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  • Django sub-applications & module structure

    - by Rob Golding
    I am developing a Django application, which is a large system that requires multiple sub-applications to keep things neat. Therefore, I have a top level directory that is a Django app (as it has an empty models.py file), and multiple subdirectories, which are also applications in themselves. The reason I have laid my application out in this way is because the sub-applications are separated, but they would never be used on their own, outside the parent application. It therefore makes no sense to distribute them separately. When installing my application, the settings file has to include something like this: INSTALLED_APPS = ( ... 'myapp', 'myapp.subapp1', 'myapp.subapp2', ... ) ...which is obviously suboptimal. This also has the slightly nasty result of requiring that all the sub-applications are referred to by their "inner" name (i.e. subapp1, subapp2 etc.). For example, if I want to reset the database tables for subapp1, I have to type: python manage.py reset subapp1 This is annoying, especially because I have a sub-app called core - which is likely to conflict with another application's name when my application is installed in a user's project. Am I doing this completely wrongly, or is there away to force these "inner" apps to be referred to by their full name?

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  • Users Hierarchy Logic

    - by user342944
    Hi guys, I am writing a user security module using SQLServer 2008 so threfore need to design a database accordingly. Formally I had Userinfo table with UserID, Username and ParentID to build a recursion and populated tree to represent hierarchy but now I have following criteria which I need to develop. I have now USERS, ADMINISTRATORS and GROUPS. Each node in the user hierarchy is either a user, administrator or group. User Someone who has login access to my application Administrator A user who may also manage all their child user accounts (and their children etc) This may include creating new users and assigning permissions to those users. There is no limit to the number of administrators in user structure. The higher up in the hierarchy that I go administrators have more child accounts to manage which include other child administrators. Group A user account can be designated as a group. This will be an account which is used to group one or more users together so that they can be manage as a unit. But no one can login to my application using a group account. This is how I want to create structure Super Administrator administrator ------------------------------------------------------------- | | | Manager A Manager B Manager C (adminstrator) (administrator) (administrator) | ----------------------------------------- | | | Employee A Employee B Sales Employees (User) (User) (Group) | ------------------------ | | | Emp C Emp D Emp E (User) (User) (User) Now how to build the table structure to achieve this. Do I need to create Users table alongwith Group table or what? Please guide I would really appreciate.

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  • WPF and LINQ/SQL - how and where to keep track of changes?

    - by Groky
    I have a WPF application built using the MVVM pattern: My Models come from LINQ to SQL. I use the Repository Pattern to abstract away the DataContext. My ViewModels have a reference to a Model. Setting a property on the ViewModel causes that value to be written through to the Model. As you can see, my data is stored in my Model, and changes are therefore tracked by my DataContext. However, in this question I read: The guidelines from the MSDN documentation on the DataContext class are what I would recommend following: In general, a DataContext instance is designed to last for one "unit of work" however your application defines that term. A DataContext is lightweight and is not expensive to create. A typical LINQ to SQL application creates DataContext instances at method scope or as a member of short-lived classes that represent a logical set of related database operations. How do you track your changes? In your DataContext? In your ViewModel? Elsewhere?

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  • Help with mysql sum and group query and managing results for jquery graph.

    - by Scarface
    I have a system I am trying to design that will retrieve information from a database, so that it can be plotted in a jquery graph. I need to retrieve the information and somehow put it in the necessary coordinates format (for example two coordinates var d = [[1269417600000, 10],[1269504000000, 15]];). My table that I am selecting from is a table that stores user votes with fields: points_id (1=vote up, 2=vote down), user_id, timestamp, topic_id What I need to do is select all the votes and somehow group them into respective days and then sum the difference between 1 votes and 2 votes for each day. I then need to somehow display the data in the appropriate plotting format shown earlier. For example April 1, 4 votes. The data needs to be separated by commas, except the last plot entry, so I am not sure how to approach that. I showed an example below of the kind of thing I need but it is not correct, echo "var d=["; $query=mysql_query( "SELECT *, SUM(IF(points_id = \"1\", 1,0))-SUM(IF([points_id = \"2\", 1,0)) AS 'total' FROM points LEFT JOIN topic ON topic.topic_id=points.topic_id WHERE topic.creator='$user' GROUP by timestamp HAVING certain time interval" ); while ($row=mysql_fetch_assoc($query)){ $timestamp=$row['timestamp']; $votes=$row['total']; echo "[$timestamp,$vote],"; } echo "];";

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  • node.js: looping, email each matching row from query but it it emails the same user by # number of matches?

    - by udonsoup16
    I have a node.js email server that works fine however I noticed a problem. If the query string found 4 rows, it would send four emails but only to the first result instead of to each found email address. var querystring1 = 'SELECT `date_created`,`first_name`,`last_name`,`email` FROM `users` WHERE TIMESTAMPDIFF(SECOND,date_created, NOW()) <=298 AND `email`!="" LIMIT 0,5'; connection.query(querystring1, function (err, row) { if (err) throw err; for (var i in row) { // Email content; change text to html to have html emails. row[i].column name will pull relevant database info var sendit = { to: row[i].email, from: '******@******', subject: 'Hi ' + row[i].first_name + ', Thanks for joining ******!', html: {path:__dirname + '/templates/welcome.html'} }; // Send emails transporter.sendMail(sendit,function(error,response){ if (error) { console.log(error); }else{ console.log("Message sent1: " + row[i].first_name);} transporter.close();} ) }}); .... How do I have it loop through each found row and send a custom email using row data individual row data?

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  • Javascript libraries + JQuery plugins contradict? How to debug?

    - by Metafaniel
    This is somewhat a newbie question... I effort everyday to learn, so please understand ;) I'm not the very best expert, but I can do a decent job good looking and functional websites or web applications. My main tools are PHP5, HTML5, CSS2 y 3, a database (SQLite, MySQL) and Javascript and JQuery. I'm not an expert at all in Javascript. I often find interesting JQuery plugins or tutorials and try to mix them up to do the functionality needed. This time I'm mixing maybe too much plugins and js files from different sources. In fact, my app do what I want except for certain behaviors... There are no errors, everything looks fine, but the misbehavior persists. So maybe I need to specify a class I don't know about, or one contradicts another one from another plugin and I just can't understand, for example, why a <button type="button">DON'T submit</button> just submits the form... Anyway, my point is: Do you people know a way to debug this situations??? Is there a generic tool, suggestion, workflow or something to help me understand conflicts or omissions between libraries or plugins??? (Javascript libraries, my own Javascripts and JQuery plugins)??? I hope it is a way! THANKS A LOT FOR YOUR HELP AND COMPREHENSION! =)

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  • Entity Framework DateTime update extremely slow

    - by Phyxion
    I have this situation currently with Entity Framework: using (TestEntities dataContext = DataContext) { UserSession session = dataContext.UserSessions.FirstOrDefault(userSession => userSession.Id == SessionId); if (session != null) { session.LastAvailableDate = DateTime.Now; dataContext.SaveChanges(); } } This is all working perfect, except for the fact that it is terribly slow compared to what I expect (14 calls per second, tested with 100 iterations). When I update this record manually through this command: dataContext.Database.ExecuteSqlCommand(String.Format("update UserSession set LastAvailableDate = '{0}' where Id = '{1}'", DateTime.Now.ToString("yyyy-MM-dd HH:mm:ss.fffffff"), SessionId)); I get 55 calls per second, which is more than fast enough. However, when I don't update the session.LastAvailableDate but I update an integer (e.g. session.UserId) or string with Entity Framework, I get 50 calls per second, which is also more than fast enough. Only the datetime field is terrible slow. The difference of a factor 4 is unacceptable and I was wondering how I can improve this as I don't prefer using direct SQL when I can also use the Entity Framework. I'm using Entity Framework 4.3.1 (also tried 4.1).

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  • Howto use predicates in LINQ to Entities for Entity Framework objects

    - by user274947
    I'm using LINQ to Entities for Entity Framework objects in my Data Access Layer. My goal is to filter as much as I can from the database, without applying filtering logic on in-memory results. For that purpose Business Logic Layer passes a predicate to Data Access Layer. I mean Func<MyEntity, bool> So, if I use this predicate directly, like public IQueryable<MyEntity> GetAllMatchedEntities(Func<MyEntity, Boolean> isMatched) { return qry = _Context.MyEntities.Where(x => isMatched(x)); } I'm getting the exception [System.NotSupportedException] --- {"The LINQ expression node type 'Invoke' is not supported in LINQ to Entities."} Solution in that question suggests to use AsExpandable() method from LINQKit library. But again, using public IQueryable<MyEntity> GetAllMatchedEntities(Func<MyEntity, Boolean> isMatched) { return qry = _Context.MyEntities.AsExpandable().Where(x => isMatched(x)); } I'm getting the exception Unable to cast object of type 'System.Linq.Expressions.FieldExpression' to type 'System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression' Is there way to use predicate in LINQ to Entities query for Entity Framework objects, so that it is correctly transformed it into a SQL statement. Thank you.

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  • Hibernate mapping Problem

    - by Geln Yang
    Hi, There is a table Item like, code,name 01,parent1 02,parent2 0101,child11 0102,child12 0201,child21 0202,child22 Create a java object and hbm xml to map the table.The Item.parent is a Item whose code is equal to the first two characters of its code : class Item{ String code; String name; Item parent; List<Item> children; .... setter/getter.... } <hibernate-mapping> <class name="Item" table="Item"> <id name="code" length="4" type="string"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="name" length="50" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="parent" class="Item" not-found="ignore"> <formula> <![CDATA[ (select i.code,r.name from Item i where (case length(code) when 4 then i.code=SUBSTRING(code,1,2) else false end)) ]]> </formula> </many-to-one> <bag name="children"></bag> </class> </hibernate-mapping> I try to use formula to define the many-to-one relationship,but it doesn't work!Is there something wrong?Or is there other method? Thanks! ps,I use mysql database.

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  • query structure - ignoring entries for the same event from multiple users?

    - by Andrew Heath
    One table in my MySQL database tracks game plays. It has the following structure: SCENARIO_VICTORIES [ID] [scenario_id] [game] [timestamp] [user_id] [winning_side] [play_date] ID is the autoincremented primary key. timestamp records the moment of submission for the record. winning_side has one of three possible values: 1, 2, or 0 (meaning a draw) One of the queries done on this table calculates the victory percentage for each scenario, when that scenario's page is viewed. The output is expressed as: Side 1 win % Side 2 win % Draw % and queried with: SELECT winning_side, COUNT(scenario_id) FROM scenario_victories WHERE scenario_id='$scenID' GROUP BY winning_side ORDER BY winning_side ASC and then processed into the percentages and such. Sorry for the long setup. My problem is this: several of my users play each other, and record their mutual results. So these battles are being doubly represented in the victory percentages and result counts. Though this happens infrequently, the userbase isn't large and the double entries do have a noticeable effect on the data. Given the table and query above - does anyone have any suggestions for how I can "collapse" records that have the same play_date & game & scenario_id & winning_side so that they're only counted once?

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  • Why is this ajax call being made even though it shouldn't be

    - by user2921557
    i have this validation script im working on but cant see why im having an issue. You can see that i have a check = false / true, check before it runs the ajax call. However, even if a field is empty and check is set to false, it is still running the call. so: // JavaScript - Update Password AJAX $(document).ready(function () { // When the form is submitted $('.updatepasswordform').submit(function () { var check = true; // Get the values var password1 = $("input[name=password1]").val(); var password2 = $("input[name=password2]").val(); var newpassword = $("input[name=newpassword]").val(); /* Password Validation */ // If fields are empty if (password1 === '') { check = false; $("input[name=password1]").css('border', 'solid 2px red'); } // If fields are empty if (password2 === '') { check = false; $("input[name=password2]").css('border', 'solid 2px red'); } // If fields are empty if (newpassword === '') { check = false; $("input[name=newpassword]").css('border', 'solid 2px red'); } if (check = true) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "process/updatepassword.php", data: $(".updatepasswordform").serialize(), dataType: "json", success: function (response) { /* Checks for database validation, removed for space saving */ } }); } return false; }); });

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  • How to return a record from function, executed by INSERT/UPDATE rule (trigger)?

    - by seas
    Do the following scheme for my database: create sequence data_sequence; create table data_table { id integer primary key; field varchar(100); }; create view data_view as select id, field from data_table; create function data_insert(_new data_view) returns data_view as $$declare _id integer; _result data_view%rowtype; begin _id := nextval('data_sequence'); insert into data_table(id, field) values(_id, _new.field); select * into _result from data_view where id = _id; return _result; end; $$ language plpgsql; create rule insert as on insert to data_view do instead select data_insert(new); Then type in psql: insert into data_view(field) values('abc'); Would like to see something like: id | field ----+--------- 1 | abc Instead see: data_insert ------------- (1, "abc") Is it possible to fix this somehow? Thanks for any ideas. Ultimate idea is to use this in other functions, so that I could obtain id of just inserted record without selecting for it from scratch. Something like: insert into data_view(field) values('abc') returning id into my_variable would be nice but doesn't work with error: ERROR: cannot perform INSERT RETURNING on relation "data_view" HINT: You need an unconditional ON INSERT DO INSTEAD rule with a RETURNING clause. I don't really understand that HINT. I use PostgreSQL 8.4.

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  • C# Dataset Dynamically Add DataColumn

    - by Wesley
    I am trying to add a extra column to a dataset after a query has completed. I have a database relationship of the following: Employees / \ Groups EmployeeGroups Empoyees holds all the data for that individual, I'll name the unique key the UserID. Groups holds all the groups that a employee can be a part of, i.e. Super User, Admin, User; etc. I will name the unique key GroupID EmployeeGroups holds all the associations of which groups each employee belongs too. (UserID | GroupID) What I am trying to accomplish is after querying for a all users I want to loop though each user and add what groups that user is a part of by adding a new column to the dataset named 'Groups' which is a string to insert the values of the next query to get all the groups that user is a part of. Then by user of databinding populate a listview with all employees and their group associations My code is as follows; Position 5 is the new column I am trying to add to the dataset. string theQuery = "select UserID, FirstName, LastName, EmployeeID, Active from Employees"; DataSet theEmployeeSet = itsDatabase.runQuery(theQuery); DataColumn theCol = new DataColumn("Groups", typeof(string)); theEmployeeSet.Tables[0].Columns.Add(theCol); foreach (DataRow theRow in theEmployeeSet.Tables[0].Rows) { theRow.ItemArray[5] = "1234"; } At the moment, the code will create the new column but when i assign the data to that column nothing will be assigned, what am I missing? If there is any further explination or information I can provide, please let me know. Thank you all

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  • Property on business objects - getting and setting

    - by Mike
    Hi, I am using LINQ to SQL for the DataAccess layer. I have similar business objects to what is in the data access layer. I have got the dataprovider getting the message #23. On instantiation of the message, in the message constructor, it gets the MessageType and makes a new instance of MessageType class and fills in the MessageType information from the database. Therefore; I want this to get the Name of the MessageType of the Message. user.Messages[23].MessageType.Name I also want an administrator to set the MessageType user.Messages[23].MessageType = MessageTypes.LoadType(3); but I don't want the user to publicly set the MessageType.Name. But when I make a new MessageType instance, the access modifier for the Name property is public because I want to set that from an external class (my data access layer). I could change this to property to internal, so that my class can access it like a public variable, and not allow my other application access to modify it. This still doesn't feel right as it seems like a public property. Are public access modifiers in this situation bad? Any tips or suggestions would be appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Delete only reference to child object

    - by Al
    I'm running in to a bit of a problem where any attempt to delete just the reference to a child also deletes the child record. My schema looks like this Person Organisation OrganisationContacts : Person OrgId PersonId Role When removing an Organisation i want to only delete the record in OrgnaisationContacts, but not touch the Person record. My Mapping looks like this Code: public OrganisationMap() { Table("Organsations"); .... HasMany<OrganisationContact>(x => x.Contacts) .Table("OrganisationContacts ") .KeyColumn("OrgId") .Not.Inverse() .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan(); } public class OrganisationContactMap : SubclassMap<OrganisationContact> { public OrganisationContactMap() { Table("OrganisationContacts"); Map(x => x.Role, "PersonRole"); Map(x => x.IsPrimary); } } At the moment just removing a contact from the IList either doesn't reflect in the database at all, or it issues two delete statements DELETE FROM OrganisationContact & DELETE FROM Person, or tries to set PersonId to null in the OrganisationContacts table. All of which are not desirable. Any help would be great appreciated.

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  • MVC and jQuery data retrieval.

    - by user337542
    Hello, I am using mvc and jQuery and I am trying to display someone's profile with some additional institutions that the person belongs to. I am new to this but I've done something like this in ProfileControler: public ActionResult Institutions(int id) { var inst = fr.getInstitutions(id); return Json(inst); } getInstitutions(id) returns Institution objects(with Name, City, Post Code etc.) Then in a certain View I am trying to get the data with jQuery and display them as follows: $(document).ready(function () { $.post("/Profile/Institutions", { id: <%= Model.Profile.userProfileID %> }, function (data) { $.each(data, function () { var new_div = $("<div>"); var new_label = $("<label>"); new_label.html(this.City); var new_input_b = $("<input>"); new_input_b.attr("type", "button"); new_div.append(new_label); new_div.append(new_input_b); $("#institutions").append(new_div); }); }); }); $("#institutions") is a div where i want to display all of the results. .post works correct for sure because certain institutions are retrieved from database, and passed to the view as Json result. But then I am affraid it wont itterate with .each. Any help, coments or pointing in some direction would be much appriciated

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  • When should we use Views, Temporary Tables and Direct Queries ? What are the Performance issues in a

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    I want to know the performance of using Views, Temp Tables and Direct Queries Usage in a Stored Procedure. I have a table that gets created every time when a trigger gets fired. I know this trigger will be fired very rare and only once at the time of setup. Now I have to use that created table from triggers at many places for fetching data and I confirms it that no one make any changes in that table. i.e ReadOnly Table. I have to use this tables data along with multiple tables to join and fetch result for further queries say select * from triggertable By Using temp table select ... into #tx from triggertable join t2 join t3 and so on select a,b, c from #tx --do something select d,e,f from #tx ---do somethign --and so on --around 6-7 queries in a row in a stored procedure. By Using Views create view viewname ( select ... from triggertable join t2 join t3 and so on ) select a,b, c from viewname --do something select d,e,f from viewname ---do somethign --and so on --around 6-7 queries in a row in a stored procedure. This View can be used in other places as well. So I will be creating at database rather than at sp By Using Direct Query select a,b, c from select ... into #tx from triggertable join t2 join t3 join ... --do something select a,b, c from select ... into #tx from triggertable join t2 join t3 join ... --do something . . --and so on --around 6-7 queries in a row in a stored procedure. Now I can create a view/temporary table/ directly query usage in all upcoming queries. What would be the best to use in this case.

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  • how do I deconstruct COUNT()?

    - by user151841
    I have a view with some joins in it. I'm doing a select from that view with COUNT(*) as one of the columns of the select. I'm surprised by the number it's returning. Note that there is no GROUP BY nor aggregate column statement in the source view that the query is drawing from. How can I take it apart to see how it arrives at this number? I have three columns in the GROUP BY clause. SELECT column1, column2, column3, COUNT(*) FROM View GROUP BY column1, column2, column3 I get a result like +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | column1 | column2 | column3 | COUNT(*) | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | value1 | valueA | value_a | 103 | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | value2 | valueB | value_b | 56 | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ etc. I'd like to see how it arrives at that 103, 26, etc. In other words, I want to run a query that returns 103 rows of something, so that I know that I've expressed the query properly. I'm double-checking my work. I'm not saying that I think COUNT(*) doesn't work ( I know that "SELECT is not broken" ), what I want to double-check is exactly what I'm expressing in my query, because I think I've expressed the wrong thing, which would be why I'm getting unexpected values. I need to see more what I'm actually directing MySQL to count. So should I take them one by one, and try out each value in a WHERE clause? In other words, should I do SELECT column1 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'first_grouped_value' SELECT column1 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'second_grouped_value' SELECT column2 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'first_grouped_value' SELECT column2 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'second_grouped_value' and see the row count returned matches the COUNT(*) value in the grouped results? Because of confidentiality, I won't be able to post any of the query or database structure. All I'm asking for is a general technique to see what COUNT(*) is actually counting.

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  • htmlspecialchars() - How and when to use and avoid multiple use

    - by naescent
    Hi, I'm building a PHP intranet for my boss. A simple customer, order, quote system. It will be denied access from the Internet and only used by 3 people. I'm not so concerned with security as I am with validation. Javascript is disables on all machines. The problem I have is this: Employee enters valid data into a form containing any of the following :;[]"' etc. Form $_POSTS this data to a validationAndProcessing.php page, and determines whether the employee entered data or not in to the fields. If they didn't they are redirected back to the data input page and the field they missed out is highlighted in red. htmlspecialchars() is applied to all data being re-populated to the form from what they entered earlier. Form is then resubmitted to validationAndProcessing.php page, if successful data is entered into the database and employee is taken to display data page. My question is this: If an employee repeatedly enters no data in step 1, they will keep moving between step 1 and 4 each time having htmlspecialchars() applied to the data. So that:- & becomes:- &amp; becomes:- &amp;amp; becomes:- &amp;amp;amp; etc.. How can I stop htmlspecialchars() being applied multiple times to data that is already cleaned? Thanks, Adam

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  • Session variables not getting set but only in Internet Explorer and not on all machines

    - by gaoshan88
    Logging into a site I'm working on functions as expected on my local machine but fails on the remote server but ONLY in Internet Explorer. The kicker is that it works in IE locally, just not on the remote machine. What in the world could cause this? I have stepped through the code on the remote machine and can see the entered login values being checked in the database, they are found and then a login function is called. This sets two $_SESSION variables and redirects to the main admin page. However, in IE only (and not when run on local machine... this is key) the $_SESSION variables are not present by the time you get to the main admin page. var_dump($_SESSION) gives me what I expect on every browser when I am running this in my local environment and in every browser except IE 6, 7 and 8 when run on the remote server (where I get a null value as if nothing has been set for $_SESSION). This really has me stumped so any advice is appreciated. For an example... in IE, run locally, var_dump gives me: array 'Username' => string 'theusername' length=11 'UserID' => string 'somevalue' length=9 Run on the remote server (IE only... works fine in other browsers) var_dump gives me: array(0){} Code: $User = GetUser($Username, $Password); if ($User->UserID <> "") { // this works so we call Login()... Login($User); // this also works and gives expected results. on to redirect... header("Location: index.php"); // a var_dump at index.php shows that there is no session data at all in IE, remotely. } else { header("Location: login.php"); } function Login($data) { $_SESSION['Username'] = $data->Username; $_SESSION['UserID'] = $data->UserID; // a var dump here gives the expected data in every browser }

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  • Insert or Update using Oracle and PL/SQL

    - by Shane
    I have a PL/SQL function that performs an update/insert on an Oracle database that maintains a target total and returns the difference between the existing value and the new value. Here is the code I have so far: FUNCTION calcTargetTotal(accountId varchar2, newTotal numeric ) RETURN number is oldTotal numeric(20,6); difference numeric(20,6); begin difference := 0; begin select value into oldTotal from target_total WHERE account_id = accountId for update of value; if (oldTotal != newTotal) then update target_total set value = newTotal WHERE account_id = accountId difference := newTotal - oldTotal; end if; exception when NO_DATA_FOUND then begin difference := newTotal; insert into target_total ( account_id, value ) values ( accountId, newTotal ); -- sometimes a race condition occurs and this stmt fails -- in those cases try to update again exception when DUP_VAL_ON_INDEX then begin difference := 0; select value into oldTotal from target_total WHERE account_id = accountId for update of value; if (oldTotal != newTotal) then update target_total set value = newTotal WHERE account_id = accountId difference := newTotal - oldTotal; end if; end; end; end; return difference end calcTargetTotal; This works as expected in unit tests with multiple threads never failing. However when loaded on a live system we have seen this fail with a stack trace looking like this: ORA-01403: no data found ORA-00001: unique constraint () violated ORA-01403: no data found The line numbers (which I have removed since they are meaningless out of context) verify that the first update fails due to no data, the insert fail due to uniqueness, and the 2nd update is failing with no data, which should be impossible. From what I have read on other thread a MERGE statement is also not atomic and could suffer similar problems. Does anyone have any ideas how to prevent this from occurring?

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  • Sturts DB query execution problem

    - by henderunal
    Hello, I am trying to insert a data to my db2 9.7 database from IBM RAD 7.5 using struts 1.3 But when i execute the query i got this errors [Pastebin link][1] Here is my code KayitBean kayit=(KayitBean)form; //String name = kayit.getName(); String name="endee"; DBConn hb = new DBConn(); Connection conn =hb.getConnection(); System.out.println("basarili"); //String sql = "SELECT * FROM ENDER.\"MEKANDENEME\""; String sql = "INSERT INTO ENDER.\"MEKANDENEME\" VALUES (\'endere\' ,\'bos\');"; System.out.println(sql); System.out.println("basarili2"); PreparedStatement ps = conn.prepareStatement(sql); System.out.println("basarili3"); ResultSet rs = ps.executeQuery(); // String ender=rs.getArray(1).toString(); System.out.println("basarili4"); // System.out.println(rs); conn.close(); I am receiving this after System.out.println("basarili3");" Please help me.

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  • Stopping cookies being set from a domain (aka "cookieless domain") to increase site performance

    - by Django Reinhardt
    I was reading in Google's documentation about improving site speed. One of their recommendations is serving static content (images, css, js, etc.) from a "cookieless domain": Static content, such as images, JS and CSS files, don't need to be accompanied by cookies, as there is no user interaction with these resources. You can decrease request latency by serving static resources from a domain that doesn't serve cookies. Google then says that the best way to do this is to buy a new domain and set it to point to your current one: To reserve a cookieless domain for serving static content, register a new domain name and configure your DNS database with a CNAME record that points the new domain to your existing domain A record. Configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain. In your web pages, reference the domain name in the URLs for the static resources. This is pretty straight forward stuff, except for the bit where it says to "configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain". From what I've read, there's no setting in IIS that allows you to say "serve static resources", so how do I prevent ASP.NET from setting cookies on this new domain? At present, even if I'm just requesting a .jpg from the new domain, it sets a cookie on my browser, even though our application's cookies are set to our old domain. For example, ASP.NET sets an ".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookie that (as far as I'm aware) we're not telling it to do. Apologies if this is a real newb question, I'm new at this! Thanks.

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  • Python Loop for mysql statement

    - by user552974
    Hi, I have a project that i need to compile number of cities in each state and make an insert statement for mysql database. I think the easiest way to do it is via python but since i m a complete noob i would like to reach out all the python gurus here. Here is what the input looks like. Example below is for Florida. cities = ['Boca Raton', 'Boynton Beach', 'Bradenton', 'Cape Coral', 'Deltona'] and this what the output should be. INSERT INTO `oc_locations` (`idLocation`, `name`, `idLocationParent`, `friendlyName`) VALUES (1, 'Florida', 0, 'Florida'), (2, 'Boca Raton', 1, 'Boca Raton'), (3, 'Boynton Beach', 1, 'Boynton Beach'), (4, 'Bradenton', 1, 'Bradenton'), (5, 'Cape Coral', 1, 'Cape Coral'), (6, 'Deltona', 1, 'Deltona'), If you look at carefully the "idLocationParent" for "Florida" value is "0" so which means it is a top level value. This will be done for 50 states so ability to plug the state name into the mysql statement would be icing on the cake if there is a easy way to do it. Also alphabetical order and auto increment for the idLocation would be great. Here is an example of what i m trying to achieve concatenation is the part i need to figure out. for city in cities: print (1, 'city', 0, 'city'), city

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  • C# DynamicPDF Merging causing "Index out of bounds" error

    - by Dining Philanderer
    Greetings, We use DynamicPDF to merge multiple PDF documents stored in a MSSQL database. The vast majority of times it works wonderfully, but occasionally one of these documents will fail to merge generating the exception message "Index was outside the bounds of the array." I think I have isolated the problem to PDF files that are greater than 8.5 x 11.0. Does anyone know if this is a known issue with DynamicPDF? The merging code is posted here. What would be ideal is if there is a way to resize the PDF files to the correct size so this is not a concern at all... for (int docs = 0; docs < dsPDFInfo.Tables[0].Rows.Count; docs++) { byte[] bytePDFArray = (byte[])dsPDFInfo.Tables[0].Rows[docs]["Content"]; int iContentSize = Convert.ToInt32(dsPDFInfo.Tables[0].Rows[docs]["ContentSize"]); MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(bytePDFArray, 0, iContentSize); ceTe.DynamicPDF.Merger.PdfDocument pdfdoc = new ceTe.DynamicPDF.Merger.PdfDocument(ms); ceTe.DynamicPDF.Merger.MergeDocument mergedoc = new ceTe.DynamicPDF.Merger.MergeDocument(pdfdoc); docCombinedPDF.Append(mergedoc); } Thanks....

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