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  • Can I spead out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

    - by Russ
    [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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  • What's the purpose of "import package"?

    - by codethief
    As I just found out import package does not make the package's modules available through package.module. The same obviously holds true for from package import subpackage as well as from package import * What's the purpose of importing a package at all then if I can't access its submodules but only the objects defined in __init__.py? It makes sense to me that from package import * would bloat the namespace, which, however, doesn't apply in case of the other two ways! I also understand that loading all submodules might take a long time. But I don't know what these unwanted side-effects, "that should only happen when the sub-module is explicitly imported", are which the author of the previous link mentions. To me it looks like doing an import package[.subpackage] (or from package import subpackage) makes absolutely no sense if I don't exactly want to access objects provided in __init__.py. Are those unwanted side effects really that serious that the language actually has to protect the programmer from causing them? Actually, I thought that Python was a little bit more about "If the programmer wants to do it, let him do it." In my case, I really do want to import all submodules with the single statement from package import subpackage, because I need all of them! Telling Python in the init.py file which submodules I'm exactly talking about (all of them!) is quite cumbersome from my point of view. Please enlighten me. :)

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  • Are lambda expressions/delegates in C# "pure", or can they be?

    - by Bob
    I recently asked about functional programs having no side effects, and learned what this means for making parallelized tasks trivial. Specifically, that "pure" functions make this trivial as they have no side effects. I've also recently been looking into LINQ and lambda expressions as I've run across examples many times here on StackOverflow involving enumeration. That got me to wondering if parallelizing an enumeration or loop can be "easier" in C# now. Are lambda expressions "pure" enough to pull off trivial parallelizing? Maybe it depends on what you're doing with the expression, but can they be pure enough? Would something like this be theoretically possible/trivial in C#?: Break the loop into chunks Run a thread to loop through each chunk Run a function that does something with the value from the current loop position of each thread For instance, say I had a bunch of objects in a game loop (as I am developing a game and was thinking about the possibility of multiple threads) and had to do something with each of them every frame, would the above be trivial to pull off? Looking at IEnumerable it seems it only keeps track of the current position, so I'm not sure I could use the normal generic collections to break the enumeration into "chunks". Sorry about this question. I used bullets above instead of pseudo-code because I don't even know enough to write pseudo-code off the top of my head. My .NET knowledge has been purely simple business stuff and I'm new to delegates and threads, etc. I mainly want to know if the above approach is good for pursuing, and if delegates/lambdas don't have to be worried about when it comes to their parallelization.

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  • HELP with XML to XML transformation using XSLT.

    - by kaniths
    Am a rookie trying XSLT and XML tranformations for the first time. To start off, i tried a simple sample programs. I expected the Output in Tree format (maintaining the hierarchy) instead i just get " KING" in single line... What could be the problem? PS: I use XMLSpy. Any guideline would be great full. Thanks :) Input XML: <ROWSET> <ROW> <EMPNO>7839</EMPNO> <ENAME>KING</ENAME> </ROW> </ROWSET> XSL used for transformation: <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:output method="xml" encoding="UTF-8" indent="yes" omit-xml-declaration="no"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <Invitation> <To> <xsl:value-of select="ROWSET/ROW/ENAME"/> </To> </Invitation> </xsl:template>

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  • Is it immoral to write crappy code even if readability and correctness is not a requirement?

    - by mafutrct
    There are cases when crappy (i.e. unreadable and buggy) code is not much of a problem. For instance, imagine you need to generate a big text file that mostly follows a simple pattern with a few very complex exceptions. What do you do? You quickly write a simple algorithm and insert the exceptional bits in the output manually to save 4 hours. The code is unreadable, and the output is flawed, but it's still the correct way since it is way faster. But let's get this straight: I hate bad code. I've had to read and work with code that caused my stomach to hurt. I care a lot about good code. And actually, I caught myself thinking that it is immoral to write bad code even though the dirty approach is sometimes superior. I was surprised by myself and found my idea to be very irrational. Did you ever experience this? Should I just get rid of this stupid idea and use the most efficient approach to coding?

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  • Change in behaviour & generation of nullreference exception

    - by peril brain
    I made this program 2hr ago and it ran quit well when i confronted this to presaved .xls file. But when i closed that and started new instance,it started generating null refrence exception why??plz explain. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.IO; using System.Threading; using Microsoft.Office.Interop; using Excel = Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel; namespace svchost { class MainClass { Excel.Application oExcelApp; static void Main(string[] args) { MainClass mc = new MainClass(); while (true) { if (mc.chec()) { Console.WriteLine("RUNNING"); Thread.Sleep(4000); } else { Console.WriteLine("NOT RUNNING"); Thread.Sleep(8000); } } } public bool chec() { try { oExcelApp = (Excel.Application)System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.GetActiveObject("Excel.Application"); Excel.Workbook xlwkbook = (Excel.Workbook)oExcelApp.ActiveWorkbook; //****PROBLEM FROM HERE********* Console.WriteLine(xlwkbook.Name + "\n"); ke kw = new ke(ref oExcelApp,ref xlwkbook); Console.WriteLine(xlwkbook.Author); xlwkbook = null; } catch (Exception ec) { oExcelApp = null; System.GC.Collect(); Console.WriteLine(ec); return false; } oExcelApp = null; System.GC.Collect(); return true; } } class ke { public ke(ref Excel.Application a1, ref Excel.Workbook b1) { Excel.Worksheet ws = (Excel.Worksheet)a1.ActiveSheet; Console.WriteLine(a1.ActiveWorkbook.Name + "\n" + ws.Name); Excel.Range rn; rn = ws.Cells.Find("657/07", Type.Missing, Excel.XlFindLookIn.xlValues, Excel.XlLookAt.xlPart, Excel.XlSearchOrder.xlByRows, Excel.XlSearchDirection.xlNext, false, Type.Missing, Type.Missing); Console.WriteLine(rn.Text); } } }

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  • Django: how to cleanup form fields and avoid code duplication

    - by Alexander Konstantinov
    Quite often I need to filter some form data before using it (saving to database etc.) Let's say I want to strip whitespaces and replace repeating whitespaces with a single one in most of the text fields, in many forms. It's not difficult to do this using clean_<fieldname> methods: # Simplified model with two text fields class MyModel(models.Model): title = models.CharField() description = models.CharField() # Model-based form class MyForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = MyModel def clean_title(self): title = self.cleaned_data['title'] return re.sub(r'\s{2,}', ' ', title.strip()) def clean_description(self): description = self.cleaned_data['description'] return re.sub(r'\s{2,}', ' ', description.strip()) It does exactly what I need, and has a nice side effect which I like: if user enters only whitespaces, the field will be considered empty and therefore invalid (if it is required) and I don't even have to throw a ValidationError. The obvious problem here is code duplication. Even if I'll create some function for that, say my_text_filter, I'll have to call it for every text field in all my forms: from myproject.filters import my_text_filter class MyForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = MyModel def clean_title(self): return my_text_filter(self.cleaned_data['title']) def clean_description(self): return my_text_filter(self.cleaned_data['description']) The question: is there any standard and simple way in Django (I use version 1.2 if that matters) to do this (like, for example, by adding property validators = {'title': my_text_filter, 'description': my_text_filter} to MyModel), or at least some more or less standard workaround? I've read about form validation and validators in the documentation, but couldn't find what I need there.

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  • JAX-WS client with AXIS server; namespace problem?

    - by Jarno
    I'm having a problem related to JAX-WS and AXIS. JAX-WS (2.1.7) as a client, Axis (1.4.x) as server. Everything works OK, but the response can't be read to Java. Response: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <soapenv:Envelope xmlns:soapenv="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <soapenv:Body> <ns1:myserviceResponse soapenv:encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" xmlns:ns1="http://my/service"> <ns1:myserviceReturn xsi:type="xsd:string">responsestring</ns1:myserviceReturn> </ns1:myserviceResponse> </soapenv:Body> </soapenv:Envelope> The problem is that if "ns1:"-namespace declaration is removed from myserviceReturn, JAX-WS is able to return else than null. Does anyone have a clue how to force JAX-WS to ignore namespaces, how to modify SOAP response manually to exclude "ns1", or other ideas for this kind of problem? Any help is appreciated!!!

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  • Perl Script in background

    - by himz
    I have a perl script i made to automatically telnet into different servers . but its interface is only command line. To make it more user friendly for general windows users , i need to make GUI for it . My idea is to make GUI in a language like VB,java ,etc and let that call perl script . my script will run in background in a command prompt and whatever the result it displays back in GUI. Got some success. GUI in vb ,I run an instance of CMD in background ,run perl script in that .But that is wer program fails .As perl script runs in a thread for perl , i only get the output when script completes(rather say when it timeout). i need a mechanism where i can interact with the perl script , take output of script and show to user , then take input from user and so on . Please can you all suggest me some way to actually make this happen. PS: No limitation on using any language for GUI (as core work is done by perl script,GUI only there to give appropriate commands to script) Thanks in advance

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  • autocommit and @Transactional and Cascading with spring, jpa and hibernate

    - by subes
    Hi, what I would like to accomplish is the following: have autocommit enabled so per default all queries get commited if there is a @Transactional on a method, it overrides the autocommit and encloses all queries into a single transaction, thus overriding the autocommit if there is a @Transactional method that calls other @Transactional annotated methods, the outer most annotation should override the inner annotaions and create a larger transaction, thus annotations also override eachother I am currently still learning about spring-orm and couldn't find documentation about this and don't have a test project for this yet. So my questions are: What is the default behaviour of transactions in spring? If the default differs from my requirement, is there a way to configure my desired behaviour? Or is there a totally different best practice for transactions? --EDIT-- I have the following test-setup: @javax.persistence.Entity public class Entity { @Id @GeneratedValue private Integer id; private String name; public Integer getId() { return id; } public void setId(Integer id) { this.id = id; } public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } } @Repository public class Dao { @PersistenceContext private EntityManager em; public void insert(Entity ent) { em.persist(ent); } @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public List<Entity> selectAll() { List<Entity> ents = em.createQuery("select e from " + Entity.class.getName() + " e").getResultList(); return ents; } } If I have it like this, even with autocommit enabled in hibernate, the insert method does nothing. I have to add @Transactional to the insert or the method calling insert for it to work... Is there a way to make @Transactional completely optional?

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  • EF + UnitOfWork + SharePoint RunWithElevatedPrivileges

    - by Lorenzo
    In our SharePoint application we have used the UnitOfWork + Repository patterns together with Entity Framework. To avoid the usage of the passthrough authentication we have developed a piece of code that impersonate a single user before creating the ObjectContext instance in a similar way that is described in "Impersonating user with Entity Framework" on this site. The only difference between our code and the referred question is that, to do the impersonation, we are using RunWithElevatedPrivileges to impersonate the Application Pool identity as in the following sample. SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(url)) { _context = new MyDataContext(ConfigSingleton.GetInstance().ConnectionString); } }); We have done this way because we expected that creating the ObjectContext after impersonation and, due to the fact that Repositories are receiving the impersonated ObjectContext would solve our requirement. Unfortunately it's not so easy. In fact we experienced that, even if the ObjectContext is created before and under impersonation circumstances, the real connection is made just before executing the query, and so does not use impersonation, which break our requirement. I have checked the ObjectContext class to see if there was any event through which we can inject the impersonation but unfortunately found nothing. Any help?

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  • Facebook IOS SDK: Error in Publish Story Dialog

    - by lividsquirrel
    I've successfully set up the "DemoApp" project from the Facebook IOS SDK to use my "OKC ThunderCast" Facebook application. I have also configured another "Tester" application from scratch to successfully use the Facebook SDK and publish stories to my news feed. However, in my production application, I always get this result when calling the "dialog" method. The full description of the error message is "Error on line 52 at column 17: Opening and ending tag mismatch: div line 0 and body" Here's a detailed walkthrough of all of my code to make sure nothing is missed. 1) A UIViewController calls the "authorize" method NSArray *fbPerms = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"read_stream", @"offline_access", nil]; [[FacebookSingleton sharedInstance].facebook authorize:fbPerms delegate:self]; Note: The FacebookSingleton is a class I wrote that always returns a single instance of the "Facebook" class. I am using it successfully in other applications. 2) Safari is opened and the user is successfully authenticated and authorized 3) The application is called back and the "handleOpenUrl" method is called, which calls the "fbDidLogin" method of the UIViewController - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application handleOpenURL:(NSURL *)url { Facebook *fb = [FacebookSingleton sharedInstance].facebook; return [fb handleOpenURL:url]; } 4) The same UIViewController handles the "fbDidLogin" event, and calls the "dialog" method - (void)fbDidLogin { [[FacebookSingleton sharedInstance].facebook dialog:@"feed" andDelegate:self]; } I also have the necessary "URL Schemes" and "URL Types" entries in the .plist file. To my eyes, I am using exactly the same code in the "DemoApp", "Tester", and production applications. But while the DemoApp and Tester work, I always see this HTML error in the feed dialog in my production application. Has anyone seen a similar issue? Could it be related to the Facebook "Bundle ID" setting in the Facebook application settings? Is there some build or .plist setting that is different? I have invested a great deal of time into troubleshooting with no success in several weeks. Thanks in advance...

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  • Tips on managing dependencies for a release?

    - by Andrew Murray
    Our system comprises many .NET websites, class libraries, and a MSSQL database. We use SVN for source control and TeamCity to automatically build to a Test server. Our team is normally working on 4 or 5 projects at a time. We try to lump many changes into a largish rollout every 2-4 weeks. My problem is with keeping track of all the dependencies for a rollout. Example: Website A cannot go live until we've rolled out Branch X of Class library B, built in turn against the Trunk of Class library C, which needs Config Updates Y and Z and Database Update D, which needs Migration Script E... It gets even more complex - like making sure each developer's project is actually compatible with the others and are building against the same versions. Yes, this is a management issue as much as a technical issue. Currently our non-optimal solution is: a whiteboard listing features that haven't gone live yet relying on our memory and intuition when planning the rollout, until we're pretty sure we've thought of everything... a dry-run on our Staging environment. It's a good indication but we're often not sure if Staging is 100% in sync with Live - part of the problem I'm hoping to solve. some amount of winging it on rollout day. So far so good, minus a few close calls. But as our system grows, I'd like a more scientific release management system allowing for more flexibility, like being able to roll out a single change or bugfix on it's own, safe in the knowledge that it won't break anything else. I'm guessing the best solution involves some sort of version numbering system, and perhaps using a project management tool. We're a start-up, so we're not too hot on religiously sticking to rigid processes, but we're happy to start, providing it doesn't add more overhead than it's worth. I'd love to hear advice from other teams who have solved this problem.

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  • I'v installed NetBeans 6.8 on my MacOS X MacBook and the logs say it cannot be run, any ideas?

    - by codezealot
    I've installed NetBeans 6.8 on my MacBook, and the installation results indicated success. However, every single time I attempt to run the application is shuts down. I monitored the process and noticed the following entries in the console that imply the application cannot be found? 3/19/10 10:20:20 PM [0x0-0x22022].org.netbeans.ide.baseide.200912041610[22168] /Applications/NetBeans/NetBeans 6.8.app/Contents/MacOS/netbeans: line 57: dirname: command not found 3/19/10 10:20:20 PM [0x0-0x22022].org.netbeans.ide.baseide.200912041610[22168] Cannot read cluster file: /../etc/netbeans.clusters 3/19/10 10:20:20 PM com.apple.launchd.peruser.501[77] ([0x0-0x22022].org.netbeans.ide.baseide.200912041610[22168]) Exited with exit code: 1 I started researching how to set the default JDK for use by NetBeans, and found repeated use of the following command line entry; netbeans --jdkhome /System/Library/Frameworks/JavaVM.framework/Versions/1.6.0/Home -- from http://wiki.netbeans.org/JDKVersionAndMacOS When I attempt the command line above, I receive "netbeans command not found". So do I ... 1.) Need to create a command called "netbeans" that points to my install location for NetBeans 6.8? If so how do I do that? 2.) How do I get to the netbeans.conf file for NetBeans 6.8, does one even exist for it? It gets even more interesting, the above happens with Eclipse as well. Yippie.

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  • How to generate a key for a group entity?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I'm trying to make a group entity. Something like: class User { } class UserColor { } ... Key key = new KeyFactory.Builder( User.class.getSimpleName(), username). .addChild(UserColor.class.getSimpleName(), ???).getKey(); I know the unique username up-front to use for the key of the User object. But I just want app engine to generate a random unique value for the key value of the UserColor instance. I think this is described here, but I don't understand their wording: http://code.google.com/appengine/docs/java/datastore/transactions.html To create an object with a system-generated numeric ID and an entity group parent, you must use an entity group parent key field (such as customerKey, above). Assign the key of the parent to the parent key field, then leave the object's key field set to null. When the object is saved, the datastore populates the key field with the complete key, including the entity group parent. and this is their example: @Persistent @Extension(vendorName="datanucleus", key="gae.parent-pk", value="true") private Key customerKey; but I don't understand - should UserColor look like this then?: class UserColor { @Persistent @Extension(vendorName="datanucleus", key="gae.parent-pk", value="true") private Key mKeyParent; @Primary private Key mKey; // leave null } ... Key keyParent = new KeyFactory.Builder( User.class.getSimpleName(), username); UserColor uc = new UserColor(); uc.setKeyParent(keyParent); pm.makePersistent(uc); // now generated for me automatically? is that correct? Using this method, I should be able to use a User and a UserColor object in a transaction together, right? Thanks

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  • C#: Why am I still getting an RCW error when exiting my application?

    - by shifuimam
    To be specific, the error is: An attempt has been made to free an RCW that is in use. The RCW is in use on the active thread or another thread. Attempting to free an in-use RCW can cause corruption or data loss. The application in question is a small applet that displays the current clock speed of the CPU as a system tray icon. I'm using a System.Timers.Timer object to refresh the systray icon at an interval of 2.5 seconds. There's a single context menu item to exit the application, which uses the following function to unload everything: public void ExitApp(object sender, EventArgs e) { //stop and disable the timer theInterval.Stop(); theInterval.Enabled = false; //unload the system tray icon TheIcon.Visible = false; //exit the application Application.Exit(); } If I take out everything but Application.Exit(); I get an RCW error and the systray icon doesn't go away until I mouse over it. Everything was working perfectly until I changed the window style of the hidden form used to initialize the systray icon and the timer. If it helps any, I'm using C# 2010 Express.

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  • How to draw multiple rectangles using c#

    - by Nivas
    I have drawn and saved the Rectangle on the image i loaded in the picture box. How i like to draw multiple rectangles for that i tried array in the rectangle but it gives error ("Object reference not set to an instance of an object." (Null reference Exception was unhandled). private void pictureBox1_MouseDown(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (mybitmap == null) { mybitmap = new Bitmap(sz.Width, sz.Height); } rect[count] = new Rectangle(e.X, e.Y, 0, 0); this.Invalidate(); } private void pictureBox1_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (stayToolStripMenuItem.Checked == true) { switch (e.Button) { case MouseButtons.Left: { rect[count] = new Rectangle(rect[count].Left, rect[count].Top, e.X - rect[count].Left, e.Y - rect[count].Top); pictureBox1.Invalidate(); count++: break; } } } } private void pictureBox1_Paint(object sender, PaintEventArgs e) { if (stayToolStripMenuItem.Checked == true) { button1.Visible = true; button2.Visible = true; if (mybitmap == null) { return; } using (g = Graphics.FromImage(mybitmap)) { using (Pen pen = new Pen(Color.Red, 2)) { //g.Clear(Color.Transparent); e.Graphics.DrawRectangle(pen, rect); label1.Top = rect[count].Top; label1[count].Left = rect[count].Left; label1.Width = rect[count].Width; label1.Height = rect[count].Height; if (label1.TextAlign == ContentAlignment.TopLeft) { e.Graphics.DrawString(label1.Text, label1.Font, new SolidBrush(label1.ForeColor), rect); g.DrawString(label1.Text, label1.Font, new SolidBrush(label1.ForeColor), rect); g.DrawRectangle(pen, rect[count]); } } } } } How can i do this.....

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  • What would be the equivalent VB.NET code for this C# FluentNHibernate component mapping?

    - by Will Marcouiller
    I'm a C# programmer constrained to write VB.NET code. While exploring NHibernate further for my current client, I encountered FluentNHibernate, which I find real attractive. But now, I wonder how to "translate" this C# code for component mapping into VB.NET code: Component(x => x.Address, m => { m.Map(x => x.Number); m.Map(x => x.Street); m.Map(x => x.PostCode); }); I know from here: Component(Of Client)(Function(c) c.Address, ...) what I miss is how to continue with the brackets in VB.NET, since there's no Begin End keywords or so. EDIT 1: Following Mr. JaredPar instructions, I figured that his solution might work. If we take the time to read his answer, we may notice that we both don't know what the MType is within his solution. I might have found out that the MType is: FluentNHibernate.Mapping.ComponentPart(Of TComponent) Thus, TComponent is, from my understanding, an anonymous type that I shall parameter to use. From this point of view, since I wish to map the properties of my Address object, replacing TComponent in my help method signature seems not to work. Private Sub MapAdresseHelper(Of Adresse)(ByVal a As FluentNHibernate.Mapping.ComponentPart(Of Adresse)) a.Map(Function(m) m.Number) a.Map(Function(m) m.Street).Length(50) a.Map(Function(m) m.PostCode).Length(10) End Sub The error I get is that my Address class doesn't have a property member named Street, for instance. It sees my Address type, it recognizes it, but it seems buggy somehow. I guess VBNET is poorly designed for lambda expressions and is less evolved than C# (Sorry, a bit of frustration due to the constraint of working with it and not being capable of doing things VERY easily done in C#.) Thanks!

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  • Using Excel as front end to Access database (with VBA)

    - by Alex
    I am building a small application for a friend and they'd like to be able to use Excel as the front end. (the UI will basically be userforms in Excel). They have a bunch of data in Excel that they would like to be able to query but I do not want to use excel as a database as I don't think it is fit for that purpose and am considering using Access. [BTW, I know Access has its shortcomings but there is zero budget available and Access already on friend's PC] To summarise, I am considering dumping a bunch of data into Access and then using Excel as a front end to query the database and display results in a userform style environment. Questions: How easy is it to link to Access from Excel using ADO / DAO? Is it quite limited in terms of functionality or can I get creative? Do I pay a performance penalty (vs.using forms in Access as the UI)? Assuming that the database will always be updated using ADO / DAO commands from within Excel VBA, does that mean I can have multiple Excel users using that one single Access database and not run into any concurrency issues etc.? Any other things I should be aware of? I have strong Excel VBA skills and think I can overcome Access VBA quite quickly but never really done Excel / Access link before. I could shoehorn the data into Excel and use as a quasi-database but that just seems more pain than it is worth (and not a robust long term solution) Any advice appreciated. Alex

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  • Connect xampp to MongoDB

    - by Jhonny D. Cano -Leftware-
    Hello I have a xampp 1.7.3 instance running and a MongoDB 1.2.4 server on the same machine. I want to connect them, so I basically have been following this tutorial on php.net, it seems to connect but the cursors are always empty. I don't know what am I missing. Here is the code I am trying. The cursor-valid always says false. thanks <?php $m = new Mongo(); // connect try { $m->connect(); } catch (MongoConnectionException $ex) { echo $ex; } echo "conecta..."; $dbs = $m->listDBs(); if ($dbs == NULL) { echo $m->lastError(); return; } foreach($dbs as $db) { echo $db; } $db = $m->selectDB("CDO"); echo "elige bd..."; $col = $db->selectCollection("rep_consulta"); echo "elige col..."; $rangeQuery = array('id' => array( '$gt' => 100)); $col->insert(array('id' => 456745764, 'nombre' => 'cosa')); $cursor = $col->find()->limit(10); echo "buscando..."; var_dump($cursor); var_dump($cursor->valid()); if ($cursor == NULL) echo 'cursor null'; while($cursor->hasNext()) { $item = $cursor->current(); echo "en while..."; echo $item["nombre"].'...'; } ?> doing this by command line works perfect use CDO db.rep_consulta.find() -- lot of data here

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  • Amazon API ItemSearch returns (400) Bad Request.

    - by BuzzBubba
    I'm using a simple example from Amazon documentation for ItemSearch and I get a strange error: "The remote server returned an unexpected response: (400) Bad Request." This is the code: public static void Main() { //Remember to create an instance of the amazon service, including you Access ID. AWSECommerceServicePortTypeClient service = new AWSECommerceServicePortTypeClient(new BasicHttpBinding(), new EndpointAddress( "http://webservices.amazon.com/onca/soap?Service=AWSECommerceService")); AWSECommerceServicePortTypeClient client = new AWSECommerceServicePortTypeClient( new BasicHttpBinding(), new EndpointAddress("http://webservices.amazon.com/onca/soap?Service=AWSECommerceService")); // prepare an ItemSearch request ItemSearchRequest request = new ItemSearchRequest(); request.SearchIndex = "Books"; request.Title = "Harry+Potter"; request.ResponseGroup = new string[] { "Small" }; ItemSearch itemSearch = new ItemSearch(); itemSearch.Request = new ItemSearchRequest[] { request }; itemSearch.AWSAccessKeyId = accessKeyId; // issue the ItemSearch request try { ItemSearchResponse response = client.ItemSearch(itemSearch); // write out the results foreach (var item in response.Items[0].Item) { Console.WriteLine(item.ItemAttributes.Title); } } catch(Exception e) { Console.ForegroundColor = ConsoleColor.Red; Console.WriteLine(e.Message); Console.ForegroundColor = ConsoleColor.White; Console.WriteLine("Press any key to quit..."); Clipboard.SetText(e.Message); } Console.ReadKey(); What is wrong?

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  • Can I spread out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

    - by Russ
    [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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  • Can I spread out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

    - by Russ
    [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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  • Programatic re-evalutation of MVVM command's "can execute" state

    - by dzs
    Hello! I'm writing a WPF application using the MVVM pattern, based on the following article: WPF Apps With The Model-View-ViewModel Design Pattern I have two buttons on my View with the buttons' "Command" property bound (with data binding) to a given instance of the RelayCommand class (see "Figure 3 The RelayCommand Class" from the article above). The RelayCommand class has support for checking whether the given command can be executed. WPF automatically disables buttons whose command cannot be executed. Each of my commands (in the ViewModel class) start a background operation, and the command cannot be executed again until the background operation is finished. The RelayCommand instances have information whether the background operation is still working or it is finished. My problem is the following: after pressing the any of the buttons, the buttons automaticaly go disabled (which is OK) because the background operation started and the command cannot be executed until it is finished, but after the operation had finished, the buttons don't go enabled automatically because their command's "can be executed" predicate is not automatically reevaluated. The reevaluation can be manually triggered by having the application loose and regain focus (by pressing ALT+TAB). After doing this trick, the buttons get enabled once again. How can I programatically reevaluate the buttons' command's "can execute" state?

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  • CAScrollLayer doesn't scroll!

    - by Cliff
    Maybe it's because it's late. Whatever the reason I can't figure out why I'm having trouble with a simple CSScrollLayer example I'm trying. I add a 50 pixel Eclipse icon to a view based project and in my initialize method (called from initWithNibName:bundle:) I have this: -(void) initialize { CAScrollLayer *scrollLayer = [CAScrollLayer layer]; scrollLayer.backgroundColor = [[UIColor blackColor] CGColor]; CGRect bounds = self.view.bounds; scrollLayer.bounds = CGRectMake(0, 0, bounds.size.width, bounds.size.height); scrollLayer.contentsRect = CGRectMake(0, 0, bounds.size.width + 800, bounds.size.height + 800); scrollLayer.borderWidth = 2.5; scrollLayer.borderColor = [[UIColor redColor] CGColor]; scrollLayer.position = CGPointMake(self.view.center.x, self.view.center.y - 20); scrollLayer.scrollMode = kCAScrollBoth; [self.view.layer addSublayer:scrollLayer]; UIImage *image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"eclipse32.gif"]; for(int i=0; i<6; i++) { layer = [CALayer layer]; layer.backgroundColor = [[UIColor blackColor] CGColor]; layer.bounds = CGRectMake(0, 0, 100, 100); layer.contents = (id)[image CGImage]; layer.position = CGPointMake(layer.bounds.size.width * i, self.view.center.y); [scrollLayer addSublayer:layer]; } // [button removeFromSuperview]; // [self.view addSubview:button]; // self.view.userInteractionEnabled = YES; [image release]; } The scroll layer shows, the icon is repeated on the layer I have a border around the edge of the screen. Everything is lovely except I can't scroll the icons. I've tried with/without setting scroll mode. I've tried with a single stretched icon that falls off screen. I've tried everything. What am I doing wrong?

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