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  • How should rules for Aggregate Roots be enforced?

    - by MylesRip
    While searching the web, I came across a list of rules from Eric Evans' book that should be enforced for aggregates: The root Entity has global identity and is ultimately responsible for checking invariants Root Entities have global identity. Entities inside the boundary have local identity, unique only within the Aggregate. Nothing outside the Aggregate boundary can hold a reference to anything inside, except to the root Entity. The root Entity can hand references to the internal Entities to other objects, but they can only use them transiently (within a single method or block). Only Aggregate Roots can be obtained directly with database queries. Everything else must be done through traversal. Objects within the Aggregate can hold references to other Aggregate roots. A delete operation must remove everything within the Aggregate boundary all at once When a change to any object within the Aggregate boundary is committed, all invariants of the whole Aggregate must be satisfied. This all seems fine in theory, but I don't see how these rules would be enforced in the real world. Take rule 3 for example. Once the root entity has given an exteral object a reference to an internal entity, what's to keep that external object from holding on to the reference beyond the single method or block? (If the enforcement of this is platform-specific, I would be interested in knowing how this would be enforced within a C#/.NET/NHibernate environment.)

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  • Is it possible to filter data used by pivot table based on filtering the rows in a source table in Excel?

    - by Geoffrey Stoel
    I have developed a dashboard in Excel 2007 that uses one source table in a sheet (being filled with a query on our data warehouse) and multiple pivot tables making different cross sections on this data. I use the GETPIVOTDATA in almost a hundred formulas to give me the right value for a specific indicator in my dashboard. This all works fine. However I now have received the question to make the dashboard for 5 different segments. As you can imagine I don't want to create 5 different workbooks for this and need to maintain the dashboard logic on all of them. So my question is the following. Is it possible to automatically (through VBA or any other means) filter the results in my source table which is the source for my pivot tables and thus for my dashboard values. So schematically: DATABASE_VIEW -- SOURCE_TABLE -- 12 pivot tables -- 100 GETPIVOTDATA functions Preferably I would like to load all the segments in the source_table (one view on my database) and then filter the data in the source table, which results in filterd source_dat for my pivots. This way I can (without requerying the db) quickly change between segments in the dashboards (refreshing pivots only). Data in the source table has the column: CUSTOMER_SEGMENT available to filter upon. Any help is appreciated. Geoffrey

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  • Object reference not set to an instance of an object

    - by MBTHQ
    Can anyone help with the following code? I'm trying to get data from the database colum to the datagridview... I'm getting error over here "Dim sql_1 As String = "SELECT * FROM item where item_id = '" + DataGridView_stockout.CurrentCell.Value.ToString() + "'"" Private Sub DataGridView_stockout_CellMouseClick(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewCellMouseEventArgs) Handles DataGridView_stockout.CellMouseClick Dim i As Integer = Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(0).Rows.Count > 0 Dim thiscur_stok As New System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection("Data Source=MBTHQ\SQLEXPRESS;Initial Catalog=stock_check;Integrated Security=True") ' Sql Query Dim sql_1 As String = "SELECT * FROM item where item_id = '" + DataGridView_stockout.CurrentCell.Value.ToString() + "'" ' Create Data Adapter Dim da_1 As New SqlDataAdapter(sql_1, thiscur_stok) ' Fill Dataset and Get Data Table da_1.Fill(Stock_checkDataSet1, "item") Dim dt_1 As DataTable = Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables("item") If i >= DataGridView_stockout.Rows.Count Then 'MessageBox.Show("Sorry, DataGridView_stockout doesn't any row at index " & i.ToString()) Exit Sub End If If 1 >= Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables.Count Then 'MessageBox.Show("Sorry, Stock_checkDataSet1 doesn't any table at index 1") Exit Sub End If If i >= Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(1).Rows.Count Then 'MessageBox.Show("Sorry, Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(1) doesn't any row at index " & i.ToString()) Exit Sub End If If Not Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(1).Columns.Contains("os") Then 'MessageBox.Show("Sorry, Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(1) doesn't any column named 'os'") Exit Sub End If 'DataGridView_stockout.Item("cs_stockout", i).Value = Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(0).Rows(i).Item("os") Dim ab As String = Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(0).Rows(i)(0).ToString() End Sub I keep on getting the error saying "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" I dont know where I'm going wrong. Help really appreciated!!

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  • Chinese records of sqlite databse are in not accessable in iphone app

    - by Mas
    Hi! I'm creating an iphone app. In which I'm reading data from the sqlite db and presenting it in the tableview control. Problem is that the data is in chinese language. Due to unknown reason, when I read/fetch record from the sqlite table, some records are presented and other are missed by objc. Even objc reads some columns of the missing values, But returns the nil results of the some columns. In reality these columns are not empty. I tried many solutions but didn't find any suitable. Same database is working perfectly in the android version of the app. Any one can help here is the code of reading the chinese records from table Quote *q = [[Quote alloc] init]; q.catId = sqlite3_column_int(statement, 0); q.subCatId = sqlite3_column_int(statement, 1); q.quote = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(statement, 2)]; and here is the some records which iphone misses ??????·??? ??????,????????! ??????,??????? Thanks

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  • Storing Credit Card Numbers in SESSION - ways around it?

    - by JM4
    I am well aware of PCI Compliance so don't need an earful about storing CC numbers (and especially CVV nums) within our company database during checkout process. However, I want to be safe as possible when handling sensitive consumer information and am curious how to get around passing CC numbers from page to page WITHOUT using SESSION variables if at all possible. My site is built in this way: Step 1) collect Credit Card information from customer - when customer hits submit, the information is first run through JS validation, then run through PHP validation, if all passes he moves to step 2. Step 2) Information is displayed on a review page for customer to make sure the details of their upcoming transaction are shown. Only the first 6 and last 4 of the CC are shown on this page but card type, and exp date are shwon fully. If he clicks proceed, Step 3) The information is sent to another php page which runs one last validation, sends information through secure payment gateway, and string is returned with details. Step 4) If all is good and well, the consumer information (personal, not CC) is stored in DB and redirected to a completion page. If anything is bad, he is informed and told to revisit the CC processing page to try again (max of 3 times). Any suggestions?

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  • MySQL managing catalogue views

    - by Mark Lawrence
    A friend of mine has a catalogue that currently holds about 500 rows or 500 items. We are looking at ways that we can provide reports on the catalogue inclduing the number of times an item was viewed, and dates for when its viewed. His site is averaging around 25,000 page impressions per month and if we assumed for a minute that half of these were catalogue items then we'd assume roughly 12,000 catalogue items viewed each month. My question is the best way to manage item views in the database. First option is to insert the catalogue ID into a table and then increment the number of times its viewed. The advantage of this is its compact nature. There will only ever be as many rows in the table as there are catalogue items. `catalogue_id`, `views` The disadvantage is that no date information is being held, short of maintaining the last time an item was viewed. The second option is to insert a new row each time an item is viewed. `catalogue_id`, `timestamp` If we continue with the assumed figure of 12,000 item views that means adding 12,000 rows to the table each month, or 144,000 rows each year. The advantage of this is we know the number of times the item is viewed, and also the dates for when its viewed. The disadvantage is the size of the table. Is a table with 144,000 rows becoming too large for MySQL? Interested to hear any thoughts or suggestions on how to achieve this. Thanks.

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  • ASP.NET - What is the best way to block the application usage?

    - by Tufo
    Our clients must pay a monthly Fee... if they don't, what is the best way to block the asp.net software usage? Note: The application runs on the client own server, its not a SaaS app... My ideas are: Idea: Host a Web Service on the internet that the application will use to know if the client can use the software. Issue 1 - What happen if the client internet fails? Or the data center fails? Possible Answer: Make each web service access to send a key that is valid for 7 or 15 days, so each web service consult will enable the software to run more 7 or 15 days, this way the application will only be locked after 7 or 15 days without consulting our web servicee. Issue 2 - And if the client don't have or don't want to enable internet access to the application? Idea 2: Send a key monthly to the client. Issue - How to make a offline key? Possible Answer: Generate a Hash using the "limit" date, so each login try on software will compare the today hash with the key? Issue 2 - Where to store the key? Possible Answer: Database (not good, too easy to change), text file, registry, code file, assembly... Any opinion will be very appreciated!

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  • How do I append Word templates to a new document in VB.NET?

    - by Tom
    I'm poking around to see if this app can be done. Basically the end user needs to create a bunch of export documents that are populated from a database. There will be numerous document templates (.dot) and the end result will be the user choosing templates x y and z to include for documentation, click a button and have the app create a new Word document, append the templates, and then populate the templates with the appropriate data. The reason it needs to be done in Word as opposed to something like Crystal Reports is that the user may customize some fields before printing the documents as it can vary from export to export. Is this possible to do through VB.NET (VS 2010)? I assume it is but I'm having difficulty tracking down a solution. Or alternatively is there a better solution? Here's what I have so far (not much I know) Import Microsoft.Office.Interop Public Class Form1 Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim oWord As Word.Application Dim oDoc As Word.Document oWord = CreateObject("Word.Application") oWord.Visible = False oDoc = oWord.Documents.Add 'Open templates x.dot, y.dot, z.dot 'Append above templates to new document created 'Populate new document oWord.Visible = True End Sub End Class Thanks.

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  • After Delete Trigger Fires Only After Delete?

    - by Brandi
    I thought "after delete" meant that the trigger is not fired until after the delete has already taken place, but here is my situation... I made 3, nearly identical SQL CLR after delete triggers in C#, which worked beautifully for about a month. Suddenly, one of the three stopped working while an automated delete tool was run on it. By stopped working, I mean, records could not be deleted from the table via client software. Disabling the trigger caused deletes to be allowed, but re-enabling it interfered with the ability to delete. So my question is 'how can this be the case?' Is it possible the tool used on it futzed up the memory? It seems like even if the trigger threw an exception, if it is AFTER delete, shouldn't the records be gone? All the trigger looks like is this: ALTER TRIGGER [sysdba].[AccountTrigger] ON [sysdba].[ACCOUNT] AFTER DELETE AS EXTERNAL NAME [SQL_IO].[SQL_IO.WriteFunctions].[AccountTrigger] GO The CLR trigger does one select and one insert into another database. I don't yet know if there are any errors from SQL Server Mgmt Studio, but will update the question after I find out.

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  • Is dependency injection only for service type objects and singletons? (and NOT for gui?)

    - by sensui
    I'm currently experimenting with the Google's guice inversion of control container. I previously had singletons for just about any service (database, active directory) my application used. Now I refactored the code: all the dependencies are given as parameters to constructors. So far, so good. Now the hardest part is with the graphical user interface. I face this problem: I have a table (JTable) of products wrapped in an ProductFrame. I give the dependencies as parameters (EditProductDialog). @Inject public ProductFrame(EditProductDialog editProductDialog) { // ... } // ... @Inject public EditProductDialog(DBProductController productController, Product product) { // ... } The problem is that guice can't know what Product I have selected in the table, so it can't know what to inject in the EditProductDialog. Dependency Injection is pretty viral (if I modify one class to use dependency injection I also need to modify all the other classes it interacts with) so my question is should I directly instantiate EditProductDialog? But then I would have to pass manually the DBProductController to the EditProductDialog and I will also need to pass it to the ProductFrame and all this boils down to not using dependency injection at all. Or is my design flawed and because of that I can't really adapt the project to dependecy injection? Give me some examples of how you used dependency injection with the graphical user interface. All the examples found on the Internet are really simple examples where you use some services (mostly databases) with dependency injection.

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  • Receive JSON payload with ZEND framework and / or PHP

    - by kent3800
    I'm receiving a JSON payload from a webservice at my site's internal webpage at /asset/setjob. The following is the JSON payload being posted to /asset/setjob: [{"job": {"source_filename": "beer-drinking-pig.mpg", "current_step": "waiting_for_file", "encoding_profile_id": "nil", "resolution": "nil", "status_url": "http://example.com/api/v1/jobs/1.json", "id": 1, "bitrate": "nil", "current_status": "waiting for file", "current_progress": "nil", "remote_id": "my-own-remote-id"}}] This payload posts one time to this page. The page is not meant for viewing but parsing the JSON object for the id and current_status so that I can insert it into a database. I'm using Zend framework. HOW DO I receive this payload in Zend? Do I $_GET['json']? $_POST['job']? None of these seem to work. I essentially need to assign this payload to a php variable so that I can then manipulate it. I've tried: $jsonStrGet = var_dump($_GET); $jsonStrPost = var_dump($_POST); And I've tried: $response = $this-getResponse(); $body = $response-getBody(); Blockquote Any help would be much appreciated! Thanks.

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  • Get the id of the link and pass it to the jQueryUI dialog widget

    - by Mike Sanchez
    I'm using the dialog widget of jQueryUI. Now, the links are grabbed from an SQL database by using jQuery+AJAX which is the reason why I used "live" $(function() { var $dialog = $('#report') .dialog({ autoOpen: false, resizable: false, modal: true, height: 410, width: 350, draggable: true }) //store reference to placeholders $uid = $('#reportUniqueId'); $('.reportopen').live("click", function (e) { $dialog.dialog('open'); var $uid = $(this).attr('id'); e.preventDefault(); }); }); My question is, how do I pass the id of the link that triggered the dialog widget to the dialog box itself? The link is set up like this: <td align="left" width="12%"> <span id="notes"> [<a href="javascript:void(0)" class="reportopen" id="<?=$reportId;?>">Spam</a>] </span> </td> And the dialogbox is set up like this: <div id="report" title="Inquire now"> HAHAHAHAHA <span id="reportUniqueId"></span> </div> I'd like for the id to be passed and generated in the <span id="reportUniqueId"></span> part of the dialog box. Any idea?

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  • Queries within queries: Is there a better way?

    - by mririgo
    As I build bigger, more advanced web applications, I'm finding myself writing extremely long and complex queries. I tend to write queries within queries a lot because I feel making one call to the database from PHP is better than making several and correlating the data. However, anyone who knows anything about SQL knows about JOINs. Personally, I've used a JOIN or two before, but quickly stopped when I discovered using subqueries because it felt easier and quicker for me to write and maintain. Commonly, I'll do subqueries that may contain one or more subqueries from relative tables. Consider this example: SELECT (SELECT username FROM users WHERE records.user_id = user_id) AS username, (SELECT last_name||', '||first_name FROM users WHERE records.user_id = user_id) AS name, in_timestamp, out_timestamp FROM records ORDER BY in_timestamp Rarely, I'll do subqueries after the WHERE clause. Consider this example: SELECT user_id, (SELECT name FROM organizations WHERE (SELECT organization FROM locations WHERE records.location = location_id) = organization_id) AS organization_name FROM records ORDER BY in_timestamp In these two cases, would I see any sort of improvement if I decided to rewrite the queries using a JOIN? As more of a blanket question, what are the advantages/disadvantages of using subqueries or a JOIN? Is one way more correct or accepted than the other?

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  • Two Applications using the same index file with Hibernate Search

    - by Dominik Obermaier
    Hi, I want to know if it is possible to use the same index file for an entity in two applications. Let me be more specific: We have an online Application with a frondend for the users and an application for the backend tasks (= administrator interface). Both are running on the same JBOSS AS. Both Applications are using the same database, so they are using the same entities. Of course the package names are not the same in both applications for the entities. So this is our usecase: A user should be able to search via the frondend. The user is only allowed to see results which are tagged with "visible". This tagging happens in our admin interface, so the index for the frontend should be updated every time an entity is tagged as "visible" in the backend. Of course both applications do have the same index root folder. In my index folder there are 2 index files: de.x.x.admin.model.Product de.x.x.frondend.model.Product How to "merge" this via Hibernate Search Configuration? I just did not get it via the documentation... Thanks for any help!

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  • Passing jquery JSON from Codeigniter controller to view

    - by dede
    I've been struggling to make it work, but cannot pass the inserted data from the controler to the view in CI using JSON. The input value from the form is successfully inserted into the database, but cannot make it appear in the view. This is my view file ajax_view.php: <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php echo base_url(); ?>js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#submit").click(function(){ var inp = $('#inp').val(); $.post("ajax/ajax_input", { 'send' : inp }, function(data){ alert(data.input_text); }, "json"); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" method="post" action=""> <label for="inp">Text</label> <input type="text" name="inp" id="inp" /> <label for="submit"></label> <input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" value="Submit" /> And this is the ajax_input method of the ajax.php controller: <?php // Initializing controller ..... // ............................. //ajax method function ajax_input(){ $var_1 = trim($this->input->post('send')); $array = array('input_text' => $var_1); echo json_encode($array); $this->db->insert('ajax',$array); } Trying to debug it with Firebug, it gives me that data.input_text is empty. What am I doing wrong? EDIT: I'm using XAMPP on Win, so is it posible that json configuration is the problem?

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  • How do I get into a career as a programmer/development DBA?

    - by markle976
    About 8-9 years ago I started getting into programming as a hobby. I started with my TI-86 calculator, and then moved into using Visual Basic. After about a year I started playing around with HTML and JavaScript. Then I discovered Flash; I programmed with Actionscript 2.0 for about 2 years which lead me to start using Coldfusion. After a while I realized that A) I am not a designer, and B) with the way that things were going with AJAX, .NET, and PHP there wasn’t much future in Coldfusion/Actionscript. I had been working mostly as an administrative assistant, but about 3-4 years ago I got a position where I would be doing some web development, and assisting the system admin with supporting windows desktop PCs. I have gotten some decent experience over the past few years, but it has been spread out in somewhat disparate areas: I spend about 40% of my time writing PHP/MySQL and HTML/CSS, etc. I spend about 20% of my time helping users with PC questions. I spend about 20% of my time doing administrative things (mail-merges, excel, etc). I spend about 20% of my time managing / creating reports from our Access Database. I have also taught myself many things on my own, and now have a beginner’s level understanding of things like: Windows Server, Java, Linux, Objective-C, SQL Server, C#, C++, Ruby, Mac OSX, VBA, VBScript, and basic IP networks. I feel like I am in a bit of a rut – I want to get my career moving, but I am not sure what I need to do. If I practice with C# and SQL Server Express for a year will that be enough to get me in the door somewhere? Would it be easier to get a position if I teach myself Linux/Apache since I have more experience with PHP/MySQL?

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  • "Special case" records for foreign key constraints

    - by keithjgrant
    Let's say I have a mysql table, called foo with a foreign key option_id constrained to the option table. When I create a foo record, the user may or may not have selected an option, and 'no option' is a viable selection. What is the best way to differentiate between 'null' (i.e. the user hasn't made a selection yet) and 'no option' (i.e. the user selected 'no option')? Right now, my plan is to insert a special record into the option table. Let's say that winds up with an id of 227 (this table already has a number of records at this point, so '1' isn't available). I have no need to access this record at a database level, and it would act as nothing more than a placeholder that the foreign key in the foo table can reference. So do I just hard-code '227' in my codebase when I'm creating 'foo' records where the user has selected 'no option'? The hard-coded id seems sloppy, and leaves room for error as the code is maintained down the road, but I'm not really sure of another approach.

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  • Deserialize xml which uses attribute name/value pairs

    - by Bodyloss
    My application receives a constant stream of xml files which are more or less a direct copy of the database record <record type="update"> <field name="id">987654321</field> <field name="user_id">4321</field> <field name="updated">2011-11-24 13:43:23</field> </record> And I need to deserialize this into a class which provides nullable property's for all columns class Record { public long? Id { get; set; } public long? UserId { get; set; } public DateTime? Updated { get; set; } } I just cant seem to work out a method of doing this without having to parse the xml file manually and switch on the field's name attribute to store the values. Is their a way this can be achieved quickly using an XmlSerializer? And if not is their a more efficient way of parsing it manually? Regards and thanks My main problem is that the attribute name needs to have its value set to a property name and its value as the contents of a <field>..</field> element

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  • SQL Server log backups "stalling"

    - by MattK
    I have interited a box running SQL Server 2008 and Windows 2003, and have had a few events where largeish (35GB) log backups "stall", both before and after the installation of SQL 2008 SP1. The server log ships to a standby, so regular log backups are taken at 15 minute intervals. However, after an index reorg causes the log to grow to about 35GB (on a DB with about 17GB of data), the next log backup runs to ~95% completion, then seems to stop. The process shows as suspended, with a wait state of BACKUPIO. CPU, read, and write activity on the SPID also does not change, and the process stays in this state for hours, when normally a backup of this size should complete in about 20 minutes. This server has a single RAID-1 volume, thus the source database files and destination backup files are on the same volume. However, I cannot determine if another process is blocking the backup. The backup SPID cannot be killed, and the only way to terminate the log backup and clear the lock on the backup file is to cycle the SQL Server service. There was one event where the backup terminated completely, with an error that another process had locked the backup file, but no details about what that process was. Can anyone suggest a cause or diagnostic process to this situation?

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  • How to make NSIS create a file in an %APPDATA% of another user?

    - by SCO
    I wrote an NSIS installer script for postgresql 9.1. The installer works properly, but after the reboot, the service is not started (right after the install, the database started properly though) I guess this is because the postgres service user has no pgpass.conf file in its %APPDATA%. As far as I understand my install script, the pgpass.conf file is added to the %APPDATA% of the user running the installer (an administrator account in my case). This will not help. I tried the following, to add the pgpass.conf to all users, bt I guess this adds it to a kind of wildcard, not to the %APPDATA% of each user : SetShellVarContext "all" SetOutPath "$APPDATA\postgresql" File config\pgpass.conf SetShellVarContext "current" SetOutPath "$APPDATA\postgresql" File config\pgpass.conf I couldn't find the macro name for c:/Users/postgres in the documentation. This could be a way to achieve it. But with WindowsXP, 7, I wish I need a portable way to address the /Users directory. I wish I could use something like SetShellVarContext "postgres", and then have NSIS write the pgpass.conf file in c:\Users\postgres\AppData\postgresql. Is there a way to do this ? Thnk you !

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  • Sync two SqlExpress using NHibernate

    - by Christian
    Hello, I am creating a simple project management system which uses NHibernate for object storage. The underlying database is SQL express (at least currently for development). The client runs on either the desktop or laptop. I know I could use web-services and store the DB only on the desktop, but this would force the desktop to be available all the time. I am currently thinking about duplicating the DB, having two instances with "different data". To clarify, we are not talking about a productive app here, its a prototype. One way to achieve this very simple would be the following process: Client: Check if desktop DB is available (through web service) Client: If yes, use desktop storage, no problem here Client: If not, use own DB as storage Client: Poll desktop regulary, as soon as it comes on, sync Client: Switch to desktop storage ... Desktop: Do not attempt any DB operation before checking for required sync Desktop: If sync needed, do it... My question is now, how would you sync? Assume 4 or 5 types of objects, all have GUID as identifiers. Would you always manually "lazy load" all objects of a certain type and feed them to the DB. Would you always drop the whole desktop DB in case the client DB may be newer and out of sync? Again, I want to stress out, I am not assuming any conflicts or stale data, I basically just want to "copy the whole DB from the client". Would you use NHibernate for this? Or would you separate the copy process? When I think about it, my questions comes down to this: Is there any function from NHibernate: SyncDBs_SourceWins_(SourceDB, TargetDB) Thanks for help, Chris

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  • Entity Framework and associations between string keys

    - by fredrik
    Hi, I am new to Entity Framework, and ORM's for that mather. In the project that I'm involed in we have a legacy database, with all its keys as strings, case-insensitive. We are converting to MSSQL and want to use EF as ORM, but have run in to a problem. Here is an example that illustrates our problem: TableA has a primary string key, TableB has a reference to this primary key. In LINQ we write something like: var result = from t in context.TableB select t.TableA; foreach( var r in result ) Console.WriteLine( r.someFieldInTableA ); if TableA contains a primary key that reads "A", and TableB contains two rows that references TableA but with different cases in the referenceing field, "a" and "A". In our project we want both of the rows to endup in the result, but only the one with the matching case will end up there. Using the SQL Profiler, I have noticed that both of the rows are selected. Is there a way to tell Entity Framework that the keys are case insensitive? Edit:We have now tested this with NHibernate and come to the conclution that NHibernate works with case-insensitive keys. So NHibernate might be a better choice for us.I am however still interested in finding out if there is any way to change the behaviour of Entity Framework.

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  • Problem importing Oracle .dmp file

    - by BitFiddler
    So I have looked at all the suggested ways of importing .dmp files and non of them seem to answer this question: where does the data go once you import it? Context: I created a user like so: SQL> create user IMPORTER identified by "12345"; SQL> grant connect, unlimited tablespace, resource to IMPORTER; I then ran the 'imp' command as follows: C:\>imp system/password FROMUSER=OVIEDOE TOUSER=IMPORTER file=c:\database1.dmp Now there were 9 .dmp files, after each one it asked me for the next one and then I received the message "Import terminated successfully with warnings." The warning was: Warning: the objects were exported by OVIEDOE, not by you import done in WE8MSWIN1252 character set and AL16UTF16 NCHAR character set export client uses WE8ISO8859P1 character set (possible charset conversion) IMP-00046: using FILESIZE value from export file of 2147483648 Now it says it was terminated successfully so my assumption (I am new to oracle so this may be wrong) is that the data was loaded. However, when I use SQL developer to connect to the database and look under the 'tables' node under the IMPORTER user, there is nothing there. What is going on? Did the data load? If so, where can I find it?

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  • UTF-8 MySQL and Charset, pls help me understand this once and for all!

    - by FFish
    Can someone explain me when I set everything to UTF-8 I keep getting those damn ??? MySQL Server version: 5.1.44 MySQL charset: UTF-8 Unicode (utf8) I create a new database name: utf8test collation: utf8_general_ci MySQL connection collation: utf8_general_ci My SQL looks like this: SET SQL_MODE="NO_AUTO_VALUE_ON_ZERO"; CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `test_table` ( `test_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `test_text` text NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`test_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8; INSERT INTO `test_table` (`test_id`, `test_text`) VALUES (1, 'hééélo'), (2, 'wööörld'); My PHP / HTML: <?php $db_conn = mysql_connect("localhost", "root", "") or die("Can't connect to db"); mysql_select_db("utf8test", $db_conn) or die("Can't select db"); // $result = mysql_query("set names 'utf8'"); // this works... why?? $query = "SELECT * FROM test_table"; $result = mysql_query($query); $output = ""; while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { $output .= "id: " . $row['test_id'] . " - text: " . $row['test_text'] . "<br />"; } ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html lang="it" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="it"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>UTF-8 test</title> </head> <body> <?php echo $output; ?> </body> </html>

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  • WiX major upgrade! Need different behaviors for different components...

    - by Joshua
    Okay! I have finally more closely identified the problem I'm having. In my installer, I was attempting to get a settings file to REMAIN INTACT on a major upgrade. I finally got this to work with the suggestion to set <InstallExecuteSequence> <RemoveExistingProducts After="InstallFinalize" /> </InstallExecuteSequence> This is successful in forcing this component to leave the original, not replacing it if it exists: <Component Id="Settings" Guid="A3513208-4F12-4496-B609-197812B4A953" NeverOverwrite="yes"> <File Id="settingsXml" KeyPath="yes" ShortName="SETTINGS.XML" Name="Settings.xml" DiskId="1" Source="\\fileserver\Release\Pathways\Dependencies\Settings\settings.xml" Vital="yes" /> </Component> HOWEVER! This is a problem! I have another component listed here: <Component Id="Database" Guid="1D8756EF-FD6C-49BC-8400-299492E8C65D" KeyPath="yes"> <File Id="pathwaysMdf" Name="Pathways.mdf" DiskId="1" Source="\\fileserver\Shared\Databases\Pathways\SystemDBs\Pathways.mdf" Vital="yes"/> <File Id="pathwaysLdf" Name="Pathways_log.ldf" DiskId="1" Source="\\fileserver\Shared\Databases\Pathways\SystemDBs\Pathways.ldf" Vital="yes"/> </Component> And this component MUST BE REPLACED on a major upgrade. I can only accomplish this so far by setting <RemoveExistingProducts After="InstallInitialize" /> THIS BREAKS THE FIRST FUNCTIONALITY I NEED WITH THE SETTINGS FILE. HOW CAN I DO BOTH?!

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