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• GlassFish can't find persistence provider for EntityManager

  - by Xorty

  Hi, I am building Spring MVC project (2.5). It runs on GlassFish v3 server and I am using Hibernate for ORM mapping from Derby database. I am having trouble with deployment - GlassFish says : No Persistence provider for EntityManager named mvcspringPU. Here is how I create EntityManagerFactory : emf = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory("mvcspringPU"); And here is my configuration file persistence.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <persistence version="1.0" xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence/persistence_1_0.xsd"> <persistence-unit name="mvcspringPU" transaction-type="JTA"> <provider>org.hibernate.ejb.HibernatePersistence</provider> <jta-data-source>CarsDB</jta-data-source> <properties> <property name="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto" value="update"/> </properties> </persistence-unit> </persistence> I am building with NetBeans 6.8, so things like build paths should be alright (generated by IDE itself).

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• Problems with Merb on Snow Leopard

  - by hamhoagie

  I've recently started looking at Merb, for use with some small projects around the office. I'm trying to set up my first project following the docs, and am encountering an exception such as: foo:beta user$ merb Merb root at: /Users/user/code/merb/beta Loading init file from ./config/init.rb Loading ./config/environments/development.rb ~ Connecting to database... ~ Loaded slice 'MerbAuthSlicePassword' ... ~ Parent pid: 39794 ~ Compiling routes... ~ Activating slice 'MerbAuthSlicePassword' ... ~ ~ FATAL: Mongrel is not installed, but you are trying to use it. You need to either install mongrel or a different Ruby web server, like thin. I have installed Mongrel from gem as well as from MacPorts, and am confused by this exception. Significant stats: ruby 1.8.7 (2010-01-10 patchlevel 249) [i686-darwin10] From my installed gems: merb (1.1.0) merb-action-args (1.1.0) merb-assets (1.1.0) merb-auth (1.1.0) merb-auth-core (1.1.0) merb-auth-more (1.1.0) merb-auth-slice-password (1.1.0) merb-cache (1.1.0) merb-core (1.1.0) merb-exceptions (1.1.0) merb-gen (1.1.0) merb-haml (1.1.0) merb-helpers (1.1.0) merb-mailer (1.1.0) merb-param-protection (1.1.0) merb-slices (1.1.0) merb_datamapper (1.1.0) mongrel (1.1.5) Merb documentation is non-existent, so I find myself stuck. Thanks in advance.

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• multithreading in c#

  - by Lalit Dhake

  Hi, I have console application. In that i have some process that fetch the data from database through different layers ( business and Data access). stores the fetched data in respective objects. Like if data is fetched for student then this data will store (assigned ) to Student object. same for school. and them a delegate call the certain method that generates outputs as per requirement. This process will execute many times say 10 times. Ok? I want to run simultaneously this process. not one will start, it will finish and then second will start. I want after starting 1'st process, just 2'nd , 3rd....10'th must be start. Means it should be multithreading. how can i achieve this ? is that will give me error while connection with data base open and close ? I have tried this concept . but when thread 1'st is starting then data will fetched for thread 1 will stored in its respective (student , school) objects. ok? when simultaneous 2'nd thread starts , but the data is changing of 1'st object ,while control flowing in program. What have to do?

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• Best Practice, objects design ASP.NET MVC

  - by DoomStone

  Hello Stackoverflow I have a code design question that have been torbeling me for a while, you see I’m doing a refactoring of my website Cosplay Denmark, a site where cospalyers can upload images of them self in their costumes. The original site was done in php, Zend MVC, but my refactoring is being done in ASP.NET MVC 2. If you take the site http://www.cosplaydanmark.dk/Costumes/ (You can switch to English in the left column (Sprog)) Here you see a list of all the anime’s we have on the site with images, we show the name, how many different characters and how many images there are under this anime. http://www.cosplaydanmark.dk/Costumes/Bleach If you click on an anime will you get a list of characters within the given anime which we have images in, here do we show the character name, how many galleries and how many images. http://www.cosplaydanmark.dk/Costumes/Bleach/Ichigo_Kurosaki/ If you click on the character name, will you get a list of the galleries under the given character in the given anime. Here we have some information about the gallery, such as image count. http://www.cosplaydanmark.dk/Costumes/Bleach/Ichigo_Kurosaki/Admi/ Should you click the gallery do you get a list of the images in the gallery. My database look like this at the moment. As you can might imagine there are a lot of different query’s to create the site, on the first site I need to do a select on the on the “animes” table and for each result, I need to do a count select on characters and galleries. My plan to create this will be one of the following Where the IList, would be a lazy load list. But I can’t decide what would be the best solution for this would be, also if there is a better way of doing this. My priority is to have good performance with a minimum lose of features and code upkeep. I’m using a service pattern with a linq to sql repository. My design is not absolute, I’m willing to change it if it could increase performance :D I hope that I have describe my question good enough for you to understand what I mean, but ask away if there are anything I have missed.

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• Setting up a "cookieless domain" to improve site performance

  - by Django Reinhardt

  I was reading in Google's documentation about improving site speed. One of their recommendations is serving static content (images, css, js, etc.) from a "cookieless domain": Static content, such as images, JS and CSS files, don't need to be accompanied by cookies, as there is no user interaction with these resources. You can decrease request latency by serving static resources from a domain that doesn't serve cookies. Google then says that the best way to do this is to buy a new domain and set it to point to your current one: To reserve a cookieless domain for serving static content, register a new domain name and configure your DNS database with a CNAME record that points the new domain to your existing domain A record. Configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain. In your web pages, reference the domain name in the URLs for the static resources. This is pretty straight forward stuff, except for the bit where it says to "configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain". From what I've read, there's no setting in IIS that allows you to say "serve static resources", so how do I prevent ASP.NET from setting cookies on this new domain? At present, even if I'm just requesting a .jpg from the new domain, it sets a cookie on my browser, even though our application's cookies are set to our old domain. For example, ASP.NET sets an ".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookie that (as far as I'm aware) we're not telling it to do. Apologies if this is a real newb question, I'm new at this! Thanks.

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• SQL Server 2008 Running trigger after Insert, Update locks original table

  - by Polity

  Hi Folks, I have a serious performance problem. I have a database with (related to this problem), 2 tables. 1 Table contains strings with some global information. The second table contains the string stripped down to each individual word. So the string is like indexed in the second table, word by word. The validity of the data in the second table is of less important then the validity of the data in the first table. Since the first table can grow like towards 1*10^6 records and the second table having an average of like 10 words for 1 string can grow like 1*10^7 records, i use a nolock in order to read the second this leaves me free for inserting new records without locking it (Expect many reads on both tables). I have a script which keeps on adding and updating rows to the first table in a MERGE statement. On average, the data beeing merged are like 20 strings a time and the scripts runs like ones every 5 seconds. On the first table, i have a trigger which is beeing invoked on a Insert or Update, which takes the newly inserted or updated data and calls a stored procedure on it which makes sure the data is indexed in the second table. (This takes some significant time). The problem is that when having the trigger disbaled, Reading the first table happens in a few ms. However, when enabling the trigger and your in bad luck of trying to read the first table while this is beeing updated, Our webserver gives you a timeout after 10 seconds (which is way to long anyways). I can quess from this part that when running the trigger, the first table is kept (partially) in a lock untill the trigger is completed. What do you think, if i'm right, is there a easy way around this? Thanks in advance! Cheers, Koen

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• In NHIbernate, why does SaveOrUpdate() update the Version, but SaveOrUpdateCopy() doesn't?

  - by Daniel T.

  I have a versioned entity, and this is what happens when I use SaveOrUpdate() vs. SaveOrUpdateCopy(): // create new entity var entity = new Entity{ Id = Guid.Empty }); Console.WriteLine(entity.Version); // prints out 0 // save the new entity GetNewSession(); entity.SaveOrUpdate(); Console.WriteLine(entity.Version); // prints out 1 GetNewSession(); // loads the persistent entity into the session, so we have to use // SaveOrUpdateCopy() to merge the following transient entity var dbEntity = Database.GetAll<Entity>(); // new, transient entity used to update the persistent entity in the session var newEntity = new Entity{ Id = Guid.Empty }); newEntity.SaveOrUpdateCopy(); Console.WriteLine(entity.Version); // prints out 1, but should be 2 Why is the version number is not updated for SaveOrUpdateCopy()? As I understand it, the transient entity is merged with the persistent entity. The SQL calls confirm that the data is updated. At this point, shouldn't newEntity become persistent, and the version number incremented?

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• Error checking overkill?

  - by James

  What error checking do you do? What error checking is actually necessary? Do we really need to check if a file has saved successfully? Shouldn't it always work if it's tested and works ok from day one? I find myself error checking for every little thing, and most of the time if feels overkill. Things like checking to see if a file has been written to a file system successfully, checking to see if a database statement failed.......shouldn't these be things that either work or don't? How much error checking do you do? Are there elements of error checking that you leave out because you trust that it'll just work? I'm sure I remember reading somewhere something along the lines of "don't test for things that'll never really happen".....can't remember the source though. So should everything that could possibly fail be checked for failure? Or should we just trust those simpler operations? For example, if we can open a file, should we check to see if reading each line failed or not? Perhaps it depends on the context within the application or the application itself. It'd be interesting to hear what others do. Thanks, James.

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• Jquery .html() function returns html out of nested order

  - by forcripesake

  I have a method which returns a persisted html template from a database. The template is of the format: <div id="item_collection"> <div id="item_x"> <p id="item_x_headline"><h2>Some Headline</h2></p> <p id="item_x_excerpt>Some text here</p> </div> <div id="item_x+1"> <p id="item_x+1_headline"><h1>Some Headline</h1></p> <p id="item_x+1_excerpt>Some text here</p> </div> ...and so on. </div> However after I run the following: alert(data); //check that the template is in order. It Is. $('#template_area').html(data); the Html is now: <div id="item_collection"> <div id="item_x"> <p id="item_x_headline"></p> <!--Note The Lack of Nesting --> <h2>Some Headline</h2> <p id="item_x_excerpt>Some text here</p> </div> <div id="item_x+1"> <p id="item_x+1_headline"></p> <!--Note The Lack of Nesting --> <h1>Some Headline</h1> <p id="item_x+1_excerpt>Some text here</p> </div> ...and so on. </div> So what gives? Is there a better way to replace the empty template_area's content than the .html() method?

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• USE case to Class Diagram - How do I?

  - by 01010011

  Hi, I would like your guidance on how to create classes and their relationships (generalization, association, aggregation and composition) accurately from my USE case diagram (please see below). I am trying to create this class diagram so I can use it to create a simple online PHP application that allows the user to register an account, login and logout, and store, search and retrieve data from a MySQL database. Are my classes correct? Or should I create more classes? And if so, what classes are missing? What relationships should I use when connecting the register, login, logout, search_database and add_to_database to the users? I'm new to design patterns and UML class diagrams but from my understanding, the association relationship relates one object with another object; the aggregation relationship is a special kind of association that allows "a part" to belong to more than one "whole" (e.g. a credit card and its PIN - the PIN class can also be used in a debit card class); and a composition relationship is a special form of aggregation that allows each part to belong to only one whole at a time. I feel like I have left out some classes or something because I just can't seem to find the relationships from my understanding of relationships. Any assistance will be really appreciated. Thanks in advance. USE CASE DIAGRAM CLASS DIAGRAM

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• Static Data Structures on Embedded Devices (Android in particular)

  - by Mark

  I've started working on some Android applications and have a question regarding how people normally deal with situations where you have a static data set and have an application where that data is needed in memory as one of the standard java collections or as an array. In my current specific issue i have a spreadsheet with some pre-calculated data. It consists of ~100 rows and 3 columns. 1 Column is a string, 1 column is a float, 1 column is an integer. I need access to this data as an array in java. It seems like i could: 1) Encode in XML - This would be cpu intensive to decode in my experience. 2) build into SQLite database - seems like a lot of overhead for static access to data i only need array style access to in ram. 3) Build into binary blob and read in. (never done this in java, i miss void *) 4) Build a python script to take the CSV version of my data and spit out a java function that adds the values to my desired structure with hard coded values. 5) Store a string array via androids resource mechanism and compute the other 2 columns on application load. In my case the computation would require a lot of calls to Math.log, Math.pow and Math.floor which i'd rather not have to do for load time and battery usage reasons. I mostly work in low power embedded applications in C and as such #4 is what i'm used to doing in these situations. It just seems like it should be far easier to gain access to static data structures in java/android. Perhaps I'm just being too battery usage conscious and in my single case i imagine the answer is that it doesn't matter much, but if every application took that stance it could begin to matter. What approaches do people usually take in this situation? Anything I missed?

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• classpath error when executing a jar by ant

  - by changed

  Hi I am trying to execute a jar file created using ant. But i am not able to find out why libraries are not available while executing jar. I am trying to load derby embedded database driver but some how i am not getting derby.jar in classpath. Error that i am getting is [java] Unable to load the JDBC driver org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDriver [java] Please check your CLASSPATH. [java] java.lang.ClassNotFoundExcepApplication Started [java] tion: org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDriver [java] at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:200) a <path id="jar.classpath"> <fileset dir="${lib.dir}" includes="*.jar" /> </path> <path id="compiled-src.jar.classpath"> <path refid="jar.classpath" /> <pathelement location="${build.classes.dir}" /> </path> <target name="jar" depends="compile-src" description="Create Jar"> <mkdir dir="${dist.dir}" /> <manifestclasspath property="lib.list" jarfile="${dist.dir}/"> <classpath refid="jar.classpath" /> </manifestclasspath> <jar destfile="${dist.dir}/${ant.project.name}.jar" basedir="${build.classes.dir}" > <manifest> <attribute name="Main-Class" value="${main-class}" /> <attribute name="Class-Path" value="${lib.list}" /> </manifest> </jar> </target> <target name="run" depends="jar" description="Run application from jar"> <java jar="${dist.dir}/${ant.project.name}.jar" fork="true" /> </target>

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• Episerver Scheduled Job fails (scheduler service)

  - by Igor

  Our scheduled jobs started failing since yesterday with the following error message: CustomUpdate.Execute - System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Web.Security.Roles.GetRolesForUser(String username) at EPiServer.Security.PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal(String username) The scheduled job uses anonymous execution and logs in programmatically using the following call: if (PrincipalInfo.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name == string.Empty) { PrincipalInfo.CurrentPrincipal = PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal(ApplicationSettings.ScheduledJobUsername); } I have put in some more logging around PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal call which is in Episerver.Security and noticed that PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal calls System.Web.Security.Roles.GetRolesForUser(username) and Roles.GetRolesForUser(username) returns an empty string array. There were no changes code wise or on the server (updates, etc). I checked that the user name used to run the task is in the database and has roles associated with it. I checked that applicationname is set up correctly and is associated with the user If i run the job manually using the same user it executes with no issues (i know there is a difference between running the job manually and using the scheduler) I also tried creating a new user, that didn’t work either. Has anyone come across the same or similar issue? Any thoughts how to resolve this issue?

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• How do I manage application configuration in ASP.NET?

  - by GlennS

  I am having difficulty with managing configuration of an ASP.Net application to deploy for different clients. The sheer volume of different settings which need twiddling takes up large amounts of time, and the current configuration methods are too complicated to enable us to push this responsibility out to support partners. Any suggestions for better methods to handle this or good sources of information to research? How we do things at present: Various xml configuration files which are referenced in Web.Config, for example an AppSettings.xml. Configurations for specific sites are kept in duplicate configuration files. Text files containing lists of data specific to the site In some cases, manual one-off changes to the database C# configuration for Windsor IOC. The specific issues we are having: Different sites with different features enabled, different external services we have to talk to and different business rules. Different deployment types (live, test, training) Configuration keys change across versions (get added, remove), meaning we have to update all the duplicate files We still need to be able to alter keys while the application is running Our current thoughts on how we might approach this are: Move the configuration into dynamically compiled code (possibly Boo, Binsor or JavaScript) Have some form of diffing/merging configuration: combine a default config with a live/test/training config and a site-specific config

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• How do I pass a callback function to sqlite3_exec on iOS 5.1?

  - by John Doh

  I am new to both xcode/iOS/Objective-C and sqlite. I am trying to teach myself the basics - and I would like to use the sqlite3 wrapper "sqlite3_exec" for a select query. For some reason, I can't find a simple example anywhere of someone doing this. Basically, the method has a parameter (the third one) for a callback function: int sqlite3_exec( sqlite3*, /* An open database */ const char *sql, /* SQL to be evaluated */ int (*callback)(void*,int,char**,char**), /* Callback function */ void *, /* 1st argument to callback */ char **errmsg /* Error msg written here */ ); That's fine. I'm no stranger to callbacks. However, I just can't seem to get the syntax down right. I took over one of the view controllers in my iPad (iOS 5.1) xcode (4.3) project, and made the changes shown below: #import "SecondViewController.h" #import "sqlite3.h" #import "AppState.h" @interface SecondViewController () @end @implementation SecondViewController - (int)myCallback:(void *)a_parm argc:(int)argc argv:(char **)argv column:(char **)column { return 0; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; // Do any additional setup after loading the view, typically from a nib. //grab questionnaire names char *sql = "select * from QST2Main order by [Name]"; char *err = nil; sqlite3 *db = [[AppState sharedManager] getgCn]; sqlite3_exec(db, sql, myCallback, nil, &err); } Essentially, I want to run a query when this view first loads, to store some data for later use. But, XCode doesn't like the "myCallback" usage at the bottom there. It says: Undeclared Use of Identifier 'myCallback.' That method is declared in the header file, and I've even tried making it static. Nothing seems to make this error go away. I know I must be doing something fundamentally wrong here, but for the life of me I can't figure out what - I can't even find other code samples in this area that could help me figure out what I'm missing. Many thanks!

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• SqlBulkCopy causes Deadlock on SQL Server 2000.

  - by megatoast

  I have a customized data import executable in .NET 3.5 which the SqlBulkCopy to basically do faster inserts on large amounts of data. The app basically takes an input file, massages the data and bulk uploads it into a SQL Server 2000. It was written by a consultant who was building it with a SQL 2008 database environment. Would that env difference be causing this? SQL 2000 does have the bcp utility which is what BulkCopy is based on. So, When we ran this, it triggered a Deadlock error. Error details: Transaction (Process ID 58) was deadlocked on lock resources with another process and has been chosen as the deadlock victim. Rerun the transaction. I've tried numerous ways to try to resolve it. like temporarily setting the connection string variable MultipleActiveResultSets=true, which wasn't ideal, but it still gives a Deadlock error. I also made sure it wasn't a connection time out problem. here's the function. Any advice? /// <summary> /// Bulks the insert. /// </summary> public void BulkInsert(string destinationTableName, DataTable dataTable) { SqlBulkCopy bulkCopy; if (this.Transaction != null) { bulkCopy = new SqlBulkCopy ( this.Connection, SqlBulkCopyOptions.TableLock, this.Transaction ); } else { bulkCopy = new SqlBulkCopy ( this.Connection.ConnectionString, SqlBulkCopyOptions.TableLock | SqlBulkCopyOptions.UseInternalTransaction ); } bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("FeeScheduleID", "FeeScheduleID"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("ProcedureID", "ProcedureID"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("AltCode", "AltCode"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("AltDescription", "AltDescription"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("Fee", "Fee"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("Discount", "Discount"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("Comment", "Comment"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("Description", "Description"); bulkCopy.BatchSize = dataTable.Rows.Count; bulkCopy.DestinationTableName = destinationTableName; bulkCopy.WriteToServer(dataTable); bulkCopy = null; }

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• how to create wizard forms in ruby on rails

  - by Branden Silva

  I'm trying to understand the best options for pulling off a wizard form in ruby on rails. Ideally I'd like to have it so the application signup has a back and next button that allows the user to submit data in steps. So in step 1 they could fill out contact info. Once they are done they could click next and be on step 2 to fill out payment info, etc. If they make a mistake, they can click back and correct it. Some steps will be required, while others will not, but you do have to make it to the last step to submit the data to the database to sign up. They then need the ability to go back and fill out the past steps in the same fashion after completion. (example: perhaps if they clicked on a profile link they could recomplete the steps in the same fashion because they didn't want to complete all the steps right away. Maybe by being given a skip button before they completed the steps to sign up?). I also need validation to happen on what steps have been completed preventing them from moving onto the next step until corrected or completed. Option 1) I've noticed that ajax has been recommended as an option in other questions on stackoverflow. The only problem I have with it is that the user would not be able to sign up if javascript was disabled. Ideally I'd like to have it be native to ruby on rails but I'm willing to work with whatever is necessary to get it to work.

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• Spam proof hit counter in Django

  - by Jim Robert

  I already looked at the most popular Django hit counter solutions and none of them seem to solve the issue of spamming the refresh button. Do I really have to log the IP of every visitor to keep them from artificially boosting page view counts by spamming the refresh button (or writing a quick and dirty script to do it for them)? More information So right now you can inflate your view count with the following few lines of Python code. Which is so little that you don't even really need to write a script, you could just type it into an interactive session: from urllib import urlopen num_of_times_to_hit_page = 100 url_of_the_page = "http://example.com" for x in range(num_of_times_to_hit_page): urlopen(url_of_the_page) Solution I'll probably use To me, it's a pretty rough situation when you need to do a bunch of writes to the database on EVERY page view, but I guess it can't be helped. I'm going to implement IP logging due to several users artificially inflating their view count. It's not that they're bad people or even bad users. See the answer about solving the problem with caching... I'm going to pursue that route first. Will update with results. For what it's worth, it seems Stack Overflow is using cookies (I can't increment my own view count, but it increased when I visited the site in another browser.) I think that the benefit is just too much, and this sort of 'cheating' is just too easy right now. Thanks for the help everyone!

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• Is this a good approach to address double-base64-encoding?

  - by Freiheit

  My software understands attachments, like PNGs attached to user records. These attachments are usually sent in from outside sources as a Base64 encoded string. The database stores whatever data it is given, Base64 encoded or not. When I serve up the attachment for download I do this: if (Base64.isBase64(data)) { data = Base64.decodeBase64(data); } There is a potential for data that is double encoded. For instance the sender of a message had base64 encoded data, then encoded it again when building the message to send to me. I think the following code would address that circumstance: while (Base64.isBase64(data)) { data = Base64.decodeBase64(data); } So if data is encoded multiple times, it would be decoded until its in its 'raw' state and then served up for download. Is this approach an acceptable way to address that problem? Ideally some sort of checking could happen at the edge when I receive attachment data, but that will take more time. This looping seems to be a faster way to do it. The 'Base64' library is Apache Commons: http://commons.apache.org/codec/apidocs/org/apache/commons/codec/binary/Base64.html I trust it to properly identify Base64 encoded data.

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• SQL Compact allow only one WCF Client

  - by Andreas Hoffmann

  Hi, I write a little Chat Application. To save some infos like Username and Password I store the Data in an SQL-Compact 3.5 SP1 Database. Everything working fine, but If another (the same .exe on the same machine) Client want to access the Service. It came an EndpointNotFound exception, from the ServiceReference.Class.Open() at the Second Client. So i remove the CE Data Access Code and I get no Error (with an if (false)) Where is the Problem? I googled for this, but no one seems the same error I get :( SOLUTION I used the wrapper in http://csharponphone.blogspot.com/2007/01/keeping-sqlceconnection-open-and-thread.html for threat safty, and now it works :) Client Code: public test() { var newCompositeType = new Client.ServiceReference1.CompositeType(); newCompositeType.StringValue = "Hallo" + DateTime.Now.ToLongTimeString(); newCompositeType.Save = (Console.ReadKey().Key == ConsoleKey.J); ServiceReference1.Service1Client sc = new Client.ServiceReference1.Service1Client(); sc.Open(); Console.WriteLine("Save " + newCompositeType.StringValue); sc.GetDataUsingDataContract(newCompositeType); sc.Close(); } Server Code public CompositeType GetDataUsingDataContract(CompositeType composite) { if (composite.Save) { SqlCeConnection con = new SqlCeConnection(Properties.Settings.Default.Con); con.Open(); var com = con.CreateCommand(); com.CommandText = "SELECT * FROM TEST"; SqlCeResultSet result = com.ExecuteResultSet(ResultSetOptions.Scrollable | ResultSetOptions.Updatable); var rec = result.CreateRecord(); rec["TextField"] = composite.StringValue; result.Insert(rec); result.Close(); result.Dispose(); com.Dispose(); con.Close(); con.Dispose(); } return composite; }

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• select & print multiple value from dropdown list

  - by sandy

  hi , in this code how can selected multiple value from dropdown list <?php include ("connect.php"); $member_id = intval($_POST['sector_list']); if($member_id == 0) { // Default choice was selected } else { $res = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM members WHERE MemberID = $member_id LIMIT 1"); if(mysql_num_rows($res) == 0) { // Not a valid member } else { // The member is in the database } } ?> <form method="post" action=""> <input type="hidden" name="sector" value="sector_list"> <select name="sector_list" class="inputstandard" multiple="multiple"> <option value="0">send to</option> <?php $result = mysql_query('SELECT * from members') or die(mysql_error()); while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { echo '<option value="' . $row['MemberID'] . '">' . $row['MemberName']. '</option>'; } ?> </select> </form> assume the drop down list contain on (a,s,d,f,g,h,j,) users selects multiple value ( a,s,j) output = a,s,j not only j ???

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• Binding WPF ComboBox in XAML - Why is it Empty?

  - by mdiehl13

  I am trying to learn how to bind my simple database (.sdf) to a combobox. I created a dataset with my tables in it. I then dragged a table from the DataSource onto my control. There are no build warnings/errors, and when it runs, the ComboBox is empty. <UserControl x:Class="OurFamilyFinances.TabItems.TransactionTab" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignHeight="414" d:DesignWidth="578" xmlns:my="clr-namespace:OurFamilyFinances" Loaded="UserControl_Loaded_1"> <UserControl.Resources> <my:FinancesDataDataSet x:Key="financesDataDataSet" /> <CollectionViewSource x:Key="accountViewSource" Source="{Binding Path=Account, Source={StaticResource financesDataDataSet}}" /> </UserControl.Resources> <Grid> <ComboBox DisplayMemberPath="Name" Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource accountViewSource}}" Margin="3,141,0,0" Name="accountComboBox" SelectedValuePath="ID" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="120"> <ComboBox.ItemsPanel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <VirtualizingStackPanel /> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </ComboBox.ItemsPanel> </ComboBox> </Grid> The paths that is shows are correct, the selectedPath is "ID" and the displaypath is "Name". If I do this in Linq to Sql, the combo box does populate: this.accountComboBox.ItemsSource = from o in db.Account select new { o.ID, o.Name }; But I would like to learn how to do this in XAML. I have dragged datagrids from the DataSource as well, but they are not populated either. Any idea?

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• Data Transfer Objects VS Domain/ActiveRecord Entities in the View in RoR

  - by leypascua

  I'm coming from a .NET background, where it is a practice to not bind domain/entity models directly to the view in not-so-basic CRUD-ish applications where the view does not directly project entity fields as-is. I'm wondering what's the practice in RoR, where the default persistence mechanism is ActiveRecord. I would assert that presentation-related info should not be leaked to the entities, not sure though if this is how real RoR heads would do it. If DTOs/model per view is the approach, how will you do it in Rails? Your thoughts? EDIT: Some examples: - A view shows a list of invoices, with the number of unique items in one column. - A list of credit card accounts, where possibly fraudulent transactions were executed. For that, the UI needs to show this row in red. For both scenarios, The lists don't show all of the fields of the entities, just a few to show in the list (like invoice #, transaction date, name of the account, the amount of the transaction) For the invoice example, The invoice entity doesn't have a field "No. of line items" mapped on it. The database has not been denormalized for perf reasons and it will be computed during query time using aggregate functions. For the credit card accounts example, surely the card transaction entity doesn't have a "Show-in-red" or "IsFraudulent" invariant. Yes it may be a business rule, but for this example, that is a presentation concern, so I would like to keep it out of my domain model.

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• DB2Command ExecuteNonQuery Insert multiple rows problem

  - by DB2 Nubie

  I'm attempting to insert multiple rows into a DB2 database using C# code like this: string query = "INSERT INTO TESTDB2.RG_Table (V,E,L,N,Q,B,S,P) values" + "('lkjlkj', 'iouoiu', '2009-03-27 12:01:19', 'nnne', 'sdfdf', NULL, NULL, NULL)," + "('lkjlk2', 'iuoiu2', '2009-03-27 12:01:19', 'nnne2', 'sddf2', NULL, NULL, NULL)"; DB2Command cmd = new DB2Command(query, this.transactionConnection, this.transaction); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); If I stop building the query string after the first set of values is included it executes without an error. Attempting to load multiple values using this method results in the following error: Upload error : ERROR [42601] [IBM][DB2] SQL0104N An unexpected token "," was found following "". Expected tokens may include: "". SQLSTATE =42601 The SQL syntax matches that which I have read elsewhere, such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/452859/inserting-multiple-rows-in-a-single-sql-query and IBM's documentation gives this example: cmd = conn.CreateCommand(); cmd.Transaction = trans; cmd.CommandText = "INSERT INTO company_a VALUES(5275, 'Sanders', 20, 'Mgr', 15, 18357.50), " + "(5265, 'Pernal', 20, 'Sales', NULL, 18171.25), " + "(5791, 'O''Brien', 38, 'Sales', 9, 18006.00)"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); Can anyone explain what could account for this?

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• JavaScript To Clear Form Field On Submit Before Form Submission To Perl Script

  - by Russell C.

  We have a very long form that has a number of fields and 2 different submit buttons. When a user clicks the 1st submit button ("Photo Search") the form should POST and our script will do a search for matching photos based on what the user entered in the text input ("photo_search_text") next to the 1st submit button and reload the entire form with matching photos added to the form. Upon clicking the 2nd submit button ("Save Changes") at the end of the form, it should POST and our script should update the database with the information the user entered in the form. Unfortunately the layout of the form makes it impossible to separate it into 2 separate forms. I checked the entire form POST and unfortunately the submitted fields are identical to the perl script processing the form submission no matter which submit button is clicked so the perl script can't differentiate which action to perform based on which submit button is pushed. The only thing I can think of is to update the onclick action of the 2nd submit button so it clears the "photo_search_text" field before the form is submitted and then only perform a photo search if that fields has a value. Based on all this, my question is what does the JavaScript look that could clear out the "photo_search_text" field when someone clicks on the 2nd submit button? Here is what I've tried so far none of which has worked successfully: <input type="submit" name="submit" onclick="document.update-form.photo_search_text.value='';" value="Save Changes"> <input type="submit" name="submit" onsubmit="document.update-form.photo_search_text.value='';" value="Save Changes"> <input type="submit" name="submit" onclick="document.getElementById('photo_search_text')='';" value="Save Changes"> We also use JQuery on the site so if there is a way to do this with jQuery instead of plain JavaScript feel free to provide example code for that instead. Lastly, if there is another way to handle this that I'm not thinking of any and all suggestions would be welcome. Thanks in advance for your help!

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