it is up to the service to decide under which circumstances the client has access to the service as a whole or individual operations. This is called authorization. By default – my framework does not allow anonymous users and will deny access right in the service authorization manager. You can however turn anonymous access on – that means technically, that instead of denying access, an anonymous principal is placed on Thread.CurrentPrincipal. You can flip that switch in the configuration class that you can pass into the service host/factory. var configuration = new WebTokenWebServiceHostConfiguration {     AllowAnonymousAccess = true }; But this is not enough, in addition you also need to decorate the individual operations to allow anonymous access as well, e.g.: [AllowAnonymousAccess] public string GetInfo() {     ... } Inside these operations you might have an authenticated or an anonymous principal on Thread.CurrentPrincipal, and it is up to your code to decide what to do. Side note: Being a security guy, I like this opt-in approach to anonymous access much better that all those opt-out approaches out there (like the Authorize attribute – or this.). Claims-based Authorization Since there is a ClaimsPrincipal available, you can use the standard WIF claims authorization manager infrastructure – either declaratively via ClaimsPrincipalPermission or programmatically (see also here). [ClaimsPrincipalPermission(SecurityAction.Demand,     Resource = "Claims",     Operation = "View")] public ViewClaims GetClientIdentity() {     return new ServiceLogic().GetClaims(); }   In addition you can also turn off per-request authorization (see here for background) via the config and just use the “domain specific” instrumentation. While the code is not 100% done – you can download the current solution here. HTH (Wanna learn more about federation, WIF, claims, tokens etc.? Click here.)

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• How can I enable anonymous access to a Samba share under ADS security mode?

  - by hemp

  I'm trying to enable anonymous access to a single service in my Samba config. Authorized user access is working perfectly, but when I attempt a no-password connection, I get this message: Anonymous login successful Domain=[...] OS=[Unix] Server=[Samba 3.3.8-0.51.el5] tree connect failed: NT_STATUS_LOGON_FAILURE The message log shows this error: ... smbd[21262]: [2010/05/24 21:26:39, 0] smbd/service.c:make_connection_snum(1004) ... smbd[21262]: Can't become connected user! The smb.conf is configured thusly: [global] security = ads obey pam restrictions = Yes winbind enum users = Yes winbind enum groups = Yes winbind use default domain = true valid users = "@domain admins", "@domain users" guest account = nobody map to guest = Bad User [evilshare] path = /evil/share guest ok = yes read only = No browseable = No Given that I have 'map to guest = Bad User' and 'guest ok' specified, I don't understand why it is trying to "become connected user". Should it not be trying to "become guest user"?

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• how to set Anonymous delegate as one parameter for InvokeSelf ?

  - by KentZhou

  I tried to use InvokeSelf for silverlight to communicate with html: InvokeSelf can take object[] as parameter when making a call: ScriptObject Myjs; ScriptObject obj = Myjs.InvokeSelf(new object[] { element }) as ScriptObject; then I want make a call like with anonymous delegate: Object obj; obj = InvokeSelf(new object[] { element, delegate { OnUriLoaded(reference); } }); I got the error said: Cannot convert anonymous method to type 'object' because it is not a delegate type How to resolve this problem?

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• Why can I set an anonymous enum equal to another in C but not C++?

  - by samoz

  I have the following code snippet: enum { one } x; enum { two } y; x = y; That will compile in C, but in C++, I get the following error: test.c:6: error: cannot convert ‘main()::<anonymous enum>’ to ‘main()::<anonymous enum>’ in assignment Can someone explain to me why this is happening? I would prefer an answer with some specifics about why the compiler behaves this way, rather than just "You can't do that"

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• Why is IIS Anonymous authentication being used with administrative UNC drive access?

  - by Mark Lindell

  My account is local administrator on my machine. If I try to browse to a non-existent drive letter on my own box using a UNC path name: \mymachine\x$ my account would get locked out. I would also get the following warning (Event ID 100, Type “Warning”) 5 times under the “System” group in Event Viewer on my box: The server was unable to logon the Windows NT account 'ourdomain\myaccount' due to the following error: Logon failure: unknown user name or bad password. I would also get the following warning 3 times: The server was unable to logon the Windows NT account 'ourdomain\myaccount' due to the following error: The referenced account is currently locked out and may not be logged on to. On the domain controller, Event ID 680 of type “Failure Audit” would appear 4 times under the “Security” group in Event Viewer: Logon attempt by: MICROSOFT_AUTHENTICATION_PACKAGE_V1_0 Logon account: myaccount Followed by Event ID 644: User Account Locked Out: Target Account Name: myaccount Target Account ID: OURDOMAIN\myaccount Caller Machine Name: MYMACHINE Caller User Name: STAN$ Caller Domain: OURDOMAIN Caller Logon ID: (0x0,0x3E7) Followed by another 4 errors having Event ID 680. Strangely, every time I tried to browse to the UNC path I would be prompted for a user name and password, the above errors would be written to the log, and my account would be locked out. When I hit “Cancel” in response to the user name/password prompt, the following message box would display: Windows cannot find \mymachine\x$. Check the spelling and try again, or try searching for the item by clicking the Start button and then clicking Search. I checked with others in the group using XP and they only got the above message box when browsing to a “bad” drive letter on their box. No one else was prompted for a user name/password and then locked out. So, every time I tried to browse to the “bad” drive letter, behind the scenes XP was trying to login 8 times using bad credentials (or, at least a bad password as the login was correct), causing my account to get locked out on the 4th try. Interestingly, If I tried browsing to a “good” drive such as “c$” it would work fine. As a test, I tried logging on to my box as a different login and browsing the “bad” UNC path. Strangely, my “ourdomain\myaccount” account was getting locked out – not the one I was logged in as! I was totally confused as to why the credentials for the other login were being passed. After much Googling, I found a link referring to some IIS settings I was vaguely familiar with from the past but could not see how they would affect this issue. It was related to the IIS directory security setting “Anonymous access and authentication control” located under: Control Panel/Administrative Tools/Computer Management/Services and Applications/Internet Information Services/Web Sites/Default Web Site/Properties/Directory Security/Anonymous access and authentication control/Edit/Password I found no indication while scouring the Internet that this property was related to my UNC problem. But, I did notice that this property was set to my domain user name and password. And, my password did age recently but I had not reset the password accordingly for this property. Sure enough, keying in the new password corrected the problem. I was no longer prompted for a user name/password when browsing the UNC path and the account lock-outs ceased. Now, a couple of questions: Why would an IIS setting affect the browsing of a UNC path on a local box? Why had I not encountered this problem before? My password has aged several times and I’ve never encountered this problem. And, I can’t remember the last time I updated the “Anonymous access” IIS password it’s been so long. I’ve run the script after a password reset before and never had my account locked-out due to the UNC problem (the script accesses UNC paths as a normal part of its processing). Windows Update did install “Cumulative Security Update for Internet Explorer 7 for Windows XP (KB972260)” on my box on 7/29/2009. I wonder if this is responsible.

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• Anonymous Login attemps from IPs all over Asia, how do I stop them from being able to do this?

  - by Ryan

  We had a successful hack attempt from Russia and one of our servers was used as a staging ground for further attacks, actually somehow they managed to get access to a Windows account called 'services'. I took that server offline as it was our SMTP server and no longer need it (3rd party system in place now). Now some of our other servers are having these ANONYMOUS LOGIN attempts in the Event Viewer that have IP addresses coming from China, Romania, Italy (I guess there's some Europe in there too)... I don't know what these people want but they just keep hitting the server. How can I prevent this? I don't want our servers compromised again, last time our host took our entire hardware node off of the network because it was attacking other systems, causing our services to go down which is really bad. How can I prevent these strange IP addresses from trying to access my servers? They are Windows Server 2003 R2 Enterprise 'containers' (virtual machines) running on a Parallels Virtuozzo HW node, if that makes a difference. I can configure each machine individually as if it were it's own server of course... UPDATE: New login attempts still happening, now these ones are tracing back to Ukraine... WTF.. here is the Event: Successful Network Logon: User Name: Domain: Logon ID: (0x0,0xB4FEB30C) Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Workstation Name: REANIMAT-328817 Logon GUID: - Caller User Name: - Caller Domain: - Caller Logon ID: - Caller Process ID: - Transited Services: - Source Network Address: 94.179.189.117 Source Port: 0 For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. Here is one from France I found too: Event Type: Success Audit Event Source: Security Event Category: Logon/Logoff Event ID: 540 Date: 1/20/2011 Time: 11:09:50 AM User: NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON Computer: QA Description: Successful Network Logon: User Name: Domain: Logon ID: (0x0,0xB35D8539) Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Workstation Name: COMPUTER Logon GUID: - Caller User Name: - Caller Domain: - Caller Logon ID: - Caller Process ID: - Transited Services: - Source Network Address: 82.238.39.154 Source Port: 0 For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp.

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• SBS 2008 R2: Did something change with anonymous relays?

  - by gravyface

  Have noticed that prior documentation on setting up anonymous relays in SBS 2008 no longer work without some additional configuration. Used to be able to follow this documentation, which is basically: setup a new receive connector add the IP address(es) that will be permitted to relay check off "anonymous" under Permission Group and then run the Exchange shell script to grant permissions. Now what seems to be happening is that if the permitted IP address happens to fall within the same address space as another more restrictive Receive Connector (like the "Default SBS08" one) and possibly if it's ahead of the new Receive Connector alphabetically (haven't tested that yet), the relay attempt fails with "Client Was Not Authenticated" error. To get it to work, I had to modify the scope of the "Default SBS08" Receive Connector to exclude the one LAN IP that I wanted to allow relaying for. I can't recall ever having to do this for Exchange 2007 Standard and/or any other SBS 2008 servers I've setup over the last couple of years and I don't remember doing this and the wiki entry I added at the office doesn't mention it either. So my question is, has anyone else experienced this? Has there been a new change with R2 or perhaps an Exchange Service Pack?

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