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• How to make Spring load a JDBC Driver BEFORE initializing Hibernate's SessionFactory?

  - by Bill_BsB

  I'm developing a Spring(2.5.6)+Hibernate(3.2.6) web application to connect to a custom database. For that I have custom JDBC Driver and Hibernate Dialect. I know for sure that these custom classes work (hard coded stuff on my unit tests). The problem, I guess, is with the order on which things get loaded by Spring. Basically: Custom Database initializes Spring load beans from web.xml Spring loads ServletBeans(applicationContext.xml) Hibernate kicks in: shows version and all the properties correctly loaded. Hibernate's HbmBinder runs (maps all my classes) LocalSessionFactoryBean - Building new Hibernate SessionFactory DriverManagerConnectionProvider - using driver: MyCustomJDBCDriver at CustomDBURL I get a SQLException: No suitable driver found for CustomDBURL Hibernate loads the Custom Dialect My CustomJDBCDriver finally gets registered with DriverManager (log messages) SettingsFactory runs SchemaExport runs (hbm2ddl) I get a SQLException: No suitable driver found for CustomDBURL (again?!) Application get successfully deployed but there are no tables on my custom Database. Things that I tried so far: Different techniques for passing hibernate properties: embedded in the 'sessionFactory' bean, loaded from a hibernate.properties file. Nothing worked but I didn't try with hibernate.cfg.xml file neither with a dataSource bean yet. MyCustomJDBCDriver has a static initializer block that registers it self with the DriverManager. Tried different combinations of lazy initializing (lazy-init="true") of the Spring beans but nothing worked. My custom JDBC driver should be the first thing to be loaded - not sure if by Spring but...! Can anyone give me a solution for this or maybe a hint for what else I could try? I can provide more details (huge stack traces for instance) if that helps. Thanks in advance.

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• Is is possible to do an end-run around generics covariance in C# < 4 in this hypothetical situation?

  - by John Feminella

  Suppose I have a small inheritance hierarchy of Animals: public interface IAnimal { string Speak(); } public class Animal : IAnimal { public Animal() {} public string Speak() { return "[Animal] Growl!"; } } public class Ape : IAnimal { public string Speak() { return "[Ape] Rawrrrrrrr!"; } } public class Bat : IAnimal { public string Speak() { return "[Bat] Screeeeeee!"; } } Next, here's an interface offering a way to turn strings into IAnimals. public interface ITransmogrifier<T> where T : IAnimal { T Transmogrify(string s); } And finally, here's one strategy for doing that: public class Transmogrifier<T> : ITransmogrifier<T> where T : IAnimal, new() { public T Transmogrify(string s) { T t = default(T); if (typeof(T).Name == s) t = new T(); return t; } } Now, the question. Is it possible to replace the sections marked [1], [2], and [3] such that this program will compile and run correctly? If you can't do it without touching parts other than [1], [2], and [3], can you still get an IAnimal out of each instance of a Transmogrifier in a collection containing arbitrary implementations of an IAnimal? Can you even form such a collection to begin with? static void Main(string[] args) { var t = new Transmogrifier<Ape>(); Ape a = t.Transmogrify("Ape"); Console.WriteLine(a.Speak()); // Works! // But can we make an arbitrary collection of such animals? var list = new List<Transmogrifier< [1] >>() { // [2] }; // And how about we call Transmogrify() on each one? foreach (/* [3] */ transmogrifier in list) { IAnimal ia = transmogrifier.Transmogrify("Bat"); } } }

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• Is locking on the requested object a bad idea?

  - by Quick Joe Smith

  Most advice on thread safety involves some variation of the following pattern: public class Thing { private static readonly object padlock = new object(); private string stuff, andNonsense; public string Stuff { get { lock (Thing.padlock) { if (this.stuff == null) this.stuff = "Threadsafe!"; } return this.stuff; } } public string AndNonsense { get { lock (Thing.padlock) { if (this.andNonsense == null) this.andNonsense = "Also threadsafe!"; } return this.andNonsense; } } // Rest of class... } In cases where the get operations are expensive and unrelated, a single locking object is unsuitable because a call to Stuff would block all calls to AndNonsense, degrading performance. And rather than create a lock object for each call, wouldn't it be better to acquire the lock on the member itself (assuming it is not something that implements SyncRoot or somesuch for that purpose? For example: public string Stuff { get { lock (this.stuff) { // Pretend that this is a very expensive operation. if (this.stuff == null) this.stuff = "Still threadsafe and good?"; } return this.stuff; } } Strangely, I have never seen this approach recommended or warned against. Am I missing something obvious?

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• How to call a generic method with an anonymous type involving generics?

  - by Alex Black

  I've got this code that works: def testTypeSpecialization = { class Foo[T] def add[T](obj: Foo[T]): Foo[T] = obj def addInt[X <% Foo[Int]](obj: X): X = { add(obj) obj } val foo = addInt(new Foo[Int] { def someMethod: String = "Hello world" }) assert(true) } But, I'd like to write it like this: def testTypeSpecialization = { class Foo[T] def add[X, T <% Foo[X](obj: T): T = obj val foo = add(new Foo[Int] { def someMethod: String = "Hello world" }) assert(true) } This second one fails to compile: no implicit argument matching parameter type (Foo[Int]{ ... }) = Foo[Nothing] was found. Basically: I'd like to create a new anonymous class/instance on the fly (e.g. new Foo[Int] { ... } ), and pass it into an "add" method which will add it to a list, and then return it The key thing here is that the variable from "val foo = " I'd like its type to be the anonymous class, not Foo[Int], since it adds methods (someMethod in this example) Any ideas? I think the 2nd one fails because the type Int is being erased. I can apparently 'hint' the compiler like this: def testTypeSpecialization = { class Foo[T] def add[X, T <% Foo[X]](dummy: X, obj: T): T = obj val foo = add(2, new Foo[Int] { def someMethod: String = "Hello world" }) assert(true) }

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• How would I make this faster? Parsing Word/sorting by heading [on hold]

  - by Doof12

  Currently it takes about 3 minutes to run through a single 53 page word document. Hopefully you all have some advice about speeding up the process. Code: import win32com.client as win32 from glob import glob import io import re from collections import namedtuple from collections import defaultdict import pprint raw_files = glob('*.docx') word = win32.gencache.EnsureDispatch('Word.Application') word.Visible = False oFile = io.open("rawsort.txt", "w+", encoding = "utf-8")#text dump doccat= list() for f in raw_files: word.Documents.Open(f) doc = word.ActiveDocument #whichever document is active at the time doc.ConvertNumbersToText() print doc.Paragraphs.Count for x in xrange(1, doc.Paragraphs.Count+1):#for loop to print through paragraphs oText = doc.Paragraphs(x) if not oText.Range.Tables.Count >0 : results = re.match('(?P<number>(([1-3]*[A-D]*[0-9]*)(.[1-3]*[0-9])+))', oText.Range.Text) stylematch = re.match('Heading \d', oText.Style.NameLocal) if results!= None and oText.Style != None and stylematch != None: doccat.append((oText.Style.NameLocal, oText.Range.Text[:len(results.group('number'))],oText.Range.Text[len(results.group('number')):])) style = oText.Style.NameLocal else: if oText.Range.Font.Bold == True : doccat.append(style, oText) oFile.write(unicode(doccat)) oFile.close() The for Paragraph loop obviously takes the most amount of time. Is there some way of identifying and appending it without going through every Paragraph?

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• Best way to organize a Go interface

  - by Metropolis

  Hey Everyone, Its been a long time since I have programmed in C++, and if I remember correctly the best way to organize classes was to create your class in the .h file, and then your implementation in your .cpp file. Well I am trying to learn Go now and I was reading over the Go for C++ Programmers article when I came upon interfaces. The article explains that interfaces in Go essentially take the place of classes, and shows how to set them up pretty well. What I am trying to figure out though is how should I organize an interface into files? For instance, should the interface be in one file while the implementation is in another? myInterface.go type myInterface interface { get() int set(i int) } myImplementation.go type myType struct { i int } func (p *myType) set(i int) { p.i = i } func (p *myType) get() int { return p.i } My code here may be wrong since I do not completely know what I am doing yet (and if I am wrong please correct me), but would this be the best way to set this up? Im having a very hard time trying to wrap my head around how to organize code in Go so any help is appreciated! Metropolis

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• Add a value to an element in a list of sets

  - by Kapelson

  Hello. I'm using python, and I have a list of sets, constructed like this: list = [set([])]*n ...where n is the number of sets I want in the list. I want to add a value to a specific set in the list. Say, the second set. I tried list[1].add(value) But this instead adds the value to each set in the list. This behaviour is pretty non-intuitive to me. Through further tests, I think I've found the problem: the list apparently contains 10 instances of the same set, or ten pointers to the same set, or something. Constructing the list through repeated calls of list.append(set([])) allowed me to use the syntax above to add elements to single sets. So my question is this: what exactly is going on in my first list-construction technique? It is clear I don't understand the syntax so well. Also, is there a better way to intialize an n-element list? I've been using this syntax for a while and this is my first problem with it.

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• Robotlegs: Warning: Injector already has a rule for type

  - by MikeW

  I have a bunch of warning messages like this appear when using Robotlegs/Signals. Everytime this command class executes, which is every 2-3 seconds ..this message displays below If you have overwritten this mapping intentionally you can use "injector.unmap()" prior to your replacement mapping in order to avoid seeing this message. Warning: Injector already has a rule for type "mx.messaging.messages::IMessage", named "". The command functions fine otherwise but I think I'm doing something wrong anyhow. public class MessageReceivedCommand extends SignalCommand { [Inject] public var message:IMessage; ...etc.. do something with message.. } the application context doesnt map IMessage to this command, as I only see an option to mapSignalClass , besides the payload is received fine. Wonder if anyone knows how I might either fix or suppress this message. I've tried calling this as the warning suggests injector.unmap(IMessage, "") but I receive an error - no mapping found for ::IMessage named "". Thanks Edit: A bit more info about the error Here is the signal that I dispatch to the command public class GameMessageSignal extends Signal { public function GameMessageSignal() { super(IMessage); } } which is dispatched from a IPushDataService class gameMessage.dispatch(message.message); and the implementation is wired up in the app context via injector.mapClass(IPushDataService, PushDataService); along with the signal signalCommandMap.mapSignalClass(GameMessageSignal, MessageReceivedCommand); Edit #2: Probably good to point out also I inject an instance of GameMessageSignal into IPushDataService public class PushDataService extends BaseDataService implements IPushDataService { [Inject] public var gameMessage:GameMessageSignal; //then private function processMessage(message:MessageEvent):void { gameMessage.dispatch(message.message); } } Edit:3 The mappings i set up in the SignalContext: injector.mapSingleton(IPushDataService); injector.mapClass(IPushDataService, PushDataService);

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• How do I do a count on that meet a specific condition, dependent on several has_many relationships i

  - by Angela

  I have a Model Campaign. A Campaign has many Events. Each Event has an attribute :days. A Campaign also has_many Contacts. Each Contact as a :date_entered attribute. The from_today(contact,event) method returns a number, which is the number of days from the contact's :date_entered till today minus the event's :days. In other words, a positive number shows the number of days from today till the :days of the event is elapsed. If it is negative, if means that the number of days that has elapsed since the :date_entered is greater than the :days attribute of an event. In other words, the event is overdue. What I would like to be able to do is do campaign.overdue and this would result in a total number of contacts that have an overdue event. It shouldn't count multiple events for a single contact, just one contact. How do I do that? It seems like I would need to cycle through all the events for every contact and keep a counter but I'm assuming that there is a better way.

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• My app crash with MFMailComposeViewController and MFMessageComposeViewController when I re-launch it.

  - by Dolwen

  Hello all, I encounter a crash with MFMailComposeViewController, MFMessageComposeViewController and multitasking on IOS 4.2 (both simulator and IPHone 4). Code i use : Class emailClass = (NSClassFromString(@"MFMailComposeViewController")); if( emailClass != nil ) { MFMailComposeViewController * controller = [[emailClass alloc] init]; if([emailClass canSendMail]) { // delegate controller.mailComposeDelegate = self; // subject [controller setSubject:@"Hello All."]; // main message [controller setMessageBody:@"I love Stackoverflow.com !" isHTML:NO]; // adding image attachment // getting path for the image we have in the tutorial project NSString *path = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"image" ofType:@"png"]; // loading content of the image into NSData NSData *imageData = [NSData dataWithContentsOfFile:path]; // adding the attachment to he message [controller addAttachmentData:imageData mimeType:@"image/png" fileName:@"My Byook image"]; // setting different than the default transition for the modal view controller [controller setModalTransitionStyle:UIModalTransitionStyleCoverVertical]; // show [[CGameStateManager getCurrentGameState] presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; } [controller release]; } To close MFMailComposeViewController i use : [[CGameStateManager getCurrentGameState] dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:NO]; Then the app crash on the "dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:" and we can read in the debugger with NSZombieEnabled : * -[UIImage isKindOfClass:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0xb0b9f80 Anyone have an answer to solve my problem ? :) Thx

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• Why Is Apache Giving 403?

  - by ThinkCL

  I am getting 403 Errors from Apache when I send too many, 12, synchronous HTTP Posts via a desktop app I am building in XCode / Objective-C. The 12 POST requests are just a few kb each and go out instantly one after the other and the Apache Error Log shows... client denied by server configuration: /the-path/the-file.php Apache 2.0 PHP 5 and I have this same setup working fine on my local machine. The error is coming from a VPS with my host, which runs very fast and smooth and has plenty of resources. To debug I threw a sleep(1); function (stalls script execution by 1 second) into the php file and that fixed it. This makes me think that I am breaking some limit for too many requests for a single IP in a certain amount of time. I have googled and combed PHP ini and Apache configs, but I cannot find what that directive/setting might be. I should mention that the although it varies the first 4 or 5 POSTS usually work then it starts returning the 403 error intermittently after that. Just really acting like its bogging down. Any ideas?

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• What would be a better implementation of shared variable among subclass

  - by Churk

  So currently I have a spring unit testing application. And it requires me to get a session cookie from a foreign authentication source. Problem what that is, this authentication process is fairly expensive and time consuming, and I am trying to create a structure where I am authenticate once, by any subclass, and any subsequent subclass is created, it will reuse this session cookie without hitting the authentication process again. My problem right now is, the static cookie is null each time another subclass is created. And I been reading that using static as a global variable is a bad idea, but I couldn't think of another way to do this because of Spring framework setting things during run time and how I would set the cookie so that all other classes can use it. Another piece of information. The variable is being use, but is change able during run time. It is not a single user being signed in and used across the board. But more like a Sub1 would call login, and we have a cookie. Then multiple test will be using that login until SubX will come in and say, I am using different credential, so I need to login as something else. And repeats. Here is a outline of my code: public class Parent implements InitializingBean { protected static String BASE_URL; public static Cookie cookie; ... All default InitializingBean methods ... afterPropertiesSet() { cookie = // login process returns a cookie } } public class Sub1 extends Parent { @resource public String baseURL; @PostConstruct public void init() { // set parents with my baseURL; BASE_URL = baseURL; } public void doSomething() { // Do something with cookie, because it should have been set by parent class } } public class Sub2 extends Parent { @resource public String baseURL; @PostConstruct public void init() { // set parents with my baseURL; BASE_URL = baseURL; } public void doSomethingElse() { // Do something with cookie, because it should have been set by parent class } }

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• linux bash script: set date/time variable to auto-update (for inclusion in file names)

  - by user1859492

  Essentially, I have a standard format for file naming conventions. It breaks down to this: target_dateUTC_timeUTC_tool So, for instance, if I run tcpdump on a target of 'foo', then the file would be foo_dateUTC_timeUTC_tcpdump. Simple enough, but a pain for everyone to constantly (and consistently) enter... so I've tried to create a bash script which sets system variables like so: FILENAME=$TARGET\_$UTCTIME\_$TOOL Then, I can just call the variable at runtime, like so: tcpdump -w $FILENAME.lpc All of this works like a champ. I've got a menu-driven .sh which gives the user the options of viewing the current variables as well as setting them... file generation is a breeze. Unfortunately, by setting the date/time variable, it is locked to the value at the time of creation (naturally). I set the variable like so: UTCTIME=$(/bin/date --utc +"%Y%m%d_%H%M%Z") What I really need is either a way to create a variable which updates at runtime, or (more likely) another way to skin this cat. While scouring for solutions, I came across a similar issues... like this. But, to be honest, I'm stumped on how to marry the two approaches and create a simple, distributable solution. I can post the entire .sh if anyone cares to review (about 120 lines)

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• Blocking HTML and Javascript from being displayed on my site

  - by Tim Powell

  I am working on this new social networking site. One of it's various functions is posting. You can post to Facebook and my site, or Twitter and my site. That being said, I couldn't help but try and post HTML as I was testing sql injection. When I did, I noticed that there where ways to manipulate the site to, for instance, using a element to completely screw up the CSS design, or redirect a user to another site using javascript. That being said, I want to make my site a safe environment for my users... not a site that is used to distribute computer viruses, porn, and other things that might make someone tend to stay off of my site. When I searched this topic, I found ways to "strip" the HTML out of the $post variable before submitting it to the database. However, I would just like to make it so you can post any text, including HTML and Javascript, without the browser interpreting it as "run this..." code: I want to display it as plane text. I've seen it on Facebook, and when I looked at it the source code of a post, it showed <, /, and as regular text. I tried "dissecting" Facebook's source code, but found nothing. I have tried using tags such as <pre> and <code>, but because of the lack of ability to style and control them, I gave up and went back to just allowing HTML. Please, anyone who knows how to do this, please help me out. Thanks in advance, TP

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• Simulate stochastic bipartite network based on trait values of species - in R

  - by Scott Chamberlain

  I would like to create bipartite networks in R. For example, if you have a data.frame of two types of species (that can only interact across species, not within species), and each species has a trait value (e.g., size of mouth in the predator allows who gets to eat which prey species), how do we simulate a network based on the traits of the species (that is, two species can only interact if their traits overlap in values for instance)? UPDATE: Here is a minimal example of what I am trying to do. 1) create phylogenetic tree; 2) simulate traits on the phylogeny; 3) create networks based on species trait values. # packages install.packages(c("ape","phytools")) library(ape); library(phytools) # Make phylogenetic trees tree_predator <- rcoal(10) tree_prey <- rcoal(10) # Simulate traits on each tree trait_predator <- fastBM(tree_predator) trait_prey <- fastBM(tree_prey) # Create network of predator and prey ## This is the part I can't do yet. I want to create bipartite networks, where ## predator and prey interact based on certain crriteria. For example, predator ## species A and prey species B only interact if their body size ratio is ## greater than X.

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• Using an initializer_list on a map of vectors

  - by Hooked

  I've been trying to initialize a map of <ints, vector<ints> > using the new 0X standard, but I cannot seem to get the syntax correct. I'd like to make a map with a single entry with key:value = 1:<3,4 #include <initializer_list> #include <map> #include <vector> using namespace std; map<int, vector<int> > A = {1,{3,4}}; .... It dies with the following error using gcc 4.4.3: error: no matching function for call to std::map<int,std::vector<int,std::allocator<int> >,std::less<int>,std::allocator<std::pair<const int,std::vector<int,std::allocator<int> > > > >::map(<brace-enclosed initializer list>) Edit Following the suggestion by Cogwheel and adding the extra brace it now compiles with a warning that can be gotten rid of using the -fno-deduce-init-list flag. Is there any danger in doing so?

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• When using Direct3D, how much math is being done on the CPU?

  - by zirgen

  Context: I'm just starting out. I'm not even touching the Direct3D 11 API, and instead looking at understanding the pipeline, etc. From looking at documentation and information floating around the web, it seems like some calculations are being handled by the application. That, is, instead of simply presenting matrices to multiply to the GPU, the calculations are being done by a math library that operates on the CPU. I don't have any particular resources to point to, although I guess I can point to the XNA Math Library or the samples shipped in the February DX SDK. When you see code like mViewProj = mView * mProj;, that projection is being calculated on the CPU. Or am I wrong? If you were writing a program, where you can have 10 cubes on the screen, where you can move or rotate cubes, as well as viewpoint, what calculations would you do on the CPU? I think I would store the geometry for the a single cube, and then transform matrices representing the actual instances. And then it seems I would use the XNA math library, or another of my choosing, to transform each cube in model space. Then get the coordinates in world space. Then push the information to the GPU. That's quite a bit of calculation on the CPU. Am I wrong? Am I reaching conclusions based on too little information and understanding? What terms should I Google for, if the answer is STFW? Or if I am right, why aren't these calculations being pushed to the GPU as well?

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• SQL Server 2008 - Full Text Query

  - by user208662

  Hello, I have two tables in a SQL Server 2008 database in my company. The first table represents the products that my company sells. The second table contains the product manufacturer’s details. These tables are defined as follows: Product ------- ID Name ManufacturerID Description Manufacturer ------------ ID Name As you can imagine, I want to make this as easy as possible for our customers to query this data. However, I’m having problems writing a forgiving, yet powerful search query. For instance, I’m anticipating people to search based on phonetical spellings. Because of this, the data may not match the exact data in my database. In addition, I think some individuals will search by manufacturer’s name first, but I want the matching product names to appear first. Based on these requirements, I’m currently working on the following query: select p.Name as 'ProductName', m.Name as 'Manufacturer', r.Rank as 'Rank' from Product p inner join Manufacturer m on p.ManufacturerID=m.ID inner join CONTAINSTABLE(Product, Name, @searchQuery) as r Oddly, this query is throwing an error. However, I have no idea why. Squiggles appear to the right of the last parenthesis in management studio. The tool tip says "An expression of non-boolean type specified in a context where a condition is expected". I understand what this statement means. However, I guess I do not know how COntainsTable works. What am I doing wrong? Thank you

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• Best way to use Google's hosted jQuery, but fall back to my hosted library on Google fail

  - by Nosredna

  What would be a good way to attempt to load the hosted jQuery at Google (or other Google hosted libs), but load my copy of jQuery if the Google attempt fails? I'm not saying Google is flaky. There are cases where the Google copy is blocked (apparently in Iran, for instance). Would I set up a timer and check for the jQuery object? What would be the danger of both copies coming through? Not really looking for answers like "just use the Google one" or "just use your own." I understand those arguments. I also understand that the user is likely to have the Google version cached. I'm thinking about fallbacks for the cloud in general. Edit: This part added... Since Google suggests using google.load to load the ajax libraries, and it performs a callback when done, I'm wondering if that's the key to serializing this problem. I know it sounds a bit crazy. I'm just trying to figure out if it can be done in a reliable way or not. Update: jQuery now hosted on Microsoft's CDN. http://www.asp.net/ajax/cdn/

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• SELECT SQL Variable - should i avoid using this syntax and always use SET?

  - by Sholom

  Hi All, This may look like a duplicate to here, but it's not. I am trying to get a best practice, not a technical answer (which i already (think) i know). New to SQL Server and trying to form good habits. I found a great explanation of the functional differences between SET @var = and SELECT @var = here: http://vyaskn.tripod.com/differences_between_set_and_select.htm To summarize what each has that the other hasn't (see source for examples): SET: ANSI and portable, recommended by Microsoft. SET @var = (SELECT column_name FROM table_name) fails when the select returns more then one value, eliminating the possibility of unpredictable results. SET @var = (SELECT column_name FROM table_name) will set @var to NULL if that's what SELECT column_name FROM table_name returned, thus never leaving @var at it's prior value. SELECT: Multiple variables can be set in one statement Can return multiple system variables set by the prior DML statement SELECT @var = column_name FROM table_name would set @var to (according to my testing) the last value returned by the select. This could be a feature or a bug. Behavior can be changed with SELECT @j = (SELECT column_name FROM table_name) syntax. Speed. Setting multiple variables with a single SELECT statement as opposed to multiple SET/SELECT statements is much quicker. He has a sample test to prove his point. If you could design a test to prove the otherwise, bring it on! So, what do i do? (Almost) always use SET @var =, using SELECT @var = is messy coding and not standard. OR Use SELECT @var = freely, it could accomplish more for me, unless the code is likely to be ported to another environment. Thanks

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• Proper structure for dependency injection (using Guice)

  - by David B.

  I would like some suggestions and feedback on the best way to structure dependency injection for a system with the structure described below. I'm using Guice and thus would prefer solutions centered around it's annotation-based declarations, not XML-heavy Spring-style configuration. Consider a set of similar objects, Ball, Box, and Tube, each dependent on a Logger, supplied via the constructor. (This might not be important, but all four classes happen to be singletons --- of the application, not Gang-of-Four, variety.) A ToyChest class is responsible for creating and managing the three shape objects. ToyChest itself is not dependent on Logger, aside from creating the shape objects which are. The ToyChest class is instantiated as an application singleton in a Main class. I'm confused about the best way to construct the shapes in ToyChest. I either (1) need access to a Guice Injector instance already attached to a Module binding Logger to an implementation or (2) need to create a new Injector attached to the right Module. (1) is accomplished by adding an @Inject Injector injectorfield to ToyChest, but this feels weird because ToyChest doesn't actually have any direct dependencies --- only those of the children it instantiates. For (2), I'm not sure how to pass in the appropriate Module. Am I on the right track? Is there a better way to structure this? The answers to this question mention passing in a Provider instead of using the Injector directly, but I'm not sure how that is supposed to work. EDIT: Perhaps a more simple question is: when using Guice, where is the proper place to construct the shapes objects? ToyChest will do some configuration with them, but I suppose they could be constructed elsewhere. ToyChest (as the container managing them), and not Main, just seems to me like the appropriate place to construct them.

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• how can you have the same form handle by javascript multiple times on the same page?

  - by DeChamp

  I have a thumb gallery where I am using ajax/javascript to submit a form per image to report the image as broken seamlessly along with php. The form and script is templated so the script is in the header and then the form is printed multiple times on the same page with a hidden field with a different id for the value per thumb. So basically this is what i have. javascript in header just a quick idea of the forms i have. Just a quick idea not what I actually have. image1 followed by the form image2 followed by the form So when you hit the button it basically submits all of the forms at the same time. I am sure it can be fixed with a (this) or something like that so it only submits a single form at a time. Let me know please. $(function() { $(".submit").click(function() { var imgId = $("#imgId").val(); var dataString = 'imgId='+ imgId; if(imgId==''){ $('.success').fadeOut(200).hide(); $('.error').fadeIn(200).show(); $('.error').fadeOut(200).hide(); }else{ $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "inc/brokenImgReport.php", data: dataString, success: function(){ }); $('.error').fadeOut(200).hide(); $('.success').fadeIn(200).show(); setTimeout(function() { $('.success').fadeOut(200); }, 2000); } return false; }); });

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• What's the correct place to share application logic in CakePHP?

  - by Pichan

  I guess simple answer to the question would be a component. Although I agree, I feel weird having to write a component for something so specific. For example, let's say I have a table of users. When a user is created, it should form a chain reaction of events, initiating different kinds of data related to the user all around the database. I figured it would be best to avoid directly manipulating the database from different controllers and instead pack all that neatly in a method. However since some logic needs to be accesed separately, I really can't have the whole package in a single method. Instead I thought it would be logical to break it up to smaller pieces(like $userModelOrController->createNew() and $candyStorageModelOrController->createNew()) that only interact with their respective database table. Now, if the logic is put to the model, it works great until I need to use other models. Of course it's possible, but when compared to loading models in a controller, it's not that simple. It's like a Cake developer telling me "Sure, it's possible if you want to do it that way but that's not how I would do it". Then, if the logic is put to the controller, I can access other models really easy through $this->loadModel(), but that brings me back to the previously explained situation since I need to be able to continue the chain reaction indefinitely. Accessing other controllers from a controller is possible, but again there doesn't seem to be any direct way of doing so, so I'm guessing I'm still not doing it right. By using a component this problem could be solved easily, since components are available to every controller I want. But like I wrote at the beginning, it feels awkward to create a component specifically for this one task. To me, components seem more like packages of extra functionality(like the core components) and not something to share controller-specific logic. Since I'm new to this whole MVC thing, I could've completely misunderstood the concept. Once again, I would be thankful if someone pointed me to the right direction :)

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• transaction handling in dataset based insert/update in c#

  - by user3703611

  I am trying to insert bulk records in a sql server database table using dataset. But i am unable to do transaction handling. Please help me to apply transaction handling in below code. I am using adapter.UpdateCommand.Transaction = trans; but this line give me an error of Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Code: string ConnectionString = "server=localhost\\sqlexpress;database=WindowsApp;Integrated Security=SSPI;"; SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(ConnectionString); conn.Open(); SqlTransaction trans = conn.BeginTransaction(IsolationLevel.Serializable); SqlDataAdapter adapter = new SqlDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM Test ORDER BY Id", conn); SqlCommandBuilder builder = new SqlCommandBuilder(adapter); adapter.UpdateCommand.Transaction = trans; // Create a dataset object DataSet ds = new DataSet("TestSet"); adapter.Fill(ds, "Test"); // Create a data table object and add a new row DataTable TestTable = ds.Tables["Test"]; for (int i=1;i<=50;i++) { DataRow row = TestTable.NewRow(); row["Id"] = i; TestTable .Rows.Add(row); } // Update data adapter adapter.Update(ds, "Test"); trans.Commit(); conn.Close();

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• Apache POI rows number

  - by sys_debug

  I am using Apache POI java and want to get the total number of rows which are not empty. I successfully processed a whole row with all its columns. Now I am assuming that I get an excel sheet with multiple rows and not a single row...so how to go about that? I was thinking of getting total number of rows (int n) and then loop until i<=n but not sure. Suggestions are most welcome :) Note: Apache POI version is 3.8. I am not dealing with Xlsx format...only xls. Yes I tried this code but got 20 in return....which is not possible given I have only 5 rows FileInputStream fileInputStream = new FileInputStream("COD.xls"); HSSFWorkbook workbook = new HSSFWorkbook(fileInputStream); HSSFSheet worksheet = workbook.getSheet("COD"); HSSFRow row1 = worksheet.getRow(3); Iterator rows = worksheet.rowIterator(); int noOfRows = 0; while( rows.hasNext() ) { HSSFRow row = (HSSFRow) rows.next(); noOfRows++; } System.out.println("Number of Rows: " + noOfRows);

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