Search Results

Search found 5734 results on 230 pages for 'forward declarations'.

Page 113/230 | < Previous Page | 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120  | Next Page >

  • Importing a C DLL's functions into a C++ program

    - by bobobobo
    I have a 3rd party library that's written in C. It exports all of its functions to a DLL. I have the .h file, and I'm trying to load the DLL from my C++ program. The first thing I tried was surrounding the parts where I #include the 3rd party lib in #ifdef __cplusplus extern "C" { #endif and, at the end #ifdef __cplusplus } // extern "C" #endif But the problem there was, all of the DLL file function linkage looked like this in their header files: a_function = (void *)GetProcAddress(dll, "a_function"); While really a_function had type int (*a_function) (int *). Apparently MSVC++ compiler doesn't like this, while MSVC compiler does not seem to mind. So I went through (brutal torture) and fixed them all to the pattern typedef int (*_a_function) (int *); _a_function a_function ; Then, to link it to the DLL code, in main(): a_function = (_a_function)GetProcAddress(dll, "a_function"); This SEEMS to make the compiler MUCH, MUCH happier, but it STILL complains with this final set of 143 errors, each saying for each of the DLL link attempts: error LNK2005: _a_function already defined in main.obj main.obj Multiple symbol definition errors.. sounds like a job for extern! SO I went and made ALL the function pointer declarations as follows: function_pointers.h typedef int (*_a_function) (int *); extern _a_function a_function ; And in a cpp file: function_pointers.cpp #include "function_pointers.h" _a_function a_function ; ALL fine and dandy.. except for linker errors now of the form: error LNK2001: unresolved external symbol _a_function main.obj Main.cpp includes "function_pointers.h", so it should know where to find each of the functions.. I am bamboozled. Does any one have any pointers to get me functional? (Pardon the pun..)

    Read the article

  • Configure firewalld for OpenVPN (server-bridge) in Fedora 20

    - by rsc1975
    I've installed an OpenVPN server (server-bridge) on Fedora 20, but I cannot get it to work. I'm almost sure that It's a firewall issue. I'm trying to connect from an OSX client, but I can connect (just connect to VPN server, without access to anything) before the bridge is configured in server, however once I configure the bridge interface (using this script), then I cannot connect anymore. I've configured it as server-bridge, following these HOW-TOs from Fedora and OpenVPN Ethernet-Bridge. The firewall config is explained using iptables: iptables -A INPUT -i tap0 -j ACCEPT iptables -A INPUT -i br0 -j ACCEPT iptables -A FORWARD -i br0 -j ACCEPT However, in Fedora 20, by default, It's installed firewalld, so, Can anyone tell me the equivalent commands using firewall-cmd ? I read the firewalld guide, but It's not clear to me how to achieve it (I'm a developer, no SysAdmin). I know that I can install iptables, but I want it to work with firewalld.

    Read the article

  • Making application listen to port

    - by dplanet
    I am running an Ubuntu guest machine through my Windows 7 host machine (with Virtualbox), and on the Ubuntu system running an application that uses port 6969. Through configuring the Virtualbox port forwarding settings I have made it possible that I can go to 127.0.0.1:6969 in my browser and see the application's default page. However, I'm wondering how I can port forward from my Windows 7 machine to the whole network. My local network (IPv4) address is 192.168.0.5. I want to be able to go to 192.168.0.5:6969 from any computer on the network and see the application. I've searched Google but can only seem to find solutions in Linux, not Windows. How can I do this?

    Read the article

  • How to construct objects based on XML code?

    - by the_drow
    I have XML files that are representation of a portion of HTML code. Those XML files also have widget declarations. Example XML file: <message id="msg"> <p> <Widget name="foo" type="SomeComplexWidget" attribute="value"> inner text here, sets another attribute or inserts another widget to the tree if needed... </Widget> </p> </message> I have a main Widget class that all of my widgets inherit from. The question is how would I create it? Here are my options: Create a compile time tool that will parse the XML file and create the necessary code to bind the widgets to the needed objects. Advantages: No extra run-time overhead induced to the system. It's easy to bind setters. Disadvantages: Adds another step to the build chain. Hard to maintain as every widget in the system should be added to the parser. Use of macros to bind the widgets. Complex code Find a method to register all widgets into a factory automatically. Advantages: All of the binding is done completely automatically. Easier to maintain then option 1 as every new widget will only need to call a WidgetFactory method that registers it. Disadvantages: No idea how to bind setters without introducing a maintainability nightmare. Adds memory and run-time overhead. Complex code What do you think is better? Can you guys suggest a better solution?

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to host a website with Apache HTTP through a ZyXEL EQ-660R modem and a Netgear WGT624v3 wireless router?

    - by Vortico
    Essentially, I have a spare desktop computer I'd like to turn into a web server, but my modem and wireless router are very difficult to work with. I installed Apache HTTP and successfully hosted a test page which can be accessed anywhere on the LAN. However, I'm having trouble setting up the server to be accessed from my external IP address. I was supplied with a ZyXEL EQ-660R DSL modem by my ISP (CenturyLink) and bought a Netgear WGT624v3 wireless router in which to connect my laptop and spare desktop. ZyXEL's website is no help, and I don't think much of the problem is with the Netgear router. I've played with many settings and have tried to forward port 80 from the modem, but I've had no luck. Could someone direct me toward a solution or recommendations for more promising hardware? Or should I admit defeat and explore other hobbies? :)

    Read the article

  • How do I change the domain name of my AD DS? [closed]

    - by Gaate
    I recently set up a server with AD DC and used a mydomain.local address for it. I now would like to be able to access the server through remote desktop from outside my local network. So I have purchased a domain name that I have set up with my router for DDNS and forwarded to the IP of my server. I was wondering a few things. A) Is there a way I can forward the DDNS to point to my current AD DC x.local address so I wouldn't have to change the domain to log in from outside of local network? B) If there is not a way to do what I mentioned above, what is the easiest way to change the Domain Name (mydomain.local) in my AD DC? Should I completely remove it or is there a way to change it? I am using windows server 2012.

    Read the article

  • Route SOAP request through external server

    - by sanbornm
    I need to integrate with a SOAP Web Service that requires that the requests come from a whitelisted IP address. As I often do development from all over the place it is quite annoying to ask for a new whitelisted IP each time. I have a remote server that is whitelisted. How can I route my SOAP request (I can change the endpoint in the WSDL) to my remote machine and have that forwarded to the Web Service? My remote server is used for other things so it needs to only forward a specific port, not all traffic. Oh, and the Web Service expects SSL.

    Read the article

  • Is there any well-known paradigm for iterating enum values?

    - by SadSido
    I have some C++ code, in which the following enum is declared: enum Some { Some_Alpha = 0, Some_Beta, Some_Gamma, Some_Total }; int array[Some_Total]; The values of Alpha, Beta and Gamma are sequential, and I gladly use the following cycle to iterate through them: for ( int someNo = (int)Some_Alpha; someNo < (int)Some_Total; ++someNo ) {} This cycle is ok, until I decide to change the order of the declarations in the enum, say, making Beta the first value and Alpha - the second one. That invalidates the cycle header, because now I have to iterate from Beta to Total. So, what are the best practices of iterating through enum? I want to iterate through all the values without changing the cycle headers every time. I can think of one solution: enum Some { Some_Start = -1, Some_Alpha, ... Some_Total }; int array[Some_Total]; and iterate from (Start + 1) to Total, but it seems ugly and I have never seen someone doing it in the code. Is there any well-known paradigm for iterating through the enum, or I just have to fix the order of the enum values? (let's pretend, I really have some awesome reasons for changing the order of the enum values)...

    Read the article

  • Iptable Rule to redirect all traffic requesting a specific domain

    - by user548971
    I'm on a simple linux proxy. I'd like to add iptable rules to drop all requests for a specific domain. I figured I run a dig command to get the ip addresses for the domain and then add an iptable rule for each one. It seems, however, that it doesn't work to bind to more than one ip address. So, it seems I need to add ip ranges like this... iptables -I FORWARD -p tcp -m iprange --dst-range 66.220.144.0-66.220.159.255 --dport 443 -j DROP That seems to work. However, it has proven pretty problematic to parse the output of dig and correctly create the appropriate iptable rules. Is there a better way? Thanks! EV

    Read the article

  • Preventing an Apache 2 Server from Logging Sensitive Data

    - by jstr
    Apache 2 by default logs the entire request URI including query string of every request. What is a straight forward way to prevent an Apache 2 web server from logging sensitive data, for example passwords, credit card numbers, etc., but still log the rest of the request? I would like to log all log-in attempts including the attempted username as Apache does by default, and prevent Apache from logging the password directly. I have looked through the Apache 2 documentation and there doesn't appear to be an easy way to do this other than completely preventing logging of these requests (using SetEnvIf). How can I accomplish this?

    Read the article

  • Does IE6 Really not Allow Me to set width/height from left/right/top/bottom???

    - by viatropos
    Building a site super quick and having it work on all my Mac browsers, I thought I'd take a gander on a friends old dell laptop with Windows XP and IE6. Nothing looks remotely correct. It's because I used lots of left/right/top/bottom (constraint) declarations to size elements proportionally to their parent's size (I didn't use percent sizes because the percents refer to the parent's size before margins and padding are applied, left/right/top/bottom refer to them after with position:absolute. I'm asking about that here :)). I've read lots these past few weeks on how horrible IE6 (and IE) is in general, but because of all the reasons people say to support it (large market share and the fear of installing better software), and because half the people in the company we're building a site for use IE6 (getting them to upgrade to Chrome slowly but surely), I thought if I could just get IE6 to render my constraints, that might help. So I am messing around with simple layouts here, and they work fine in my latest versions of Firefox, Safari, Chrome, and Opera, but IE6 is basically saying: If you haven't set a width or height on me, I'm assuming it's zero. But position:absolute; left:0px; right:0px; top:0px; bottom:0px; on a container that's width:1000px; height:1000px; should be the same as setting width:1000px; height:1000px on the child, no? Taking a quick look at the source for this, why won't IE6 render the constraint based absolutely positioned AND SIZED elements? (note: I will be messing around with that file for a while) Thanks

    Read the article

  • My raspberry pi server hostname doesn't work?

    - by xSpartanCx
    The people over on the rPi forums don't have any answers for me... I've got a raspberry pi running raspbian server edition. My problem is that the only way I can ssh into it with putty is through the static ip. My router doesn't recognize the hostname; it shows the mac address as the name. This causes the pi not to show my apache2 website online (I think). The only way I've gotten it to work is using my other linux server to forward using virtual hosts, and that has to use the ip address, too. However, now that I have my other server off, the website doesn't work.

    Read the article

  • Hosting website when port 80 is taken?

    - by cinqoTimo
    A few months ago, we purchased an R-HUB unit to replace WebEx for remote support. The device operates through port 80, ehich doesn't appear to be configurable. I know in IIS, you can specify a port besides port 80, but the problem is in the port forwarding. On our router, we have to map an incoming port to the forward port which then directs traffic to the node (webserver). However, the incoming port for both the webserver and the R-HUB is 80 - and the server seems to be getting confused as I can only get to the R-HUB, not the website. How can I expose both devices? Host header headers? DNS config?

    Read the article

  • HTML5 Drag and Drop styles not displaying on Windows Server 2003

    - by NoR
    I'm working on a file upload utility based on Valum's Ajax-Uploader. The idea is similar to the Gmail attachment process. The user should be able to drag a file from the desktop into the browser window and onto the file upload area to get it to upload. This works fine in the browsers that support this functionality (Firefox 3.6+, Chrome 7+). The problem I'm running into are the styles that should be re-drawn when the user: Drags the file anywhere in the browser Drags the file into the upload area I have tested in the exact same browser versions on WinXP, Vista, and Win7. The appropriate styles are redrawn. However, in Windows Server 2003, they do not. In Win2003, when I inspect the div that should be redrawn via Firebug, the "drop-area" and "drop-area-active" classes are applied correctly. Firebug even shows the correct style declarations, but the changes are never visible. The only difference between FF and Chrome that I'm able to spot is that in Chrome, the "drop-area-active" style is displayed for a split second when the user drops the file. I'm not positive that it is a Windows2003 issue, but that's the only OS in which I'm able to recreate the bug.

    Read the article

  • How to redirect a specific url through a proxy for multiple services?

    - by CrystalFire
    I have a website hosted on 000webhost.com for free. I am unable to connect directly to the site because Comcast has blocked a portion of 000webhost's servers for free accounts due to other people hosting malicious content. In order to maintain my website, I cannot use my computer to directly connect to the server. I am wondering if there is a way by which I can specifically forward attempts to access the server through a proxy, transparently. The current system that I am on is Windows, but I also have systems running Mac OSX and Linux, so solutions for any system could be fine. I've found answers which work for http, but I'm looking for a solution which will let me use all the other functions as well, such as ftp and ssh.

    Read the article

  • What are the minimal iptables rules to surf the internet?

    - by alexx0186
    I am trying to set minimal rules to my Linux iptables rules file to just be able to surf the internet. Here what I did: * filter -A OUTPUT -p tcp --dport 80 -j ACCEPT -A OUTPUT -p tcp --dport 443 -j ACCEPT -A OUTPUT -p udp --dport 53 -j ACCEPT COMMIT With just those rules, I can't surf the web. I noticed that when I put -A INPUT -j ACCEPT, it works but I don't understand why. So what Input/output port do I need to surf the internet? Thanks a lot. Regards EDIT: It still doesn't work and my rules as as follows: # generated by iptables-save filter :INPUT DROP [10:648] :FORWARD DROP [0:0] :OUTPUT ACCEPT [10:648] -A INPUT -m state --state RELATED,ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPTED COMMIT

    Read the article

  • Name lookup for names not dependent on template parameter in VC++2008 Express. Is it a bug?

    - by Maciej H
    While experimenting a bit with C++ templates I managed to produce this simple code, for which the output is different, than I expected according to my understanding of C++ rules. void bar(double d) { std::cout << "bar(double) function called" << std::endl; } template <typename T> void foo(T t) { bar(3); } void bar(int i) { std::cout << "bar(int) function called" << std::endl; } int main() { foo(3); return 0; } When I compile this code is VC++2008 Express function bar(int) gets called. That would be the behaviour I would expect if bar(3);in the template body was dependent on the template parameter. But it's not. The rule I found here says "The C++ standard prescribes that all names that are not dependent on template parameters are bound to their present definitions when parsing a template function or class". Am I wrong, that "present definition" of bar when parsing the template function foo is the definition of void bar(double d);? Why it's not the case if I am wrong. There are no forward declarations of bar in this compilation unit.

    Read the article

  • Common block usage in Fortran

    - by Crystal
    I'm new to Fortran and just doing some simple things for work. And as a new programmer in general, not sure exactly how this works, so excuse me if my explanation or notation is not the best. At the top of the .F file there are common declarations. The person explaining it to me said think of it like a struct in C, and that they are global. Also in that same .F file, they have it declared with what type. So it's something like: COMMON SOMEVAR INTEGER*2 SOMEVAR And then when I actually see it being used in some other file, they declare local variables, (e.g. SOMEVAR_LOCAL) and depending on the condition, they set SOMEVAR_LOCAL = 1 or 0. Then there is another conditional later down the line that will say something like IF (SOMEVAR_LOCAL. eq. 1) SOMEVAR(PARAM) = 1; (Again I apologize if this is not proper Fortran, but I don't have access to the code right now). So it seems to me that there is a "struct" like variable called SOMEVAR that is of some length (2 bytes of data?), then there is a local variable that is used as a flag so that later down the line, the global struct SOMEVAR can be set to that value. But because there is (PARAM), it's like an array for that particular instance? Thanks. Sorry for my bad explanation, but hopefully you will understand what I am asking.

    Read the article

  • redirecting arbitrary tcp/udp in kvm

    - by jbfink
    I've got a server with KVM on it, and multiple guest VMs. I'd like a way to redirect traffic from the host server to the VMs. Like, say, forward all traffic on port 2222 on the host to 22 on a guest VM for ssh. This would have to be done either through virt-manager or libvirt XML config files -- I've found multiple references to doing it through qemu (like http://forums.fedoraforum.org/showthread.php?t=237969) but absolutely nothing that I can see related to either libvirt or virt-manager. Do you know how I can do this?

    Read the article

  • remoting to pc's already setup with pocketcloud

    - by KiloJKilo
    I use pocketcloud to remote desktop into my PCs on my home network. I would like to remote desktop with windows on my laptop via windows 7, but I'm not really sure how to, without breaking pocketcloud's connection. Does pocketcloud change my router's port forward to each machine as needed? Is there a way I can piggyback on the pocketcloud app? It appears to use 3389 but nothing is routed on that port in my router. Any ideas on how to accomplish this?

    Read the article

  • Forwarding audio like X in SSH

    - by Akilan
    While it is possible to use X applications remotely by using -X switch in ssh, the sound is being played in remote machine's speaker only. For example if I view a film in VLC/Totem only video is visible and I can't hear the audio. Is there a way to forward audio too? [without digging through Pulse-audio's setup, I mean; Like how ssh understands X forwarding by itself.] I have tried this only in Ubuntu (in various Ubuntu versions from 9.10 through 10.10), if that helps.

    Read the article

  • Search Replace extended in a html file

    - by Fake4d
    i have a little question. I have a big html file and want to replace lots of things inside a lot of times. The only problem i cant solve is a replace with a variable. Example: <image src="start_files\0002.jpg" style="width:216pt; height:162"> should be transformed in <a href="start_files\0002.jpg" target="_blank"><image src="start_files\0002.jpg" style="width:216pt; height:162"></a> do you have an idea how to do it? I have a windows system with Notepad2 and Notepad++ and i could install a new tool if needed. (like Windows SED). The best solution would be a batch solution where i can add other transformations. Hope you have got good ideas! Thanks forward, Fake4d

    Read the article

  • unable to ping machine on WLAN

    - by N.M.
    I've started accepting remote desktop connections on one of my machines. If i connect the machine to my router using an Ethernet cable i am able to ping it and connect to it remotely (using RDP). However, if i connect the machine using wireless network i am unable to ping it (or access it using RDP). Although i can live with connecting that machine using an Ethernet cable i just wanted to know the reason why it doesn't work using wireless. Is the router not able to forward packets to that host if its connected using wireless? If yes, any solutions?

    Read the article

  • Virtual IP, and Reverse Proxying Ports (Making up terms)

    - by macintosh264
    So here is the exact situation that I have I have 2 game servers in my house. One on port 25565, and the second on 25567. I have only one IP in my house I need to get a "virtual IP" for the second server. Some way of giving the computer that runs these game servers a second IP (linux) I need the Virtual IP to receive connections on 25565 and forward the data to 25567. Although if linux recognizes the second IP in networking I assume I can bind to the second IP on port 25565

    Read the article

  • Is there any trick to match two XML by one XSLT?

    - by brain_pusher
    Is there any trick to match two XML by one XSLT? I mean the way I can apply XSLT to a parameter passed. For example (I missed declarations to be short). XML1: XML to be transformed: <myData> <Collection> </Collection> </myData> XSLT need to be applied to the previous XML: <xsl:param name='items' /> <xsl:template match='Collection'> <!-- some transformation here --> </xsl:template> XML2: XML data passed as the parameter 'items': <newData> <Item>1</Item> <Item>2</Item> <Item>3</Item> </newData> And I need to create a set of nodes in the 'Collection' node in XML1 for each 'Item' element in XML2 using XSLT. And I do not know what XML2 contains exactly at design time. It is generated at runtime, so I can't place it inside XSLT, I know only its schema.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120  | Next Page >