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  • DDD: Client-side script to enforce invariants

    - by Mosh
    Hello, One thing that I'm confused about in regards to DDD is that our domain is supposed to handle all business logic and enforce invariants. I have noticed some people (me included) handle certain invariants in the presentation layer (i.e. WebForms, Views, etc) with javascript. This is mainly done to improve performance so the server is not hit for every request which may be invalid. Even though this approach may be beneficial performance-wise, it violates DDD principles. What if the business rules are changed? This way we don't have a rich domain where all the business rules are captured. In case of a change, we should change the domain as well as the presentation layer. Has anyone come across this situation before? I'd like to know your thoughts on this. Cheers, Mosh

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  • How to measure the time HTTP requests spend sitting in the accept-queue?

    - by David Jones
    I am using Apache2 on Ubuntu 9.10, and I am trying to tune my configuration for a web application to reduce latency of responses to HTTP requests. During a moderately heavy load on my small server, there are 24 apache2 processes handling requests. Additional requests get queued. Using "netstat", I see 24 connections are ESTABLISHED and 125 connections are TIME_WAIT. I am trying to figure out if that is considered a reasonable backlog. Most requests get serviced in a fraction of a second, so I am assuming requests move through the accept-queue fairly quickly, probably within 1 or 2 seconds, but I would like to be more certain. Can anyone recommend an easy way to measure the time an HTTP request sits in the accept-queue? The suggestions I have come across so far seem to start the clock after the apache2 worker accepts the connection. I'm trying to quantify the accept-queue delay before that. thanks in advance, David Jones

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  • Different url scheme for Zend Framework

    - by ChrisRamakers
    For our CMS we have a site manager that defines the site's tree structure (sitemap if you want to call it that). A possible url is www.example.com/our-team/developers/chris/ which would map in the tree structure to the node chris, child old developers which is in turn a child of out-team. All this is in place and working the the wonderfully implemented Nested Set behavior in doctrine. The only thing is that i'm struggling to get it working in the front end of our website. By default Zend framework's request object expects controller/action/key/value/key/value/... URI scheme but that isn't quite fitting my needs, i would like to skip the whole controller, action and key part and restrict to values. Something like value1/value2/value3/value4/... Anyone has an idea how to accomplish this?

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  • Communicate between content script and options page

    - by Gaurang Tandon
    I have seen many questions already and all are about background page to content script. Summary My extension has an options page, and a content script. The content script handles the storage functionality (chrome.storage manipulation). Whenever, a user changes a setting in the options page, I want to send a message to the content script to store the new data. My code: options.js var data = "abcd"; // let data chrome.tabs.query({ active: true, currentWindow: true }, function (tabs) { chrome.tabs.sendMessage(tabs[0].id, "storeData:" + data, function(response){ console.log(response); // gives undefined :( }); }); content script js chrome.runtime.onMessage.addListener(function(request, sender, sendResponse) { // not working }); My question: Why isn't the approach not working? Is there any other (better) approach for this procedure.

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  • Providing localized error messages for non-attributed model validation in ASP.Net MVC 2?

    - by Lance McNearney
    I'm using the DataAnnotations attributes along with ASP.Net MVC 2 to provide model validation for my ViewModels: public class ExamplePersonViewModel { [Required(ErrorMessageResourceName = "Required", ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(Resources.Validation))] [StringLength(128, ErrorMessageResourceName = "StringLength", ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(Resources.Validation))] [DataType(DataType.Text)] public string Name { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessageResourceName = "Required", ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(Resources.Validation))] [DataType(DataType.Text)] public int Age { get; set; } } This seems to work as expected (although it's very verbose). The problem I have is that there are behind-the-scenes model validations being performed that are not tied to any specific attribute. An example of this in the above model is that the Age property needs to be an int. If you try to enter a non-integer value on the form, it will error with the following (non-localized) message: The field Age must be a number. How can these non-attribute validation messages be localized? Is there a full list of these messages available so I can make sure they are all localized?

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  • whats the diference between train, validation and test set, in neural networks?

    - by Daniel
    Im using this library http://pastebin.com/raw.php?i=aMtVv4RZ to implement a learning agent. I have generated the train cases, but i dont know for sure what are the validation and test sets, the teacher says: 70% should be train cases, 10% will be test cases and the rest 20% should be validation cases. Thanks. edit i have this code, for training.. but i have no ideia when to stop training.. def train(self, train, validation, N=0.3, M=0.1): # N: learning rate # M: momentum factor accuracy = list() while(True): error = 0.0 for p in train: input, target = p self.update(input) error = error + self.backPropagate(target, N, M) print "validation" total = 0 for p in validation: input, target = p output = self.update(input) total += sum([abs(target - output) for target, output in zip(target, output)]) #calculates sum of absolute diference between target and output accuracy.append(total) print min(accuracy) print sum(accuracy[-5:])/5 #if i % 100 == 0: print 'error %-14f' % error if ? < ?: break

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  • Javascript culture always en-us

    - by LoveMeSomeCode
    I'm not sure if I understand this code or if I'm using it right, but I was under the impression that in an ASP.NET 2.0 AJAX website I could run javascript like: var c = Sys.CultureInfo.CurrentCulture and it would give me the culture/language settings the user had specified in their browser at the time of the visit. However, for me, it always comes back 'en-US' no matter what language I pick in firefox or IE. This serverside code however: string[] languages = HttpContext.Current.Request.UserLanguages; if (languages == null || languages.Length == 0) return null; try { string language = languages[0].ToLowerInvariant().Trim(); return CultureInfo.CreateSpecificCulture(language); } catch (ArgumentException) { return null; } does return the language I have currently set. But I need to do this clientside, because I need to parse a string into a datetime and do some validations before I postback, and the string could be a MM/DD/YYYY or DD/MM/YYYY, or some other such thing. What am I missing?

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  • How to transfer a post request in curl into a ruby script?

    - by 0x90
    I have this post request: curl -i -X POST \ -H "Accept:application/json" \ -H "content-type:application/x-www-form-urlencoded" \ -d "disambiguator=Document&confidence=-1&support=-1&text=President%20Obama%20called%20Wednesday%20on%20Congress%20to%20extend%20a%20tax%20break%20for%20students%20included%20in%20last%20year%27s%20economic%20stimulus%20package" \ http://spotlight.dbpedia.org/dev/rest/annotate/ How can I write it in ruby? I tried this as Kyle told me: require 'rubygems' require 'net/http' require 'uri' uri = URI.parse('http://spotlight.dbpedia.org/rest/annotate') http = Net::HTTP.new(uri.host, uri.port) request = Net::HTTP::Post.new(uri.request_uri) request.set_form_data({ "disambiguator" => "Document", "confidence" => "0.3", "support" => "0", "text" => "President Obama called Wednesday on Congress to extend a tax break for students included in last year's economic stimulus package" }) request.add_field("Accept", "application/json") request.add_field("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded") response = http.request(request) puts response.inspect but got this error: #<Net::HTTPInternalServerError 500 Internal Error readbody=true>

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  • php $_REQUEST data is only half-decoded

    - by hackmaster.a
    I am retrieving a url via querystring. I need to pass it again to the next page. When I retrieve it the first time, using $_REQUEST['url'], only the slashes are decoded, e.g: http://example.com/search~S10?/Xllamas&searchscope=10&SORT=D/Xllamas&searchscope=10&SORT=D&SUBKEY=llamas/51%2C64%2C64%2CB/browse The php docs page for urldecode advises against decoding request data, and says that it will already be decoded. I need it either completely decoded, so I can encode it again without double-encoding some parts, or not decoded at all. I'm not sure why my experience of this data is incongruous with the php docs. Appreciate any help or pointers to same!!

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  • How do set default values in django for an HttpRequest.GET?

    - by Mike
    I have a webpage that displays data based on a default date. The user can then change their view of the data by slecting a date with a date picker and clicking a submit button. I already have a variable set so that if no date is chosen, a default date is used.... so what's the problem? The problem comes if the user trys to type in the url page without a parameter... like so: http://mywebpage/viewdata (example A) instead of http://mywebpage/viewdata?date= (example B) I tried using: if request.method == 'GET': but apparently, even example A still returns true. I'm sure I'm doing some obvious beginner's mistake but I'll ask anyway... Is there a simpler way to handle example A other than passing the url to a string and checking the string for "?date="?

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  • How can I retrieve the values of controls in the form that posted?

    - by Mike at KBS
    I know this has got to be the simplest-sounding question ever asked about ASP.Net but I'm baffled. I have a form wherein my visitor will enter name, address, etc. Then I am POSTing that form via the PostBackUrl property of my Submit button to another page, where the fields are supposed to be all re-formed into new hidden fields, then POSTed again to Paypal. My problem is I cannot get at the values entered by the visitor in the original page. Any time I put in "runat='server'", ASP.Net completely changes the ID of the control, making it impossible to figure out how to access. In the POSTed form I tried Request.Form["_txtFirstName"] and that turned up null. Then I tried ((TextBox)PreviousPage.FindControl("_txtFirstName")).Text and that was null, too. I've tried variations on those. I cannot figure out how I'm supposed to get at these controls. Why does this stuff need to be so difficult?

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  • How do I get the response time from a jQuery ajax call?

    - by Dumpen
    So I am working on tool that can show long a request to a page is taking. I am doing this by using jQuery Ajax (http://api.jquery.com/jQuery.ajax/) and I want to figure out the best way to get the response time. I found a thread (http://forum.jquery.com/topic/jquery-get-time-of-ajax-post) which describes using the "Date" in JavaScript, but is this method really reliable? An example of my code could be this below $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "some.php", }).done(function () { // Here I want to get the how long it took to load some.php and use it further });

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  • Validate XML instance document against WSDL

    - by Ice09
    Hi, I can easily validate a XML document against a XML Schema, eg. with XMLSpy or programmatically. Is it possible to do this with a WSDL file? It does not seem possible with XMLSpy or any other XML tool I know. For me the only possibility right now is to do it programmatically, eg. by generating Java code from the WSDL and starting a request, which is then marshalled correctly. If there is no tool / easy programmatic approach, is there a tool which can extract XML Schema from the WSDL? Best

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  • How can I catch connection requests in my framework?

    - by Falx
    I'm building a framework (OSGi-like) where other parties can program a bundle for. But I want my framework to manage the QoS of the connection-requests that the other parties will do. The easy solution would be to ask them to use (or enforce them to use - although I don't know how) a specific ConnectionRequest bundle of the framework. The problem with this approach is that they wouldn't be able to use any of their own preferred libraries that is counting on the standard Java libraries to make a connection(request). So I wondered if there is a way in Java to catch all the requested connections, so I can add some code about my QoS handling, before its is sent of to the underlaying layer?

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  • ExpressJS: What is the difference between app.local and res.local?

    - by aeyang
    I'm trying to learn Express and in my app I have middleware that passes the session object from the Request object to my Response object so that I can access it in my views: app.use((req, res, next) -> res.locals.session = req.session next() ) But app.locals is available to the view as well right? So is it the same if I do app.locals.session = req.session? Is there a convention for the types of things app.locals and res.locals are used for? I was also confused on what the difference is between res.render() and res.redirect()? When should each be used? Thanks for reading. Any help related to Express is appreciated!

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  • asp.net CustomValidator never fires OnServerValidate

    - by Bryce Fischer
    I have the following ASP page: <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ShellContent" runat="server"> <form runat="server" id="AddNewNoteForm" method="post""> <fieldset id="NoteContainer"> <legend>Add New Note</legend> <asp:ValidationSummary ID="ValidationSummary1" runat="server" /> <div class="ctrlHolder"> <asp:Label ID="LabelNoteDate" runat="server" Text="Note Date" AssociatedControlID="NoteDateTextBox"></asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="NoteDateTextBox" runat="server" class="textInput" CausesValidation="True" ></asp:TextBox> <asp:CustomValidator ID="CustomValidator1" runat="server" ErrorMessage="CustomValidator" ControlToValidate="NoteDateTextBox" OnServerValidate="CustomValidator1_ServerValidate" Display="Dynamic" >*</asp:CustomValidator> </div> <div class="ctrlHolder"> <asp:Label ID="LabelNoteText" AssociatedControlID="NoteTextTextBox" runat="server" Text="Note"></asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="NoteTextTextBox" runat="server" Height="102px" TextMode="MultiLine" class="textInput" ></asp:TextBox> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="RequiredFieldValidator2" runat="server" ErrorMessage="Note Text is Required" ControlToValidate="NoteTextTextBox">*</asp:RequiredFieldValidator> </div> <div class="buttonHolder"> <asp:Button ID="OkButton" runat="server" Text="Add New Note" CssClass="primaryAction" onclick="OkButton_Click"/> <asp:HyperLink ID="HyperLink1" runat="server">Cancel</asp:HyperLink> </div> </fieldset> </form> </asp:Content> and the following code behind for the CustomValidator1_ServerValidate() method: protected void CustomValidator1_ServerValidate(object source, ServerValidateEventArgs args) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(args.Value.Trim())) { args.IsValid = false; CustomValidator1.ErrorMessage = "Note Date is Required!"; return; } DateTime testDate; if (DateTime.TryParse(args.Value, out testDate)) { args.IsValid = true; CustomValidator1.ErrorMessage = "Invalid Date!"; } } It never seems to fail validation no matter what I put in the text box... Should mention this is ASP.NET 2.0

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  • Validating String Characters as Numeric w/ Pascal (FastReport 4)

    - by user2525015
    I'm new to Pascal and FastReport. This question can probably be answered without knowledge of FastReport. Pascal is Delphi. FastReport4. I have a text box accepting an 8 character string as input. Each character should be numeric. I'm attempting to validate each character as numeric. I've tried using the val function... Procedure Val(S : String; var R: Real; Code : Integer); begin end; procedure thisinputOnChange(Sender: TfrxComponent); var S : String; error : Integer; R : Real; begin S := thisinput.lines.text; Val (S, R, error); If error > 0 then Button2.enabled := False; end; I got this code online. The explanation says that the function will return an error with a code greater than zero if the character cannot be converted to an integer. Is that explanation correct? Am I misinterpreting? Right now I am trying to set a button's enabled property to false if the validation fails. I might change that to a message. For now, I would like to get it to work by setting the button property. I'm not sure if I should be using the onChange event or another event. I'm also not sure if I need to send the input to the val function in a loop. Like I said, I'm just learning how to use this function. I am able to validate the length. This code works... procedure thisinputOnChange(Sender: TfrxComponent); begin if length(thisinput.lines.text) = 8 then Button2.enabled := True; end; Any suggestions? Should I use the val function or something else? Let me know if I need to provide more info. I might not be able to check back until later, though. Thanks for any help.

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  • Regular exp to validate email in C

    - by Liju Mathew
    Hi, We need to write a email validation program in C. We are planning to use GNU Cregex.h) regular expression. The regular expression we prepared is [a-z0-9!#$%&'*+/=?^_`{|}~-]+(?:\.[a-z0-9!#$%&'*+/=?^_`{|}~-]+)*@(?:[a-z0-9](?:[a-z0-9-]*[a-z0-9])?\.)+[a-z0-9](?:[a-z0-9-]*[a-z0-9])? But the below code is failing while compiling the regex. #include <stdio.h> #include <regex.h> int main(const char *argv, int argc) { const char *reg_exp = "[a-z0-9!#$%&'*+/=?^_`{|}~-]+(?:.[a-z0-9!#$%&'*+/=?^_`{|}~-]+)*@(?:[a-z0-9](?:[a-z0-9-]*[a-z0-9])?.)+[a-z0-9](?:[a-z0-9-]*[a-z0-9])?"; int status = 1; char email[71]; regex_t preg; int rc; printf("The regex = %s\n", reg_exp); rc = regcomp(&preg, reg_exp, REG_EXTENDED|REG_NOSUB); if (rc != 0) { if (rc == REG_BADPAT || rc == REG_ECOLLATE) fprintf(stderr, "Bad Regex/Collate\n"); if (rc == REG_ECTYPE) fprintf(stderr, "Invalid Char\n"); if (rc == REG_EESCAPE) fprintf(stderr, "Trailing \\\n"); if (rc == REG_ESUBREG || rc == REG_EBRACK) fprintf(stderr, "Invalid number/[] error\n"); if (rc == REG_EPAREN || rc == REG_EBRACE) fprintf(stderr, "Paren/Bracket error\n"); if (rc == REG_BADBR || rc == REG_ERANGE) fprintf(stderr, "{} content invalid/Invalid endpoint\n"); if (rc == REG_ESPACE) fprintf(stderr, "Memory error\n"); if (rc == REG_BADRPT) fprintf(stderr, "Invalid regex\n"); fprintf(stderr, "%s: Failed to compile the regular expression:%d\n", __func__, rc); return 1; } while (status) { fgets(email, sizeof(email), stdin); status = email[0]-48; rc = regexec(&preg, email, (size_t)0, NULL, 0); if (rc == 0) { fprintf(stderr, "%s: The regular expression is a match\n", __func__); } else { fprintf(stderr, "%s: The regular expression is not a match: %d\n", __func__, rc); } } regfree(&preg); return 0; } The regex compilation is failing with the below error. The regex = [a-z0-9!#$%&'*+/=?^_`{|}~-]+(?:.[a-z0-9!#$%&'*+/=?^_`{|}~-]+)*@(?:[a-z0-9](?:[a-z0-9-]*[a-z0-9])?.)+[a-z0-9](?:[a-z0-9-]*[a-z0-9])? Invalid regex main: Failed to compile the regular expression:13 What is the cause of this error? Whether the regex need to be modified? Thanks, Mathew Liju

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  • jQuery / javascript and nested if statements

    - by rayne
    I have a multi-lingual page where I want to display form validation error in the user's language. I use a hidden input to determine which language version the user is browsing like this: <input type="hidden" name="lang" id="lang" value="<?php echo $lang; ?>" /> The PHP side of the script works, but jQuery doesn't seem to realize which language is passed on. It displays the English error message no matter on which language site I am. Here's the code (I removed the other form fields for length): $(document).ready(function(){ $('#contact').submit(function() { $(".form_message").hide(); var emailReg = /^([\w-\.]+@([\w-]+\.)+[\w-]{2,4})?$/; var lang = $("#lang").val(); var name = $("#name").val(); var dataString = { 'lang': lang, 'name': name } if (name == '') { if (lang == 'de') { $("#posted").after('<div class="form_message"><p><span class="error">Fehler:</span> Bitte gib deinen Namen an!</p></div>'); } else { $("#posted").after('<div class="form_message"><p><span class="error">Error:</span> Please enter your name!</p></div>'); } $("#name").focus(); $("#name").addClass('req'); } else { $("#loading").show(); $("#loading").fadeIn(400).html('<img src="/img/loading.gif" />Loading...'); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/contact-post.php", data: dataString, cache: false, success: function(html){ $("#loading").hide(); $("#posted").after('<div class="form_message"><p>Thank you! Your contact request has been sent.</p></div>'); $("#contact input:submit").attr("disabled", "disabled").val("Success!"); } }); }return false; }); }); The problem seems to be somewhere in the nested if statement. Does jQuery / javascript even recognize nested ifs? And if yes, why is it not working?

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  • Wondering why DisplayName attribute is ignored in LabelFor on an overridden property

    - by Lasse Krantz
    Hi, today I got confused when doing a couple of <%=Html.LabelFor(m=>m.MyProperty)%> in ASP.NET MVC 2 and using the [DisplayName("Show this instead of MyProperty")] attribute from System.ComponentModel. As it turned out, when I put the attribute on an overridden property, LabelFor didn't seem to notice it. However, the [Required] attribute works fine on the overridden property, and the generated errormessage actually uses the DisplayNameAttribute. This is some trivial examplecode, the more realistic scenario is that I have a databasemodel separate from the viewmodel, but for convenience, I'd like to inherit from the databasemodel, add View-only properties and decorating the viewmodel with the attributes for the UI. public class POCOWithoutDataAnnotations { public virtual string PleaseOverrideMe { get; set; } } public class EditModel : POCOWithoutDataAnnotations { [Required] [DisplayName("This should be as label for please override me!")] public override string PleaseOverrideMe { get { return base.PleaseOverrideMe; } set { base.PleaseOverrideMe = value; } } [Required] [DisplayName("This property exists only in EditModel")] public string NonOverriddenProp { get; set; } } The strongly typed ViewPage<EditModel> contains: <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> </div> <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.NonOverriddenProp) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.NonOverriddenProp) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.NonOverriddenProp) %> </div> The labels are then displayed as "PleaseOverrideMe" (not using the DisplayNameAttribute) and "This property exists only in EditModel" (using the DisplayNameAttribute) when viewing the page. If I post with empty values, triggering the validation with this ActionMethod: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(EditModel model) { if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(model); return View("Thanks"); } the <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> actually uses [DisplayName("This should be as label for please override me!")] attribute, and produces the default errortext "The This should be as label for please override me! field is required." Would some friendly soul shed some light on this?

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  • Validate an Xml file against a DTD with a proxy. C# 2.0

    - by Chris Dunaway
    I have looked at many examples for validating an XML file against a DTD, but have not found one that allows me to use a proxy. I have a cXml file as follows (abbreviated for display) which I wish to validate: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <!DOCTYPE cXML SYSTEM "http://xml.cxml.org/schemas/cXML/1.2.018/InvoiceDetail.dtd"> <cXML payloadID="123456" timestamp="2009-12-10T10:05:30-06:00"> <!-- content snipped --> </cXML> I am trying to create a simple C# program to validate the xml against the DTD. I have tried code such as the following but cannot figure out how to get it to use a proxy: private static bool isValid = false; static void Main(string[] args) { try { XmlTextReader r = new XmlTextReader(args[0]); XmlReaderSettings settings = new XmlReaderSettings(); XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); settings.ProhibitDtd = false; settings.ValidationType = ValidationType.DTD; settings.ValidationEventHandler += new ValidationEventHandler(v_ValidationEventHandler); XmlReader validator = XmlReader.Create(r, settings); while (validator.Read()) ; validator.Close(); // Check whether the document is valid or invalid. if (isValid) Console.WriteLine("Document is valid"); else Console.WriteLine("Document is invalid"); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString()); } } static void v_ValidationEventHandler(object sender, ValidationEventArgs e) { isValid = false; Console.WriteLine("Validation event\n" + e.Message); } The exception I receive is System.Net.WebException: The remote server returned an error: (407) Proxy Authentication Required. which occurs on the line while (validator.Read()) ; I know I can validate against a DTD locally, but I don't want to change the xml DOCTYPE since that is what the final form needs to be (this app is solely for diagnostic purposes). For more information about the cXML spec, you can go to cxml.org. I appreciate any assistance. Thanks

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  • NoSuchMessageException: No message found

    - by adisembiring
    Hi .... I try to learn Spring MVC 3.0 validation. but I got NoSuchMessageException: No message found under code 'name.required' for locale 'en_US' error message when form submted. I have create message.properties in src/message.properties and the content of that file is: name.required = User Name is required password.required = Password is required gender.required = Gender is required I have set ResourceBundleMessageSource in my app-servlet.xml <bean id="messageSource" class="org.springframework.context.support.ResourceBundleMessageSource" p:basename="messages" /> My validator code is: @Component("registrationValidator") public class RegistrationValidator implements Validator { @Override public boolean supports(Class<?> clazz) { return RegistrationCommand.class.isAssignableFrom(clazz); } @Override public void validate(Object target, Errors errors) { RegistrationCommand registrationCommand = (RegistrationCommand) target; ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmptyOrWhitespace(errors, "name", "name.required"); ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmptyOrWhitespace(errors, "password", "password.required"); ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmpty(errors, "gender", "gender.required"); ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmpty(errors, "country", "country.required"); //ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmpty(errors, "community", "community.required"); ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmptyOrWhitespace(errors, "description", "description.required"); if (registrationCommand.getCommunity().length == 0) { errors.rejectValue("community", "community.required"); } } } and JSP Page is: <form:form commandName="registrationCommand"> <p class="name"> <label for="name">Name</label> <form:input path="name" /> <form:errors path="name" cssClass="error"></form:errors> </p> <p class="password"> <label for="password">Password</label> <form:password path="password" /> <form:errors path="password" cssClass="error"></form:errors> </p> <p class="gender"> <label>Gender</label> <form:radiobutton path="gender" value="M" label="M" /> <form:radiobutton path="gender" value="F" label="F" /> <form:errors path="gender" cssClass="error"></form:errors> </p> <p class="submit"> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </p> </form:form>

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  • DataGridView validating old value insted of new value.

    - by Scott Chamberlain
    I have a DataGridView that is bound to a DataTable, it has a column that is a double and the values need to be between 0 and 1. Here is my code private void dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin_CellValidating(object sender, DataGridViewCellValidatingEventArgs e) { if (e.ColumnIndex == dtxtPercentageOfUsersAllowed.Index) { double percentage; if(dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].Value.GetType() == typeof(double)) percentage = (double)dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].Value; else if (!double.TryParse(dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].Value.ToString(), out percentage)) { e.Cancel = true; dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].ErrorText = "The value must be between 0 and 1"; return; } if (percentage < 0 || percentage > 1) { e.Cancel = true; dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].ErrorText = "The value must be between 0 and 1"; } } } However my issue when dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin_CellValidating fires dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].Value will contain the old value before the edit, not the new value. For example lets say the old value was .1 and I enter 3. The above code runs when you exit the cell and dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].Value will be .1 for that run, the code validates and writes 3 the data to the DataTable. I click on it a second time, try to leave, and this time it behaves like it should, it raises the error icon for the cell and prevents me from leaving. I try to enter the correct value (say .7) but the the Value will still be 3 and there is now no way out of the cell because it is locked due to the error and my validation code will never push the new value. Any recommendations would be greatly appreciated. EDIT -- New version of the code based off of Stuart's suggestion and mimicking the style the MSDN article uses. Still behaves the same. private void dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin_CellValidating(object sender, DataGridViewCellValidatingEventArgs e) { if (e.ColumnIndex == dtxtPercentageOfUsersAllowed.Index) { dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].ErrorText = String.Empty; double percentage; if (!double.TryParse(dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].FormattedValue.ToString(), out percentage) || percentage < 0 || percentage > 1) { e.Cancel = true; dgvImpRDP_InfinityRDPLogin[e.ColumnIndex, e.RowIndex].ErrorText = "The value must be between 0 and 1"; return; } } }

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  • Rspec and Rails 3 - Problem Validating Nested Attribute Collection Size

    - by MunkiPhD
    When I create my Rspec tests, I keep getting a validation of false as opposed to true for the following tests. I've tried everything and the following is the measly code that I have now - so if it's waaaaay wrong, that's why. class Master < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :name, :specific_size # Associations ---------------------- has_many :line_items accepts_nested_attributes_for :line_items, :allow_destroy => true, :reject_if => lambda { |a| a[:item_id].blank? } # Validations ----------------------- validates :name, :presence => true, :length => {:minimum => 3, :maximum => 30} validates :specific_size, :presence => true, :length => {:minimum => 4, :maximum => 30} validate :verify_items_count def verify_items_count if self.line_items.size < 2 errors.add(:base, "Not enough items to create a master") end end end And here it the items model: class LineItem < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :specific_size, :other_item_type_id # Validations -------------------- validates :other_item_type_id, :presence => true validates :master_id, :presence => true validates :specific_size, :presence => true # Associations --------------------- belongs_to :other_item_type belongs_to :master end The RSpec Tests: before(:each) do @master_lines = [] @master_lines << LineItem.new(:other_item_type_id => 1, :master_id => 2, :specific_size => 1) @master_lines << LineItem.new(:other_item_type_id => 2, :master_id => 2, :specific_size => 1) @attr = {:name => "Some Master", :specific_size => "1 giga"} end it "should create a new instance given a valid name and specific size" do @master = Master.create(@attr) line_item_one = @master.line_items.build(:other_item_type_id => 1, :specific_size => 1) line_item_two = @master.line_items.build(:other_item_type_id => 2, :specific_size => 2) @master.line_items.size === 2 @master.should be_valid end it "should have at least two items to be valid" do master = Master.new(:name => "test name", :specific_size => "1 mega") master_item_one = LineItem.new(:other_item_type_id => 1, :specific_size => 2) master_item_two = LineItem.new(:other_item_type_id => 2, :specific_size => 1) master.line_items << master_item_one master.should_not be_valid master.line_items << master_item_two master.line_items.size.should === 2 master.should be_valid end I'm very new to Rspec and Rails - and I've been failing at this for the past couple of hours. Thanks for any help in advance.

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  • .NET WebRequest.PreAuthenticate not quite what it sounds like

    - by Rick Strahl
    I’ve run into the  problem a few times now: How to pre-authenticate .NET WebRequest calls doing an HTTP call to the server – essentially send authentication credentials on the very first request instead of waiting for a server challenge first? At first glance this sound like it should be easy: The .NET WebRequest object has a PreAuthenticate property which sounds like it should force authentication credentials to be sent on the first request. Looking at the MSDN example certainly looks like it does: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.net.webrequest.preauthenticate.aspx Unfortunately the MSDN sample is wrong. As is the text of the Help topic which incorrectly leads you to believe that PreAuthenticate… wait for it - pre-authenticates. But it doesn’t allow you to set credentials that are sent on the first request. What this property actually does is quite different. It doesn’t send credentials on the first request but rather caches the credentials ONCE you have already authenticated once. Http Authentication is based on a challenge response mechanism typically where the client sends a request and the server responds with a 401 header requesting authentication. So the client sends a request like this: GET /wconnect/admin/wc.wc?_maintain~ShowStatus HTTP/1.1 Host: rasnote User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.3) Gecko/20090824 Firefox/3.5.3 (.NET CLR 4.0.20506) Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en,de;q=0.7,en-us;q=0.3 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive and the server responds with: HTTP/1.1 401 Unauthorized Cache-Control: private Content-Type: text/html; charset=utf-8 Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.5 WWW-Authenticate: basic realm=rasnote" X-AspNet-Version: 2.0.50727 WWW-Authenticate: Negotiate WWW-Authenticate: NTLM WWW-Authenticate: Basic realm="rasnote" X-Powered-By: ASP.NET Date: Tue, 27 Oct 2009 00:58:20 GMT Content-Length: 5163 plus the actual error message body. The client then is responsible for re-sending the current request with the authentication token information provided (in this case Basic Auth): GET /wconnect/admin/wc.wc?_maintain~ShowStatus HTTP/1.1 Host: rasnote User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.3) Gecko/20090824 Firefox/3.5.3 (.NET CLR 4.0.20506) Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en,de;q=0.7,en-us;q=0.3 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive Cookie: TimeTrakker=2HJ1998WH06696; WebLogCommentUser=Rick Strahl|http://www.west-wind.com/|[email protected]; WebStoreUser=b8bd0ed9 Authorization: Basic cgsf12aDpkc2ZhZG1zMA== Once the authorization info is sent the server responds with the actual page result. Now if you use WebRequest (or WebClient) the default behavior is to re-authenticate on every request that requires authorization. This means if you look in  Fiddler or some other HTTP client Proxy that captures requests you’ll see that each request re-authenticates: Here are two requests fired back to back: and you can see the 401 challenge, the 200 response for both requests. If you watch this same conversation between a browser and a server you’ll notice that the first 401 is also there but the subsequent 401 requests are not present. WebRequest.PreAuthenticate And this is precisely what the WebRequest.PreAuthenticate property does: It’s a caching mechanism that caches the connection credentials for a given domain in the active process and resends it on subsequent requests. It does not send credentials on the first request but it will cache credentials on subsequent requests after authentication has succeeded: string url = "http://rasnote/wconnect/admin/wc.wc?_maintain~ShowStatus"; HttpWebRequest req = HttpWebRequest.Create(url) as HttpWebRequest; req.PreAuthenticate = true; req.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("rick", "secret", "rasnote"); req.AuthenticationLevel = System.Net.Security.AuthenticationLevel.MutualAuthRequested; req.UserAgent = ": Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.3) Gecko/20090824 Firefox/3.5.3 (.NET CLR 4.0.20506)"; WebResponse resp = req.GetResponse(); resp.Close(); req = HttpWebRequest.Create(url) as HttpWebRequest; req.PreAuthenticate = true; req.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("rstrahl", "secret", "rasnote"); req.AuthenticationLevel = System.Net.Security.AuthenticationLevel.MutualAuthRequested; req.UserAgent = ": Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.3) Gecko/20090824 Firefox/3.5.3 (.NET CLR 4.0.20506)"; resp = req.GetResponse(); which results in the desired sequence: where only the first request doesn’t send credentials. This is quite useful as it saves quite a few round trips to the server – bascially it saves one auth request request for every authenticated request you make. In most scenarios I think you’d want to send these credentials this way but one downside to this is that there’s no way to log out the client. Since the client always sends the credentials once authenticated only an explicit operation ON THE SERVER can undo the credentials by forcing another login explicitly (ie. re-challenging with a forced 401 request). Forcing Basic Authentication Credentials on the first Request On a few occasions I’ve needed to send credentials on a first request – mainly to some oddball third party Web Services (why you’d want to use Basic Auth on a Web Service is beyond me – don’t ask but it’s not uncommon in my experience). This is true of certain services that are using Basic Authentication (especially some Apache based Web Services) and REQUIRE that the authentication is sent right from the first request. No challenge first. Ugly but there it is. Now the following works only with Basic Authentication because it’s pretty straight forward to create the Basic Authorization ‘token’ in code since it’s just an unencrypted encoding of the user name and password into base64. As you might guess this is totally unsecure and should only be used when using HTTPS/SSL connections (i’m not in this example so I can capture the Fiddler trace and my local machine doesn’t have a cert installed, but for production apps ALWAYS use SSL with basic auth). The idea is that you simply add the required Authorization header to the request on your own along with the authorization string that encodes the username and password: string url = "http://rasnote/wconnect/admin/wc.wc?_maintain~ShowStatus"; HttpWebRequest req = HttpWebRequest.Create(url) as HttpWebRequest; string user = "rick"; string pwd = "secret"; string domain = "www.west-wind.com"; string auth = "Basic " + Convert.ToBase64String(System.Text.Encoding.Default.GetBytes(user + ":" + pwd)); req.PreAuthenticate = true; req.AuthenticationLevel = System.Net.Security.AuthenticationLevel.MutualAuthRequested;req.Headers.Add("Authorization", auth); req.UserAgent = ": Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.3) Gecko/20090824 Firefox/3.5.3 (.NET CLR 4.0.20506)"; WebResponse resp = req.GetResponse(); resp.Close(); This works and causes the request to immediately send auth information to the server. However, this only works with Basic Auth because you can actually create the authentication credentials easily on the client because it’s essentially clear text. The same doesn’t work for Windows or Digest authentication since you can’t easily create the authentication token on the client and send it to the server. Another issue with this approach is that PreAuthenticate has no effect when you manually force the authentication. As far as Web Request is concerned it never sent the authentication information so it’s not actually caching the value any longer. If you run 3 requests in a row like this: string url = "http://rasnote/wconnect/admin/wc.wc?_maintain~ShowStatus"; HttpWebRequest req = HttpWebRequest.Create(url) as HttpWebRequest; string user = "ricks"; string pwd = "secret"; string domain = "www.west-wind.com"; string auth = "Basic " + Convert.ToBase64String(System.Text.Encoding.Default.GetBytes(user + ":" + pwd)); req.PreAuthenticate = true; req.Headers.Add("Authorization", auth); req.UserAgent = ": Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.3) Gecko/20090824 Firefox/3.5.3 (.NET CLR 4.0.20506)"; WebResponse resp = req.GetResponse(); resp.Close(); req = HttpWebRequest.Create(url) as HttpWebRequest; req.PreAuthenticate = true; req.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(user, pwd, domain); req.UserAgent = ": Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.3) Gecko/20090824 Firefox/3.5.3 (.NET CLR 4.0.20506)"; resp = req.GetResponse(); resp.Close(); req = HttpWebRequest.Create(url) as HttpWebRequest; req.PreAuthenticate = true; req.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(user, pwd, domain); req.UserAgent = ": Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.3) Gecko/20090824 Firefox/3.5.3 (.NET CLR 4.0.20506)"; resp = req.GetResponse(); you’ll find the trace looking like this: where the first request (the one we explicitly add the header to) authenticates, the second challenges, and any subsequent ones then use the PreAuthenticate credential caching. In effect you’ll end up with one extra 401 request in this scenario, which is still better than 401 challenges on each request. Getting Access to WebRequest in Classic .NET Web Service Clients If you’re running a classic .NET Web Service client (non-WCF) one issue with the above is how do you get access to the WebRequest to actually add the custom headers to do the custom Authentication described above? One easy way is to implement a partial class that allows you add headers with something like this: public partial class TaxService { protected NameValueCollection Headers = new NameValueCollection(); public void AddHttpHeader(string key, string value) { this.Headers.Add(key,value); } public void ClearHttpHeaders() { this.Headers.Clear(); } protected override WebRequest GetWebRequest(Uri uri) { HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest) base.GetWebRequest(uri); request.Headers.Add(this.Headers); return request; } } where TaxService is the name of the .NET generated proxy class. In code you can then call AddHttpHeader() anywhere to add additional headers which are sent as part of the GetWebRequest override. Nice and simple once you know where to hook it. For WCF there’s a bit more work involved by creating a message extension as described here: http://weblogs.asp.net/avnerk/archive/2006/04/26/Adding-custom-headers-to-every-WCF-call-_2D00_-a-solution.aspx. FWIW, I think that HTTP header manipulation should be readily available on any HTTP based Web Service client DIRECTLY without having to subclass or implement a special interface hook. But alas a little extra work is required in .NET to make this happen Not a Common Problem, but when it happens… This has been one of those issues that is really rare, but it’s bitten me on several occasions when dealing with oddball Web services – a couple of times in my own work interacting with various Web Services and a few times on customer projects that required interaction with credentials-first services. Since the servers determine the protocol, we don’t have a choice but to follow the protocol. Lovely following standards that implementers decide to ignore, isn’t it? :-}© Rick Strahl, West Wind Technologies, 2005-2010Posted in .NET  CSharp  Web Services  

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