Search Results

Search found 3872 results on 155 pages for 'argument deduction'.

Page 120/155 | < Previous Page | 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127  | Next Page >

  • How do you unit test a method containing a LINQ expression?

    - by Phil.Wheeler
    I'm struggling to get my head around how to accommodate a mocked method that only accepts a Linq expression as its argument. Specifically, the repository I'm using has a First() method that looks like this: public T First(Expression<Func<T, bool>> expression) { return All().Where(expression).FirstOrDefault(); } The difficulty I'm encountering is with my MSpec tests, where I'm (probably incorrectly) trying to mock that call: public abstract class with_userprofile_repository { protected static Mock<IRepository<UserProfile>> repository; Establish context = () => { repository = new Mock<IRepository<UserProfile>>(); repository.Setup<UserProfile>(x => x.First(up => up.OpenID == @"http://testuser.myopenid.com")).Returns(GetDummyUser()); }; protected static UserProfile GetDummyUser() { UserProfile p = new UserProfile(); p.OpenID = @"http://testuser.myopenid.com"; p.FirstName = "Joe"; p.LastLogin = DateTime.Now.Date.AddDays(-7); p.LastName = "Bloggs"; p.Email = "[email protected]"; return p; } } I run into trouble because it's not enjoying the Linq expression: System.NotSupportedException: Expression up = (up.OpenID = "http://testuser.myopenid.com") is not supported. So how does one test these sorts of scenarios?

    Read the article

  • Disadvantage of OOP?

    - by Bragaadeesh
    Typically i dont want to know the specifics of the cons of OOPs, but it felt kind of weird when I had an argument at an interview I attended recently. The question that was posted to me was to tell me one disadvantage of OOP (Object Oriented Programming). At that time, I felt OOP to be the most matured level of programming after the procedural/functional models. So I replied to him that I dont see any negatives at all. But the interviewer said there are few and I asked him to list one if he does not mind. He gave an example that I cant digest well, he said that OOP pattern does not strictly implement inheritance rules and cited the satellite/rocket example where the body parts will disintegrate periodically to remove weight during rocket launch and said that inheritance does not support this. His example kind of felt very weird to me the reason being the application of inheritance to this example. Then I left the example aside and I had this doubt - Can we unplug class hierarchies in such a manner (I am kind of confident in Java its not possible) in an ideal Object Oriented Design?

    Read the article

  • Error CS0117: Namespace.A does not contain definition for Interface..

    - by SnOrfus
    I'm getting the error: 'Namespace.A' does not contain a definition for 'MyObjectInterface' and no extension method 'MyObjectInterface' accepting a first argument of type ... I've looked at this and this and neither seems to apply. The code looks like: public abstract class Base { public IObject MyObjectInterface { get; set; } } public class A : Base { /**/ } public class Implementation { public void Method() { Base obj = new A(); obj.MyObjectInterface = /* something */; // Error here } } IObject is defined in a separate assembly, but: IObject is in a separate assembly/namespace Base and A are in the same assembly/namespace each with correct using directives Implementation is in a third separate assembly namespace, also with correct using directives. Casting to A before trying to set MyObjectInterface doesn't work Specifically, I'm trying to set the value of MyObjectInterface to a mock object (though, I created a fake instead to no avail) I've tried everything I can think of. Please help before I lose more hair. edit I can't reproduce the error by creating a test app either, which is why I'm here and why I'm frustrated. @Reed Copsey: /* something */ is either an NUnit.DynamicMock(IMailer).MockInstance or a Fake object I created that inherits from IObject and just returns canned values. @Preet Sangha: I checked and no other assembly that is referenced has a definition for an IObject (specifically, it's called an IMailer). Thing is that intellisense picks up the Property, but when I compile, I get CS0117. I can even 'Go To Definition' in the implementation, and it takes me to where I defined it.

    Read the article

  • How to perform two-way data binding of controls in a user control inside a FormView

    - by Sandor Drieënhuizen
    I'm trying to perform two-way data binding on the controls in my user control, which is hosted inside a FormView template. FormView: <asp:ObjectDataSource runat="server" ID="ObjectDataSource" TypeName="WebApplication1.Data" SelectMethod="GetItem" UpdateMethod="UpdateItem"> </asp:ObjectDataSource> <asp:FormView runat="server" ID="FormView" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource"> <ItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> User control: <%@ Control Language="C#" ... %> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="TitleTextBox" Text='<%# Bind("Title") %>'> </asp:TextBox> The binding works fine when the FormView is in View mode but when I switch to Edit mode, upon calling UpdateItem on the FormView, the bindings are lost. I know this because the FormView tries to call an update method on the ObjectDataSource that does not have an argument called 'Title'. I tried to solve this by implementing IBindableTemplate to load the controls that are inside my user control, directly into the templates (just like I had entered them declaratively like in the code above). However, when calling UpdateItem in edit mode, the container that gets passed into the ExtractValues method of the template, does not contain the TextBox anymore. It did in view mode! I have found some questions on SO that relate to this problem but they are rather dated and they don't provide any answers that helped me solve this problem. How do you think I could solve this problem? It seems to be such a simple requirement but apparently it's more like opening a can of worms...

    Read the article

  • Using HttpClient with SSL and certificates

    - by ChrisCM
    While I've been familiar with HTTPS and the concept of SSL, I have recently begun some development and found I am a little confused. The requirement was that I write a small Java application that runs on a machine attached to a scanner. When a document is scanned this is picked up and the file (usually PDF) sent over the internet to our application server that will then process it. I've written the application using Apache Commons libraries and HTTPClient. The second requirement was to connect over SSL, requiring a certificate. Following guidance on the HTTPclient page I am using AuthSSLProtocolSocketFactory from the contributions page. The constructor can take a keystore, keystore password, truststore and truststore password. As an initial test our DBA enabled SSL on one of our development webservers and provided me with a .p12 file which when I imported into IE allows me to connect successfully. I am a bit confused between keystores and truststores and what steps I need to take using the keytool. I tried importing the p12 into a keystore file but get the error: keytool error: java.lang.Exception: Input not an X.509 certificate I followed a suggestion of importing the p12 into Internet Explorer and exporting as a .cer which I can then successfully import into a keystore. When I supply this as a keystore argument of the AuthSSLProtocolSocketFactory I get a meaningless errror, but if I try it as a truststore it seems like it reads it fine but ultimately I get Caused by: javax.net.ssl.SSLHandshakeException: Received fatal alert: bad_certificate I am unsure if I have missed some steps, I am misunderstanding SSL and mutual authentication altogether or this is mis-configuration on the server side. Can anyone provide suggestions or point me towards resources that might help me figure this out please?

    Read the article

  • I just don't get AudioFileReadPackets

    - by Eric Christensen
    I've tried to write the smallest chunk of code to narrow down a problem. It's now just a few lines and it doesn't work, which makes it pretty clear that I have a fundamental misunderstanding of how to use AudioFileReadPackets. I've read the docs and other examples online, and apparently I'm just not getting. Could you explain it to me? Here's what this block should do: I've previously opened a file. I want to read just one packet - the first one of the file - and then print it. But it crashes on the AudioFileReadPackets line: AudioFileID mAudioFile2; AudioFileOpenURL (audioFileURL, 0x01, 0, &mAudioFile2); UInt32 *audioData2 = (UInt32 *)malloc(sizeof(UInt32) * 1); AudioFileReadPackets(mAudioFile2, false, NULL, NULL, 0, (UInt32*)1, audioData2); NSLog(@"first packet:%i",audioData2[0]); (For clarity, I've stripped out all error handling.) It's the AFRP line that crashes out. (I understand that the third and fourth argument are useful, and in my "real" code, I use them, but they're not required, right? So NULL in this case should work, right?) So then what's going on? Any guidance would be much appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Perl OO frameworks and program design - Moose and Conway's inside-out objects (Class::Std)

    - by Emmel
    This is more of a use-case type of question... but also generic enough to be more broadly applicable: In short, I'm working on a module that's more or less a command-line wrapper; OO naturally. Without going into too many details (unless someone wants them), there isn't a crazy amount of complexity to the system, but it did feel natural to have three or four objects in this framework. Finally, it's an open source thing I'll put out there, rather than a module with a few developers in the same firm working on it. First I implemented the OO using Class::Std, because Perl Best Practices (Conway, 2005) made a good argument for why to use inside-out objects. Full control over what attributes get accessed and so on, proper encapsulation, etc. Also his design is surprisingly simple and clever. I liked it, but then noticed that no one really uses this; in fact it seems Conway himself doesn't really recommend this anymore? So I moved to everyone's favorite, Moose. It's easy to use, although way way overkill feature-wise for what I want to do. The big, major downside is: it's got a slew of module dependencies that force users of my module to download them all. A minor downside is it's got way more functionality than I really need. What are recommendations? Inconvenience fellow developers by forcing them to use a possibly-obsolete module, or force every user of the module to download Moose and all its dependencies? Is there a third option for a proper Perl OO framework that's popular but neither of these two?

    Read the article

  • Python: Class factory using user input as class names

    - by Sano98
    Hi everyone, I want to add class atttributes to a superclass dynamically. Furthermore, I want to create classes that inherit from this superclass dynamically, and the name of those subclasses should depend on user input. There is a superclass "Unit", to which I can add attributes at runtime. This already works. def add_attr (cls, name, value): setattr(cls, name, value) class Unit(object): pass class Archer(Unit): pass myArcher = Archer() add_attr(Unit, 'strength', 5) print "Strenght ofmyarcher: " + str(myArcher.strength) Archer.strength = 2 print "Strenght ofmyarcher: " + str(myArcher.strength) This leads to the desired output: Strenght ofmyarcher: 5 Strenght ofmyarcher: 2 But now I don't want to predefine the subclass Archer, but I'd rather let the user decide how to call this subclass. I've tried something like this: class Meta(type, subclassname): def __new__(cls, subclassname, bases, dct): return type.__new__(cls, subclassname, Unit, dct) factory = Meta() factory.__new__("Soldier") but no luck. I guess I haven't really understood what new does here. What I want as a result here is class Soldier(Unit): pass being created by the factory. And if I call the factory with the argument "Knight", I'd like a class Knight, subclass of Unit, to be created. Any ideas? Many thanks in advance! Bye -Sano

    Read the article

  • how to use anonymous generic delegate in C# 2.0

    - by matti
    Hi. I have a class called NTree: class NTree<T> { public NTree(T data) { this.data = data; children = new List<NTree<T>>(); _stopTraverse = false; } ... public void Traverse(NTree<T> node, TreeVisitor<T> visitor) { try { _stopTraverse = false; Traverse(node, visitor); } finally { _stopTraverse = false; } } private void TraverseInternal(NTree<T> node, TreeVisitor<T> visitor) { if (_stopTraverse) return; if (!visitor(node.data)) { _stopTraverse = true; } foreach (NTree<T> kid in node.children) Traverse(kid, visitor); } When I try to use Traverse with anonymous delegate I get: Argument '2': cannot convert from 'anonymous method' to 'NisConverter.TreeVisitor' The code: tTable srcTable = new tTable(); DataRow[] rows; rootTree.Traverse(rootTree, delegate(TableRows tr) { if (tr.TableName == srcTable.mappingname) { rows = tr.Rows; return false; } }); This however produces no errors: static bool TableFinder<TableRows>(TableRows tr) { return true; } ... rootTree.Traverse(rootTree, TableFinder); I have tried to put "arrowhead-parenthisis" and everything to anonymous delegate but it just does not work. Please help me! Thanks & BR -Matti

    Read the article

  • How to set focus to a brand new TextBox which was created as a result of a databinding in WPF?

    - by Mike
    Hi everyone, I have a WPF ItemsControl that is bound to an ObservableCollection. The XAML: <ItemsControl Name="mItemsControl"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBox Text="{Binding Mode=OneWay}"></TextBox> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> The codebehind: private ObservableCollection<string> mCollection = new ObservableCollection<string>(); public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); this.mCollection.Add("Test1"); this.mCollection.Add("Test2"); this.mItemsControl.ItemsSource = this.mCollection; } private void Button_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { this.mCollection.Add("new item!"); } When I click a button, it adds a new string to the databound ObservableCollection which triggers a new TextBox to appear. I want to give this new textbox focus. I've tried this technique from a related StackOverflow question but it always sets focus to the textbox before the newly created one. private void Button_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { this.mCollection.Add("new item!"); // MoveFocus takes a TraversalRequest as its argument. TraversalRequest request = new TraversalRequest(FocusNavigationDirection.Previous); // Gets the element with keyboard focus. UIElement elementWithFocus = Keyboard.FocusedElement as UIElement; // Change keyboard focus. if (elementWithFocus != null) { elementWithFocus.MoveFocus(request); } } My need seems simple enough, but it's almost like the new textbox doesn't really exist until a slight delay after something is added to the ObservableCollection. Any ideas of what would work? Thanks! -Mike

    Read the article

  • In-document schema declarations and lxml

    - by shylent
    As per the official documentation of lxml, if one wants to validate a xml document against a xml schema document, one has to construct the XMLSchema object (basically, parse the schema document) construct the XMLParser, passing the XMLSchema object as its schema argument parse the actual xml document (instance document) using the constructed parser There can be variations, but the essense is pretty much the same no matter how you do it, - the schema is specified 'externally' (as opposed to specifying it inside the actual xml document). If you follow this procedure, the validation occurs, sure enough, but if I understand it correctly, that completely ignores the whole idea of the schemaLocation and noNamespaceSchemaLocation attributes from xsi. This introduces a whole bunch of limitations, starting with the fact, that you have to deal with instance<-schema relation all by yourself (either store it externally or write some hack to retrieve the schema location from the root element of the instance document), you can not validate the document using multiple schemata (say, when each schema governs its own namespace) and so on. So the question is: maybe I am missing something completely trivial or doing it wrong? Or are my statements about lxml's limitations regarding schema validation true? To recap, I'd like to be able to: have the parser use the schema location declarations in the instance document at parse/validation time use multiple schemata to validate a xml document declare schema locations on non-root elements (not of extreme importance) Maybe I should look for a different library? Although, that'd be a real shame, - lxml is a de-facto xml processing library for python and is regarded by everyone as the best one in terms of performace/features/convenience (and rightfully so, to a certain extent)

    Read the article

  • Exclude string from wildcard in bash

    - by Peter O'Doherty
    Hi, I'm trying to adapt a bash script from "Sams' Teach Yourself Linux in 24 Hours" which is a safe delete command called rmv. The files are removed by calling rmv -d file1 file2 etc. In the original script a max of 4 files can by removed using the variables $1 $2 $3 $4. I want to extend this to an unlimited number of files by using a wildcard. So I do: for i in $* do mv $i $HOME/.trash done The files are deleted okay but the option -d of the command rmv -d is also treated as an argument and bash objects that it cannot be found. Is there a better way to do this? Thanks, Peter #!/bin/bash # rmv - a safe delete program # uses a trash directory under your home directory mkdir $HOME/.trash 2>/dev/null # four internal script variables are defined cmdlnopts=false delete=false empty=false list=false # uses getopts command to look at command line for any options while getopts "dehl" cmdlnopts; do case "$cmdlnopts" in d ) /bin/echo "deleting: \c" $2 $3 $4 $5 ; delete=true ;; e ) /bin/echo "emptying the trash..." ; empty=true ;; h ) /bin/echo "safe file delete v1.0" /bin/echo "rmv -d[elete] -e[mpty] -h[elp] -l[ist] file1-4" ;; l ) /bin/echo "your .trash directory contains:" ; list=true ;; esac done if [ $delete = true ] then for i in $* do mv $i $HOME/.trash done /bin/echo "rmv finished." fi if [ $empty = true ] then /bin/echo "empty the trash? \c" read answer case "$answer" in y) rm -i $HOME/.trash/* ;; n) /bin/echo "trashcan delete aborted." ;; esac fi if [ $list = true ] then ls -l $HOME/.trash fi

    Read the article

  • How do I pass a callback function to sqlite3_exec on iOS 5.1?

    - by John Doh
    I am new to both xcode/iOS/Objective-C and sqlite. I am trying to teach myself the basics - and I would like to use the sqlite3 wrapper "sqlite3_exec" for a select query. For some reason, I can't find a simple example anywhere of someone doing this. Basically, the method has a parameter (the third one) for a callback function: int sqlite3_exec( sqlite3*, /* An open database */ const char *sql, /* SQL to be evaluated */ int (*callback)(void*,int,char**,char**), /* Callback function */ void *, /* 1st argument to callback */ char **errmsg /* Error msg written here */ ); That's fine. I'm no stranger to callbacks. However, I just can't seem to get the syntax down right. I took over one of the view controllers in my iPad (iOS 5.1) xcode (4.3) project, and made the changes shown below: #import "SecondViewController.h" #import "sqlite3.h" #import "AppState.h" @interface SecondViewController () @end @implementation SecondViewController - (int)myCallback:(void *)a_parm argc:(int)argc argv:(char **)argv column:(char **)column { return 0; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; // Do any additional setup after loading the view, typically from a nib. //grab questionnaire names char *sql = "select * from QST2Main order by [Name]"; char *err = nil; sqlite3 *db = [[AppState sharedManager] getgCn]; sqlite3_exec(db, sql, myCallback, nil, &err); } Essentially, I want to run a query when this view first loads, to store some data for later use. But, XCode doesn't like the "myCallback" usage at the bottom there. It says: Undeclared Use of Identifier 'myCallback.' That method is declared in the header file, and I've even tried making it static. Nothing seems to make this error go away. I know I must be doing something fundamentally wrong here, but for the life of me I can't figure out what - I can't even find other code samples in this area that could help me figure out what I'm missing. Many thanks!

    Read the article

  • sed/awk or other: one-liner to increment a number by 1 keeping spacing characters

    - by WizardOfOdds
    EDIT: I don't know in advance at which "column" my digits are going to be and I'd like to have a one-liner. Apparently sed doesn't do arithmetic, so maybe a one-liner solution based on awk? I've got a string: (notice the spacing) eh oh 37 and I want it to become: eh oh 36 (so I want to keep the spacing) Using awk I don't find how to do it, so far I have: echo "eh oh 37" | awk '$3>=0&&$3<=99 {$3--} {print}' But this gives: eh oh 36 (the spacing characters where lost, because the field separator is ' ') Is there a way to ask awk something like "print the output using the exact same field separators as the input had"? Then I tried yet something else, using awk's sub(..,..) method: ' sub(/[0-9][0-9]/, ...) {print}' but no cigar yet: I don't know how to reference the regexp and do arithmetic on it in the second argument (which I left with '...' for now). Then I tried with sed, but got stuck after this: echo "eh oh 37" | sed -e 's/\([0-9][0-9]\)/.../' Can I do arithmetic from sed using a reference to the matching digits and have the output not modify the number of spacing characters? Note that it's related to my question concerning Emacs and how to apply this to some (big) Emacs region (using a replace region with Emacs's shell-command-on-region) but it's not an identical question: this one is specifically about how to "keep spaces" when working with awk/sed/etc.

    Read the article

  • vimscript: calling dictionary functions with call()

    - by intuited
    I'm hoping to call a "static" dictionary function using call(). By "static" I mean that the keyword 'dict' is not used in the function's definition. I use this nomenclature in the hopes that the effect of this keyword is to declare a static member function as is possible in java/C++/etc, ie to put the function name in the class namespace but allow it to be called without referencing an object. However this doesn't seem to work. For example: " Setup: let testdict = { } funct! testdict.funct() echo "called" endfunct " Tests: " Following each line is an indented comment " containing its output in message land, ie what was echoed. call testdict.funct() " called echo testdict.funct " 667 echo string(testdict.funct) " function('667') echo function('667') " E475: Invalid argument: 667 echo function('testdict.funct') " testdict.funct call call(testdict.funct, [ ]) " E725: Calling dict function without Dictionary: 667 " Same deal if there's an intermediate variable involved. let TestdictDotFunct = testdict.funct echo TestdictDotFunct " 667 echo string(TestdictDotFunct) " function('667') call TestdictDotFunct() " E725: Calling dict function without Dictionary: 667 From the help topic E725: It is also possible to add a function without the "dict" attribute as a Funcref to a Dictionary, but the "self" variable is not available then. So logic would seem to indicate that if "self" is not available, then it should be possible to call the function referenced by the Funcref without a Dictionary. However this doesn't seem to be the case. Am I missing something? Vim version info: $ aptitude show vim-gnome Package: vim-gnome State: installed Automatically installed: no Version: 2:7.2.245-2ubuntu2

    Read the article

  • Some general C questions.

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hello. I am trying to fully understand the process pro writing code in some language to execution by OS. In my case, the language would be C and the OS would be Windows. So far, I read many different articles, but I am not sure, whether I understand the process right, and I would like to ask you if you know some good articles on some subjects I couldn´t find. So, what I think I know about C (and basically other languages): C compiler itself handles only data types, basic math operations, pointers operations, and work with functions. By work with functions I mean how to pass argument to it, and how to get output from function. During compilation, function call is replaced by passing arguments to stack, and than if function is not inline, its call is replaced by some symbol for linker. Linker than find the function definition, and replace the symbol to jump adress to that function (and of course than jump back to program). If the above is generally true and I get it right, where to final .exe file actually linker saves the functions? After the main() function? And what creates the .exe header? Compiler or Linker? Now, additional capabilities of C, today known as C standart library is set of functions and the declarations of them, that other programmers wrote to extend and simplify use of C language. But these functions like printf() were (or could be?) written in different language, or assembler. And there comes my next question, can be, for example printf() function be written in pure C without use of assembler? I know this is quite big question, but I just mostly want to know, wheather I am right or not. And trust me, I read a lots of articles on the web, and I would not ask you, If I could find these infromation together on one place, in one article. Insted I must piece by piece gather informations, so I am not sure if I am right. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • AES Encryption Java Invalid Key length

    - by wuntee
    I am trying to create an AES encryption method, but for some reason I keep getting a 'java.security.InvalidKeyException: Key length not 128/192/256 bits'. Here is the code: public static SecretKey getSecretKey(char[] password, byte[] salt) throws NoSuchAlgorithmException, InvalidKeySpecException{ SecretKeyFactory factory = SecretKeyFactory.getInstance("PBEWithMD5AndDES"); // NOTE: last argument is the key length, and it is 256 KeySpec spec = new PBEKeySpec(password, salt, 1024, 256); SecretKey tmp = factory.generateSecret(spec); SecretKey secret = new SecretKeySpec(tmp.getEncoded(), "AES"); return(secret); } public static byte[] encrypt(char[] password, byte[] salt, String text) throws NoSuchAlgorithmException, InvalidKeySpecException, NoSuchPaddingException, InvalidKeyException, InvalidParameterSpecException, IllegalBlockSizeException, BadPaddingException, UnsupportedEncodingException{ SecretKey secret = getSecretKey(password, salt); Cipher cipher = Cipher.getInstance("AES"); // NOTE: This is where the Exception is being thrown cipher.init(Cipher.ENCRYPT_MODE, secret); byte[] ciphertext = cipher.doFinal(text.getBytes("UTF-8")); return(ciphertext); } Can anyone see what I am doing wrong? I am thinking it may have something to do with the SecretKeyFactory algorithm, but that is the only one I can find that is supported on the end system I am developing against. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Makefile for DOS/Windows and Cygwin

    - by Thomas Matthews
    I need to have a makefile work under DOS (Windows) and Cygwin. I having problems with the makefile detecting the OS correctly and setting appropriate variables. The objective is to set variables for the following commands, then invoke the commands in rules using the variables: Delete file: rm in Cygwin, del in DOS. Remove directory: rmdir (different parameters in Cygwin and DOS) Copy file: cp in Cygwin, copy in DOS. Testing for file existance: test in Cygwin, IF EXIST in DOS. Listing contents of a file: cat in Cygwin, type in DOS. Here is my attempt, which always uses the else clause: OS_KIND = $(OSTYPE) #OSTYPE is an environment variable set by Cygwin. ifeq ($(OS_KIND), cygwin) ENV_OS = Cygwin RM = rm -f RMDIR = rmdir -r CP = cp REN = mv IF_EXIST = test -a IF_NOT_EXIST = ! test -a LIST_FILE = cat else ENV_OS = Win_Cmd RM = del -f -Q RMDIR = rmdir /S /Q IF_EXIST = if exist IF_NOT_EXIST = if not exist LIST_FILE = type endif I'm using the forward slash character, '/', as a directory separator. This is a problem with the DOS command, as it is interpreting it as program argument rather than a separator. Anybody know how to resolve this issue? Edit: I am using make with Mingw in both Windows Console (DOS) and Cygwin.

    Read the article

  • TableView Cells unresponsive

    - by John Donovan
    I have a TableView and I wish to be able to press several cells one after the other and have messages appear. At the moment the cells are often unresponsive. I found some coed for a similar problem someone was kind enough to post, however, although he claimed it worked 100% it doesn't work for me. The app won't even build. Here's the code: -(UIView*) hitTest:(CGPoint)point withEvent:(UIEvent*)event { // check to see if the hit is in this table view if ([self pointInside:point withEvent:event]) { UITableViewCell* newCell = nil; // hit is in this table view, find out // which cell it is in (if any) for (UITableViewCell* aCell in self.visibleCells) { if ([aCell pointInside:[self convertPoint:point toView:aCell] withEvent:nil]) { newCell = aCell; break; } } // if it touched a different cell, tell the previous cell to resign // this gives it a chance to hide the keyboard or date picker or whatever if (newCell != activeCell) { [activeCell resignFirstResponder]; self.activeCell = newCell; // may be nil } } // return the super's hitTest result return [super hitTest:point withEvent:event]; } With this code I get this warning: that my viewController may not respond to pointsInside:withEvent (it's a TableViewController). I also get some faults: request for member 'visibleCells' in something not a structure or a union. incompatible type for argument 1 of pointInsideWithEvent, expression does not have a valid object type and similar. I must admit I'm not so good at reading other people's code but I was wondering whether the problems here are obvious and if so if anyone could give me a pointer it would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • boost::binding that which is already bound

    - by PaulH
    I have a Visual Studio 2008 C++ application that does something like this: template< typename Fcn > inline void Bar( Fcn fcn ) // line 84 { fcn(); }; template< typename Fcn > inline void Foo( Fcn fcn ) { // this works fine Bar( fcn ); // this fails to compile boost::bind( Bar, fcn )(); }; void main() { SYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX status = { 0 }; Foo( boost::bind( ::GetSystemPowerStatusEx, &status, true ) ); // line 160 } *The call to GetSystemPowerStatusEx() is just for demonstration. Insert your favorite call there and the behavior is the same. When I go to compile this, I get 84 errors. I won't post them all unless asked, but they start with this: 1>.\MyApp.cpp(99) : error C2896: 'boost::_bi::bind_t<_bi::dm_result<MT::* ,A1>::type,boost::_mfi::dm<M,T>,_bi::list_av_1<A1>::type> boost::bind(M T::* ,A1)' : cannot use function template 'void Bar(Fcn)' as a function argument 1> .\MyApp.cpp(84) : see declaration of 'Bar' 1> .\MyApp.cpp(160) : see reference to function template instantiation 'void Foo<boost::_bi::bind_t<R,F,L>>(Fcn)' being compiled 1> with 1> [ 1> R=BOOL, 1> F=BOOL (__cdecl *)(PSYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX,BOOL), 1> L=boost::_bi::list2<boost::_bi::value<_SYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX *>,boost::_bi::value<bool>>, 1> Fcn=boost::_bi::bind_t<BOOL,BOOL (__cdecl *)(PSYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX,BOOL),boost::_bi::list2<boost::_bi::value<_SYSTEM_POWER_STATUS_EX *>,boost::_bi::value<bool>>> 1> ] If anybody can point out what I may be doing wrong, I would appreciate it. Thanks, PaulH

    Read the article

  • PHP cURL JSON Decode (X-AUTH Header)

    - by TheCyX
    <?php // Show Profile $curl = curl_init(); curl_setopt ($curl, CURLOPT_URL, "https://example/api"); curl_setopt ($curl, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt ($curl, CURLOPT_HTTPAUTH, CURLAUTH_BASIC ) ; curl_setopt ($curl, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, array('X-AUTH: 123456789')); $projects = curl_exec($curl); // This is empty? echo $projects; //Decode $phpArray = json_decode($projects); print_r($phpArray); foreach ($phpArray as $key => $value) { // Line 17, sure its empty, but why? echo "<p>$key | $value</p>"; } ?> Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /html/api.php on line 17 The API needs this authentification: $ curl -i -H "X-AUTH: 123456789" https://example/api JSON File: {"id":"123456","hostId":null,"Nickname":"thecyx","DisplayName":"thecyx","AppDisplayName":"thecyx","Score":"300","Account":"Full"} The $project variable is empty. If I'm posting the API Url in the Broswer its working. And, if possible, what's the correct way to get the JSON Data e.g. [Nickname],[Score]?

    Read the article

  • Why does Java's invokevirtual need to resolve the called method's compile-time class?

    - by Chris
    Consider this simple Java class: class MyClass { public void bar(MyClass c) { c.foo(); } } I want to discuss what happens on the line c.foo(). At the bytecode level, the meat of c.foo() will be the invokevirtual opcode, and, according to the documentation for invokevirtual, more or less the following will happen: Look up the foo method defined in compile-time class MyClass. (This involves first resolving MyClass.) Do some checks, including: Verify that c is not an initialization method, and verify that calling MyClass.foo wouldn't violate any protected modifiers. Figure out which method to actually call. In particular, look up c's runtime type. If that type has foo(), call that method and return. If not, look up c's runtime type's superclass; if that type has foo, call that method and return. If not, look up c's runtime type's superclass's superclass; if that type has foo, call that method and return. Etc.. If no suitable method can be found, then error. Step #3 alone seems adequate for figuring out which method to call and verifying that said method has the correct argument/return types. So my question is why step #1 gets performed in the first place. Possible answers seem to be: You don't have enough information to perform step #3 until step #1 is complete. (This seems implausible at first glance, so please explain.) The linking or access modifier checks done in #1 and #2 are essential to prevent certain bad things from happening, and those checks must be performed based on the compile-time type, rather than the run-time type hierarchy. (Please explain.)

    Read the article

  • MVC View Model Intellisense / Compile error

    - by Marty Trenouth
    I have one Library with my ORM and am working with a MVC Application. I have a problem where the pages won't compile because the Views can't see the Model's properties (which are inherited from lower level base classes). They system throws a compile error saying that 'object' does not contain a definition for 'ID' and no extension method 'ID' accepting a first argument of type 'object' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) implying that the View is not seeing the model. In the Controller I have full access to the Model and have check the Inherits from portion of the view to validate the correct type is being passed. Controller: return View(new TeraViral_Blog()); View: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<com.models.TeraViral_Blog>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> Index2 </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2>Index2</h2> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <p> ID: <%= Html.Encode(Model.ID) %> </p> </fieldset> </asp:Content>

    Read the article

  • Why user control with code behind file doesn't want to compile under MVC2?

    - by kyrisu
    I have user control in my MVC2 app placed in the Content folder (it's not supposed to be a view, just reusable part of the app). UserControl1.ascx looks like: <@ Control AutoEventWireup="true" Language="C#" CodeFile="~/Content/UserControl1.ascx.cs" Inherits="MVCDrill.Content.UserControl1" %> <div runat="server" id="mydiv"> <asp:LinkButton id="lb_text" runat="server"></asp:LinkButton> </div> UserControl1.ascx.cs looks like: using System; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; namespace MVCDrill.Content { public class UserControl1 : UserControl { public string Text { get { return this.lb_text.Text; } set { this.lb_text.Text = value; } } } } I'm pretty sure this kind of stuff compiled under webforms but I'm getting compilation error: 'MVCDrill.Content.UserControl1' does not contain a definition for 'lb_text' and no extension method 'lb_text' accepting a first argument of type 'MVCDrill.Content.UserControl1' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Am I missing something? How to change it (what is the alternative) in MVC2 ? p.s. Intellisense sees lb_text with no problem. I've tried with different controls with the same outcome.

    Read the article

  • Can't operator == be applied to generic types in C#?

    - by Hosam Aly
    According to the documentation of the == operator in MSDN, For predefined value types, the equality operator (==) returns true if the values of its operands are equal, false otherwise. For reference types other than string, == returns true if its two operands refer to the same object. For the string type, == compares the values of the strings. User-defined value types can overload the == operator (see operator). So can user-defined reference types, although by default == behaves as described above for both predefined and user-defined reference types. So why does this code snippet fail to compile? void Compare<T>(T x, T y) { return x == y; } I get the error Operator '==' cannot be applied to operands of type 'T' and 'T'. I wonder why, since as far as I understand the == operator is predefined for all types? Edit: Thanks everybody. I didn't notice at first that the statement was about reference types only. I also thought that bit-by-bit comparison is provided for all value types, which I now know is not correct. But, in case I'm using a reference type, would the the == operator use the predefined reference comparison, or would it use the overloaded version of the operator if a type defined one? Edit 2: Through trial and error, we learned that the == operator will use the predefined reference comparison when using an unrestricted generic type. Actually, the compiler will use the best method it can find for the restricted type argument, but will look no further. For example, the code below will always print true, even when Test.test<B>(new B(), new B()) is called: class A { public static bool operator==(A x, A y) { return true; } } class B : A { public static bool operator==(B x, B y) { return false; } } class Test { void test<T>(T a, T b) where T : A { Console.WriteLine(a == b); } }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127  | Next Page >