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• Simplifying Testing through design considerations while utilizing dependency injection

  - by Adam Driscoll

  We are a few months into a green-field project to rework the Logic and Business layers of our product. By utilizing MEF (dependency injection) we have achieved high levels of code coverage and I believe that we have a pretty solid product. As we have been working through some of the more complex logic I have found it increasingly difficult to unit test. We are utilizing the CompositionContainer to query for types required by these complex algorithms. My unit tests are sometimes difficult to follow due to the lengthy mock object setup process that must take place, just right, to allow for certain circumstances to be verified. My unit tests often take me longer to write than the code that I'm trying to test. I realize this is not only an issue with dependency injection but with design as a whole. Is poor method design or lack of composition to blame for my overly complex tests? I've tried base classing tests, creating commonly used mock objects and ensuring that I utilize the container as much as possible to ease this issue but my tests always end up quite complex and hard to debug. What are some tips that you've seen to keep such tests concise, readable, and effective?

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• What is the way to go to fake my database layer in a unit test?

  - by Michel

  Hi, i have a question about unit testing. say i have a controller with one create method which puts a new customer in the database: //code a bit shortened public actionresult Create(Formcollection formcollection){ client c = nwe client(); c.Name = formcollection["name"]; ClientService.Save(c); { Clientservice would call a datalayer object and save it in the database. What i do now is create a database testscript and set my database in a know condition before testing. So when i test this method in the unit test, i know that there must be one more client in the database, and what it's name is. In short: ClientController cc = new ClientController(); cc.Create(new FormCollection (){name="John"}); //i know i had 10 clients before assert.areEqual(11, ClientService.GetNumberOfClients()); //the last inserted one is John assert.areEqual("John", ClientService.GetAllClients()[10].Name); So i've read that unit testing should not be hitting the database, i've setup an IOC for the database classes, but then what? I can create a fake database class, and make it do nothing. But then ofcourse my assertions will not work because if i say GetNumberOfClients() it will alwasy return X because it has no interaction with the fake database class used in the Create Method. I can also create a List of Clients in the fake database class, but as there will be two different instance created (one in the controller action and one in the unit test), they will have no interaction. What is the way to make this unit test work without a database?

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• How do I store a string longer than 4000 characters in an Oracle Database using Java/JDBC?

  - by Ventrue

  I’m not sure how to use Java/JDBC to insert a very long string into an Oracle database. I have a String which is greater than 4000 characters, lets say it’s 6000. I want to take this string and store it in an Oracle database. The way to do this seems to be with the CLOB datatype. Okay, so I declared the column as description CLOB. Now, when it comes time to actually insert the data, I have a prepared statement pstmt. It looks like pstmt = conn.prepareStatement(“INSERT INTO Table VALUES(?)”). So I want to use the method pstmt.setClob(). However, I don’t know how to create a Clob object with my String in it; there’s no constructor (presumably because it can be potentially much larger than available memory). How do I put my String into a Clob? Keep in mind I’m not a very experienced programmer; please try to keep the explanations as simple as possible. Efficiency, good practices, etc. are not a concern here, I just want the absolute easiest solution. I’d like to avoid downloading other packages if it all possible; right now I’m just using JDK 1.4 and what is labelled “ojdbc14.jar”. I've looked around a bit but I haven't been able to follow any of the explanations I've found. If you have a solution that doesn’t use Clobs, I’d be open to that as well, but it has to be one column.

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• How do I set up FirePHP version 1.0?

  - by jay

  I love FirePHP and I've been using it for a while, but they've put out this massive upgrade and I'm completely flummoxed trying to get it to work. I think I'm copying the "Quick Start" code (kind of guessing at whatever changes are necessary for my server configuration), but for some reason, FirePHP's "primary" function, FirePHP::to() isn't doing anything. Can anyone please help me figure out what I'm doing wrong? Thanks. <?php define('INSIGHT_IPS', '*'); define('INSIGHT_AUTHKEYS', '290AA9215205F24E5104F48D61B60FFC'); define('INSIGHT_PATHS', __DIR__); define('INSIGHT_SERVER_PATH', '/doc_root/hello_firephp2.php'); set_include_path(get_include_path . ":/home8/jayharri/php/FirePHP/lib"); // path to FirePHP library require_once('FirePHP/Init.php'); $inpector = FirePHP::to('page'); var_dump($inspector); $console = $inspector->console(); $console->log('hello firephp'); ?> Output: NULL Fatal error: Call to a member function console() on a non-object in /home8/jayharri/public_html/if/doc_root/hello_firephp2.php on line 14

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• Testing for interface implementation in WCF/SOA

  - by rabidpebble

  I have a reporting service that implements a number of reports. Each report requires certain parameters. Groups of logically related parameters are placed in an interface, which the report then implements: [ServiceContract] [ServiceKnownType(typeof(ExampleReport))] public interface IService1 { [OperationContract] void Process(IReport report); } public interface IReport { string PrintedBy { get; set; } } public interface IApplicableDateRangeParameter { DateTime StartDate { get; set; } DateTime EndDate { get; set; } } [DataContract] public abstract class Report : IReport { [DataMember] public string PrintedBy { get; set; } } [DataContract] public class ExampleReport : Report, IApplicableDateRangeParameter { [DataMember] public DateTime StartDate { get; set; } [DataMember] public DateTime EndDate { get; set; } } The problem is that the WCF DataContractSerializer does not expose these interfaces in my client library, thus I can't write the generic report generating front-end that I plan to. Can WCF expose these interfaces, or is this a limitation of the serializer? If the latter case, then what is the canonical approach to this OO pattern? I've looked into NetDataContractSerializer but it doesn't seem to be an officially supported implementation (which means it's not an option in my project). Currently I've resigned myself to including the interfaces in a library that is common between the service and the client application, but this seems like an unnecessary extra dependency to me. Surely there is a more straightforward way to do this? I was under the impression that WCF was supposed to replace .NET remoting; checking if an object implements an interface seems to be one of the most basic features required of a remoting interface?

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• WCF RIA Services Custom Type with Collection of Custom Types

  - by Blakewell

  Is it possible to have a custom type within a custom type and have the result returned via WCF RIA services? I have the following two classes below, but I can't gain access to the Verticies property within the Polygon class. I assume it is because it is a custom class, or something to do with it being a List collection. Polygon Class public class Polygon { public Polygon() { _vertices = new List<Location>(); } private int _id; [Key] public int Id { get; set; } private List<Location> _vertices; public List<Location> Vertices { get { return _vertices; } set { _vertices = value; } } } Location Class public class Location { public Location() { } /// <summary> /// Default constructor for creating a Location object /// </summary> /// <param name="latitude"></param> /// <param name="longitude"></param> public Location( double latitude, double longitude ) { _latitude = latitude; _longitude = longitude; } private int _id; [Key] public int Id { get { return _id; } set { _id = value; } } private double _latitude; /// <summary> /// Latitude coordinate of the location /// </summary> public double Latitude { get { return _latitude; } set { _latitude = value; } } private double _longitude; /// <summary> /// Longitude coordiante of the location /// </summary> public double Longitude { get { return _longitude; } set { _longitude = value; } } }

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• Calling a subclass method from a superclass

  - by Shaun

  Preface: This is in the context of a Rails application. The question, however, is specific to Ruby. Let's say I have a Media object. class Media < ActiveRecord::Base end I've extended it in a few subclasses: class Image < Media def show # logic end end class Video < Media def show # logic end end From within the Media class, I want to call the implementation of show from the proper subclass. So, from Media, if self is a Video, then it would call Video's show method. If self is instead an Image, it would call Image's show method. Coming from a Java background, the first thing that popped into my head was 'create an abstract method in the superclass'. However, I've read in several places (including Stack Overflow) that abstract methods aren't the best way to deal with this in Ruby. With that in mind, I started researching typecasting and discovered that this is also a relic of Java thinking that I need to banish from my mind when dealing with Ruby. Defeated, I started coding something that looked like this: def superclass_method # logic this_media = self.type.constantize.find(self.id) this_media.show end I've been coding in Ruby/Rails for a while now, but since this was my first time trying out this behavior and existing resources didn't answer my question directly, I wanted to get feedback from more-seasoned developers on how to accomplish my task. So, how can I call a subclass's implementation of a method from the superclass in Rails? Is there a better way than what I ended up (almost) implementing?

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• WPF - How to stop an ItemsControl psuedo-grid's columns from dancing/jumping around during layout

  - by Drew Noakes

  Several other questions on SO have come to the same conclusion I have -- using an ItemsControl with a DataTemplate for each item constructed to position items such that they resemble a grid is much simpler (especially to format) than using a ListView. The code resembles: <StackPanel Grid.IsSharedSizeScope="True"> <!-- Header --> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" SharedSizeGroup="Column1" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" SharedSizeGroup="Column2" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.Column="0" Text="Column Header 1" /> <TextBlock Grid.Column="1" Text="Column Header 2" /> </Grid> <!-- Items --> <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Values, Mode=OneWay}"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" SharedSizeGroup="Column1" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" SharedSizeGroup="Column2" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.Column="0" Text="{Binding ColumnProperty1}" /> <TextBlock Grid.Column="1" Text="{Binding ColumnProperty2}" /> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> </StackPanel> The problem I'm seeing is that whenever I swap the object to which the ItemsSource is bound (it's an ObservableCollection that I replace the reference to, rather than clear and re-add), the entire 'grid' dances about for a few seconds. Presumably it is making a few layout passes to get all the Auto-width columns to match up. This is very distracting for my users and I'd like to get it sorted out. Has anyone else seen this?

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• for cycle not works allright

  - by joseph

  Hello. I call addNotify() method in class that I posted here. The problem is, that when I call addNotify() as it is in the code, setKeys(objs) do nothing. Nothing appears in my explorer of running app. But when I call addNotify()without loop(for int....), and add only one item to ArrayList, it shows that one item correctly. Does anybody knows where can be problem? See the cede class ProjectsNode extends Children.Keys{ private ArrayList objs = new ArrayList(); public ProjectsNode() { } @Override protected Node[] createNodes(Object o) { MainProject obj = (MainProject) o; AbstractNode result = new AbstractNode (new DiagramsNode(), Lookups.singleton(obj)); result.setDisplayName (obj.getName()); return new Node[] { result }; } @Override protected void addNotify() { //this loop causes nothing appears in my explorer. //but when I replace this loop by single line "objs.add(new MainProject("project1000"));", it shows that one item in explorer for (int i=0;i==10;i++){ objs.add(new MainProject("project1000")); } setKeys (objs); } }

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• Refactor throwing not null exception if using a method that has a dependency on a certain contructor

  - by N00b

  In the method below the second constructor accepts a ForumThread object which the IncrementViewCount() method uses. There is a dependency between the method and that particular constructor. Without extracting into a new private method the null check in IncrementViewCount() and LockForumThread() (plus other methods not shown) is there some simpler re-factoring I can do or the implementation of a better design practice for this method to guard against the use of the wrong constructor with these dependent methods? Thank you for any suggestions in advance. private readonly IThread _forumLogic; private readonly ForumThread _ft; public ThreadLogic(IThread forumLogic) : this(forumLogic, null) { } public ThreadLogic(IThread forumLogic, ForumThread ft) { _forumLogic = forumLogic; _ft = ft; } public void Create(ForumThread ft) { _forumLogic.SaveThread(ft); } public void IncrementViewCount() { if (_ft == null) throw new NoNullAllowedException("_ft ForumThread is null; this must be set in the constructor"); lock (_ft) { _ft.ViewCount = _ft.ViewCount + 1; _forumLogic.SaveThread(_ft); } } public void LockForumThread() { if (_ft == null) throw new NoNullAllowedException("_ft ForumThread is null; this must be set in the constructor"); _ft.ThreadLocked = true; _forumLogic.SaveThread(_ft); }

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• What is the base open source java package to filter/match URLs?

  - by Boaz

  Hi, I have an high performance application which deals with URLs. For every URL it needs to retrieve the appropriate settings from a predefined pool. Every settings object is associated with a URL pattern which indicates which URLs should use these settings. The matching rules are as follows: "google.com" match pattern should match all URLs pointing to the google domain (thus, maps.google.com and www.google.com/match are matched). "*.google.com" should match all URLs pointing to a subdomain of google.com (thus, maps.google.com matches, but google.com and www.google.com don't). "maps.google.com" should match all URLs pointing to this specific subdomain. Apart from the above rules, every match rule can contain a path, which means that the path part of the URL should start with the match rule path. So: "*.google.com/maps" matches "maps.google.com/maps" but not "maps.google.com/advanced". As you can see the rules above are overlapping. In the case two rules exist which match the same URL the most specific should apply. The list above is ranked from least specific to most specific. This seems to be such a standard problem that I was hoping to use a ready made library rather than program my self. Google reveals a couple of options but without a clear way to choose between them. What would you recommend as a good library for this task? Thanks, Boaz

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• Using Reflection.Emit to emit a "using (x) { ... }" block?

  - by Lasse V. Karlsen

  I'm trying to use Reflection.Emit in C# to emit a using (x) { ... } block. At the point I am in code, I need to take the current top of the stack, which is an object that implements IDisposable, store this away in a local variable, implement a using block on that variable, and then inside it add some more code (I can deal with that last part.) Here's a sample C# piece of code I tried to compile and look at in Reflector: public void Test() { TestDisposable disposable = new TestDisposable(); using (disposable) { throw new Exception("Test"); } } This looks like this in Reflector: .method public hidebysig instance void Test() cil managed { .maxstack 2 .locals init ( [0] class LVK.Reflection.Tests.UsingConstructTests/TestDisposable disposable, [1] class LVK.Reflection.Tests.UsingConstructTests/TestDisposable CS$3$0000, [2] bool CS$4$0001) L_0000: nop L_0001: newobj instance void LVK.Reflection.Tests.UsingConstructTests/TestDisposable::.ctor() L_0006: stloc.0 L_0007: ldloc.0 L_0008: stloc.1 L_0009: nop L_000a: ldstr "Test" L_000f: newobj instance void [mscorlib]System.Exception::.ctor(string) L_0014: throw L_0015: ldloc.1 L_0016: ldnull L_0017: ceq L_0019: stloc.2 L_001a: ldloc.2 L_001b: brtrue.s L_0024 L_001d: ldloc.1 L_001e: callvirt instance void [mscorlib]System.IDisposable::Dispose() L_0023: nop L_0024: endfinally .try L_0009 to L_0015 finally handler L_0015 to L_0025 } I have no idea how to deal with that ".try ..." part at the end there when using Reflection.Emit. Can someone point me in the right direction?

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• c# sending sms from computer

  - by I__

  i have this code: private SerialPort port = new SerialPort("COM1", 115200, Parity.None, 8, StopBits.One); Console.WriteLine("Incoming Data:"); port.WriteTimeout = 5000; port.ReadTimeout = 5000; // Attach a method to be called when there is data waiting in the port's buffer port.DataReceived += new SerialDataReceivedEventHandler(port_DataReceived); // Begin communications port.Open(); #region PhoneSMSSetup port.Write("AT+CMGF=1\r\n"); Thread.Sleep(500); port.Write("AT+CNMI=2,2\r\n"); Thread.Sleep(500); port.Write("AT+CSCA=\"+4790002100\"\r\n"); Thread.Sleep(500); #endregion // Enter an application loop which keeps this thread alive Application.Run(); i got it from here: http://www.experts-exchange.com/Programming/Languages/C_Sharp/Q_22832563.html i have a new winforms empty application: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace WindowsFormsApplication1 { public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } } } can you please tell me: where exactly would i paste the code? how do i get the code to run? i am sending AT COMMANDS to my cell phone that is attached to the computer

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• 401 Unauthorized returned on GET request (https) with correct credentials

  - by Johnny Grass

  I am trying to login to my web app using HttpWebRequest but I keep getting the following error: System.Net.WebException: The remote server returned an error: (401) Unauthorized. Fiddler has the following output: Result Protocol Host URL 200 HTTP CONNECT mysite.com:443 302 HTTPS mysite.com /auth 401 HTTP mysite.com /auth This is what I'm doing: // to ignore SSL certificate errors public bool AcceptAllCertifications(object sender, System.Security.Cryptography.X509Certificates.X509Certificate certification, System.Security.Cryptography.X509Certificates.X509Chain chain, System.Net.Security.SslPolicyErrors sslPolicyErrors) { return true; } try { // request Uri uri = new Uri("https://mysite.com/auth"); HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(uri) as HttpWebRequest; request.Accept = "application/xml"; // authentication string user = "user"; string pwd = "secret"; string auth = "Basic " + Convert.ToBase64String(System.Text.Encoding.Default.GetBytes(user + ":" + pwd)); request.Headers.Add("Authorization", auth); ServicePointManager.ServerCertificateValidationCallback = new System.Net.Security.RemoteCertificateValidationCallback(AcceptAllCertifications); // response. HttpWebResponse response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); // Display Stream dataStream = response.GetResponseStream(); StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(dataStream); string responseFromServer = reader.ReadToEnd(); Console.WriteLine(responseFromServer); // Cleanup reader.Close(); dataStream.Close(); response.Close(); } catch (WebException webEx) { Console.Write(webEx.ToString()); } I am able to log in to the same site with no problem using ASIHTTPRequest in a Mac app like this: NSURL *login_url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"https://mysite.com/auth"]; ASIHTTPRequest *request = [ASIHTTPRequest requestWithURL:login_url]; [request setDelegate:self]; [request setUsername:name]; [request setPassword:pwd]; [request setRequestMethod:@"GET"]; [request addRequestHeader:@"Accept" value:@"application/xml"]; [request startAsynchronous];

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• problems with Console.SetOut in Release Mode?

  - by Matt Jacobsen

  i have a bunch of Console.WriteLines in my code that I can observe at runtime. I communicate with a native library that I also wrote. I'd like to stick some printf's in the native library and observe them too. I don't see them at runtime however. I've created a convoluted hello world app to demonstrate my problem. When the app runs, I can debug into the native library and see that the hello world is called. The output never lands in the textwriter though. Note that if the same code is run as a console app then everything works fine. C#: [DllImport("native.dll")] static extern void Test(); StreamWriter writer; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); writer = new StreamWriter(@"c:\output.txt"); writer.AutoFlush = true; System.Console.SetOut(writer); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Test(); } and the native part: __declspec(dllexport) void Test() { printf("Hello World"); } Update: hamishmcn below started talking about debug/release builds. I removed the native call in the above button1_click method and just replaced it with a standard Console.WriteLine .net call. When I compiled and ran this in debug mode the messages were redirected to the output file. When I switched to release mode however the calls weren't redirected. Console redirection only seems to work in debug mode. How do I get around this?

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• How do I authenticate regarding EJB3 Container ?

  - by FMR

  I have my business classes protected by EJB3 security annotations, now I would like to call these methods from a Spring controller, how do I do it? edit I will add some information about my setup, I'm using Tomcat for the webcontainer and OpenEJB for embedding EJB into tomcat. I did not settle on any version of spring so it's more or less open to suggestions. edit current setup works this way : I have a login form + controller that puts a User pojo inside SessionContext. Each time someone access a secured part of the site, the application checks for the User pojo, if it's there check roles and then show the page, if it's not show a appropriate message or redirect to login page. Now the bussiness calls are made thanks to a call method inside User which bypass a probable security context which is a remix of this code found in openejb security examples : Caller managerBean = (Caller) context.lookup("ManagerBeanLocal"); managerBean.call(new Callable() { public Object call() throws Exception { Movies movies = (Movies) context.lookup("MoviesLocal"); movies.addMovie(new Movie("Quentin Tarantino", "Reservoir Dogs", 1992)); movies.addMovie(new Movie("Joel Coen", "Fargo", 1996)); movies.addMovie(new Movie("Joel Coen", "The Big Lebowski", 1998)); List<Movie> list = movies.getMovies(); assertEquals("List.size()", 3, list.size()); for (Movie movie : list) { movies.deleteMovie(movie); } assertEquals("Movies.getMovies()", 0, movies.getMovies().size()); return null; } });

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• Switching textstorage of NSTextViews back and forth

  - by Jakob Dam Jensen

  I'm trying to make a feature in a product which gives the user the ability to split a textview into two. The way this is done is by removing the textview from it's superview, making a NSSplitView and adding the textview as well as a new NSTextView instance to this splitview. Lastly I make these two textviews share the same textstorage in order to make them share the same content. It works great. But the problem is when I want to make one of the two textviews change textstorage. The replaceTextStorage method in NSLayoutManager causes both NSTextView to change textStorage. The API documentation states: replaceTextStorage: All NSLayoutManager objects sharing the original NSTextStorage object then share the new one. This method makes all the adjustments necessary to keep these relationships intact, unlike setTextStorage:. So it makes sense that it would do this. But the question is how do I make it possible to have two (or more) textviews first share the same storage and after that having them using their own? I've tried replacing the layoutManager and even making new instances of NSTextViews but no luck... Any suggestions?

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• Retrieving license type (linux/windows/windows+sqlserver) for an Amazon EC2 instance via the API?

  - by Geir

  I need to calculate the hourly running costs for my Amazon EC2 instances. This varies even between instances with same hardware configs (instance types) because I use different amazon images (AMIs): some plain windows server and some windows server with sql server (both of them have additional costs compared with plain linux instances) The EC2 Java API has a describeInstances() method which returns Instance objects with metadata such as instance id, instance type (m1.small/large...), state (running,stopped..) public ip, etc. This Instance object also has a .getLicense().getPool() which according to the Java API should return "The license pool from which this license was used (ex: 'windows')." I thought this is were it may also give 'windows+sqlserver' or something to that effect. The getLicense() method does however return null.. I've navigated around the EC2 web console, not being able to find this information, but I'm hoping that it is possible - otherwise it would mean that you cannot identify the true hourly cost of an particular instance unless you know which AMI was used to create it in the first place (plain windows server or windows server with sql server). Anyone? Thanks :) /Geir

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• Connect to a remote Oracle 11g server using OracleClient of .NET 2.0

  - by Raghu M

  I have to connect to a Oracle server on the network using a .NET / C# (Winform) application. I am trying to use System.Data.OracleClient but in vain. Here are the details I can possibly think of (that might help someone reading this question): Platform: Visual Studio 2005 / .NET 2.0 with C# on Windows Vista Home Premium Library: System.Data.OracleClient Server: Oracle 11g (located on the same LAN) Please note that I don't have Oracle installed locally and I have hunted every discussion forum possible for help - but most of them assume local Oracle installation! Here is my connection string: "User Id=TSUSER;Password=ts12TS;Data Source=(DESCRIPTION=(ADDRESS=(PROTOCOL=TCP)(HOST=MyServerIP)(PORT=1521))(CONNECT_DATA=(SERVICE_NAME=ORCL)));" And I get this error: OCIEnvCreate failed with return code -1 but error message text was not available. Stack trace: at System.Data.OracleClient.OciHandle..ctor(OciHandle parentHandle, HTYPE handleType, MODE ocimode, HANDLEFLAG handleflags) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleInternalConnection.OpenOnLocalTransaction(String userName, String password, String serverName, Boolean integratedSecurity, Boolean unicode, Boolean omitOracleConnectionName) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleInternalConnection..ctor(OracleConnectionString connectionOptions) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleConnectionFactory.CreateConnection(DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreatePooledConnection(DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnectionOptions options) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.CreateObject(DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.UserCreateRequest(DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleConnection.Open() at DGKit.Util.DataUtil.Generate() in D:\SVNRoot\sandbox\DGDev\Util\DataUtil.cs:line 68

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• JQuery UI Tabs - replace tab and contents

  - by Tauren

  What is the best way to replace the currently selected tab and its contents? The content is dynamically generated with jquery, not loaded via a URL. I need to do this from outside of any tab code or tab event handler (show, add, etc.). There is a link elsewhere on the page that should do the following when clicked: Change the tab's title Change the tab's className Clear out all elements of the tabcontent div Change the tabcontent div's className Generate new content inside the tabcontent div Note that the only reference this link's click() handler has is to the JQuery tabs object ($Tabs). I can get the selected tab with $Tabs.tabs('option','selected'). But how can I get a reference to the selected tab's tab and panel? Inside of a jquery tab handler (show, add, etc.), I have access to ui.tab and ui.panel, but is there a way to get them from a tabs option? Would it be better to simply remove the currently selected tab and then add a new tab in the same index location? I'd have to put the code to generate the tab content into the add() handler then I suppose.

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• Old fashioned html onclick return false doesnt in IE work when jquery script included

  - by user292662

  Ok, so im quite new to jquery but found this bizzar problem just now, If we ignore jquery for a second and consider this scenario, if i have two links like below both with an href and both with and onclick event. The first link will not follow the href because the onclick returns false, and the second link will because the onclick returns true. <a href="/page.html" onclick="return false;">Dont follow</a> <a href="/page.html" onclick="return false;">Follow</a> This works just hunky dory in every browser as it should, the thing is, as soon as i include the jQuery script on the page this stops working in all versions of IE which then always follows the href whether the onclick returns false or not. (it continues to work fine in other browsers) Now if i add an event using jquery and call .preventDefault() on the event object instead of doing it the old fashioned way this behaves correctly, and you may say, well just do that then? But i have a site with thousands of lines of code and i am adding jquery support, i dont want to run the risk that i might miss an already defined html onclick="" and break the website. I cant see why jQuery should prevent perfectly normal javascript concepts from working, so is this a jQuery bug or am I missing something?

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• Rails3 renders a js.erb template with a text/html content-type instead of text/javascript

  - by Yannis

  Hi, I'm building a new app with 3.0.0.beta3. I simply try to render a js.erb template to an Ajax request for the following action (in publications_controller.rb): def get_pubmed_data entry = Bio::PubMed.query(params[:pmid])# searches PubMed and get entry @publication = Bio::MEDLINE.new(entry) # creates Bio::MEDLINE object from entry text flash[:warning] = "No publication found."if @publication.title.blank? and @publication.authors.blank? and @publication.journal.blank? respond_to do |format| format.js end end Currently, my get_pubmed_data.js.erb template is simply alert('<%= @publication.title %>') The server is responding with the following alert('Evidence for a herpes simplex virus-specific factor controlling the transcription of deoxypyrimidine kinase.') which is perfectly fine except that nothing happen in the browser, probably because the content-type of the response is 'text/html' instead of 'text/javascript' as shown by the response header partially reproduced here: Status 200 Keep-Alive timeout=5, max=100 Connection Keep-Alive Transfer-Encoding chunked Content-Type text/html; charset=utf-8 Is this a bug or am I missing something? Thanks for your help!

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• FindControl() from UserControl inside a for loop

  - by Kyle

  I'm creating a usercontrol that will have a series of LinkButtons. I've declared all of my link buttons at the top of my class LinkButton LB1 = new LinkButton(); LinkButton LB2 = new LinkButton(); //... LinkButton LB9 = new LinkButton(); now I'd like to be able to create a loop to access all of those link buttons so I don't have to write them all out every time. I tried something like this within my overridden CreateChildControls() method: for (int i = 1; i < 10; i++) { LinkButton lb = (LinkButton)FindControl("LB" + i.ToString()); lb.Text = i.ToString() + "-Button"; } I keep getting an exception saying that lb.Text... is not set to an instance of an object. I also tried giving all of my LB1, LB2 etc valid Ids. ie: LB1.ID = "LB1"; still not dice. how can I do this?

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• ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

  - by Jimmo

  I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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• Constraining to parent container with MouseDragElementBehavior

  - by anonymous

  Hi all, I just had a question regarding constraining a control's drag and drop movement to its parent canvas. I tried using the ConstrainToParentBounds property on the MouseDragElementBehavior, however, when this is used the drag must be done really slowly or the movement of the control is choppy or stops altogether. So I am attempting to implement my own boundary constraints. I seem to be running into difficulty though. I am still using the MouseDragElementBehavior but am attempting to supplement it by also handling mouseleftbuttondown, mousemove, mouseleftbuttonup events. I know that these are working (haven't been overridden by the MouseDragElementBehavior) as I have tested them using other methods. I will post my current code below: private void Control_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { MyControl mc = (MyControl)sender; Canvas canvas = (Canvas)mc.parent; GeneralTransform ct = canvas.TransformToVisual(Application.Current.RootVisual as UIElement; Point canvas_offset = ct.Transform(new Point(0,0)); double canvasTop = canvas_offset.Y; double canvasLeft = canvas_offset.X; GeneralTransform gt = mc.TransformToVisual(Application.Current.RootVisual as UIElement); Point offset = gt.Transform(new Point(0,0)); double controlTop = offset.Y; double controlLeft = offset.X; if(isMouseCaptured) { if(controlTop < canvasTop) { mc.Opacity = 1; //to test if conditions are being met, seems to indicate ok mc.setValue(Canvas.TopProperty, canvasTop); } if(controlLeft < canvasLeft) { mc.Opacity = 1; mc.setValue(Canvas.TopProperty, canvasTop); } } } This is what my code looks like at the moment (I realize there is nothing there for right/bottom). I've tried a bunch of different things at this point and none of them seem to give the desired result; the control's movement is still not constrained to the canvas. Any help/pointers would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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