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• Should I put actors in the Domain-Model/Class-Diagram?

  - by devoured elysium

  When designing both the domain-model and class-diagrams I am having some trouble understanding what to put in them. I'll give an example of what I mean: I am doing a vacations scheduler program, that has an Administrator and End-Users. The Administrator does a couple of things like registering End-Users in the program, changing their previleges, etc. The End-User can choose his vacations days, etc. I initially defined an Administrator and End-User as concepts in the domain-model, and later as classes in the class-diagram. In the class-diagram, both classes ended up having a couple of methods like Administrator.RegisterNewUser(); Administrator.UnregisterUser(int id); etc. Only after some time I realised that actually both Administrator and End-User are actors, and maybe I got this design totally wrong. Instead of filling Administrator and End-User classes with methods to do what my Use-Cases request, I could define other classes from the domain to do them, and have controllers handle the Use-Cases(actually, I decided to do one for each Use-Case). I could have a UserDatabase.RegisterNewUser() and UserDatabase.UnregisterUser(int id);, for example, instead of having those methods on the Administrator class. The idea would be to try to think of the whole vacation-scheduler as a "closed-program" that has a set of features and doesn't bother with things such as authentication, that should be internal/protected, being that the only public things I'd let the outside world see would be its controllers. Is this the right approach? Or am I getting this totally wrong? Is it generally bad idea to put Actors in the domain-model/class-diagrams? What are good rules of thumb for this? My lecturer is following Applying UML and Patterns, which I find awful, so I'd like to know where I could look up more info on this described actor-models situation. I'm still a bit confused about all of this, as this new approach is radically different from anything I've done before.

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• Java Inheritance doubt in parameterised collection

  - by Gala101

  It's obvious that a parent class's object can hold a reference to a child, but does this not hold true in case of parameterised collection ?? eg: Car class is parent of Sedan So public void doSomething(Car c){ ... } public void caller(){ Sedan s = new Sedan(); doSomething(s); } is obviously valid But public void doSomething(Collection<Car> c){ ... } public void caller(){ Collection<Sedan> s = new ArrayList<Sedan>(); doSomething(s); } Fails to compile Can someone please point out why? and also, how to implement such a scenario where a function needs to iterate through a Collection of parent objects, modifying only the fields present in parent class, using parent class methods, but the calling methods (say 3 different methods) pass the collection of three different subtypes.. Ofcourse it compiles fine if I do as below: public void doSomething(Collection<Car> c){ ... } public void caller(){ Collection s = new ArrayList<Sedan>(); doSomething(s); }

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• Trouble accessing fields of a serialized object in Java

  - by typoknig

  I have instantized a class that implements Serializable and I am trying to stream that object like this: try{ Socket socket = new Socket("localhost", 8000); ObjectOutputStream toServer = new ObjectOutputStream(socket.getOutputStream()); toServer.writeObject(myObject); } catch (IOException ex) { System.err.println(ex); } All good so far right? Then I am trying to read the fields of that object like this: //This is an inner class class HandleClient implements Runnable{ private ObjectInputStream fromClient; private Socket socket; // This socket was established earlier try { fromClient = new ObjectInputStream(socket.getInputStream()); GetField inputObjectFields = fromClient.readFields(); double myFristVariable = inputObjectFields.get("myFirstVariable", 0); int mySecondVariable = inputObjectFields.get("mySecondVariable", 0); //do stuff } catch (IOException ex) { System.err.println(ex); } catch (ClassNotFoundException ex) { System.err.println(ex); } finally { try { fromClient.close(); } catch (Exception ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } } But I always get the error: java.io.NotActiveException: not in call to readObject This is my first time streaming objects instead of primitive data types, what am I doing wrong? BONUS When I do get this working correctly, is the ENTIRE CLASS passed with the serialized object (i.e. will I have access to the methods of the object's class)? My reading suggests that the entire class is passed with the object, but I have been unable to use the objects methods thus far. How exactly do I call on the object's methods? In addition to my code above I also experimented with the readObject method, but I was probably using it wrong too because I couldn't get it to work. Please enlighten me.

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• Hibernate Session flush behaviour [ and Spring @Transactional ]

  - by EugeneP

  I use Spring and Hibernate in a web-app, SessionFactory is injected into a DAO bean, and then this DAO is used in a Servlet through webservicecontext. DAO methods are transactional, inside one of the methods I use ... getCurrentSession().save(myObject); One servlet calls this method with an object passed. The update seems to not be flushed at once, it takes about 5 seconds to see the changes in the database. The servlet's method in which that DAO's update method is called, takes a fraction of second to complete. After the @Transactional method of DAO is completed, flushing may NOT happen ? It does not seem to be a rule [ I already see it ]. Then the question is this: what to do to force the session to flush after every DAO method? It may not be a good thing to do, but talking about a Service layer, some methods must end with immediate flush, and Hibernate Session behavior is not predictable. So what to do to guarantee that my @Transactional method persists all the changes after the last line of that method code? getCurrentSession().flush() is the only solution? p.s. I read somewhere that @Transactional IS ASSOCIATED with a DB Transaction. Method returns, transaction must be committed. I do not see this happens.

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• Python class structure ... prep() method?

  - by Adam Nelson

  We have a metaclass, a class, and a child class for an alert system: class AlertMeta(type): """ Metaclass for all alerts Reads attrs and organizes AlertMessageType data """ def __new__(cls, base, name, attrs): new_class = super(AlertMeta, cls).__new__(cls, base, name, attrs) # do stuff to new_class return new_class class BaseAlert(object): """ BaseAlert objects should be instantiated in order to create new AlertItems. Alert objects have classmethods for dequeue (to batch AlertItems) and register (for associated a user to an AlertType and AlertMessageType) If the __init__ function recieves 'dequeue=True' as a kwarg, then all other arguments will be ignored and the Alert will check for messages to send """ __metaclass__ = AlertMeta def __init__(self, **kwargs): dequeue = kwargs.pop('dequeue',None) if kwargs: raise ValueError('Unexpected keyword arguments: %s' % kwargs) if dequeue: self.dequeue() else: # Do Normal init stuff def dequeue(self): """ Pop batched AlertItems """ # Dequeue from a custom queue class CustomAlert(BaseAlert): def __init__(self,**kwargs): # prepare custom init data super(BaseAlert, self).__init__(**kwargs) We would like to be able to make child classes of BaseAlert (CustomAlert) that allow us to run dequeue and to be able to run their own __init__ code. We think there are three ways to do this: Add a prep() method that returns True in the BaseAlert and is called by __init__. Child classes could define their own prep() methods. Make dequeue() a class method - however, alot of what dequeue() does requires non-class methods - so we'd have to make those class methods as well. Create a new class for dealing with the queue. Would this class extend BaseAlert? Is there a standard way of handling this type of situation?

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• Whether to put method code in a VB.Net data storage class, or put it in a separate class?

  - by Alan K

  TLDR summary: (a) Should I include (lengthy) method code in classes which may spawn multiple objects at runtime, (b) does doing so cause memory usage bloat, (c) if so should I "outsource" the code to a class that is loaded only once and have the class methods call that, or alternatively (d) does the code get loaded only once with the object definition anyway and I'm worrying about nothing? ........ I don't know whether there's a good answer to this but if there is I haven't found it yet by searching in the usual places. In my VB.Net (2010 if it matters) WinForms project I have about a dozen or so class objects in an object model. Some of these are pretty simple and do little more than act as data storage repositories. The ones further up the object model, however, have an increasing number of methods. There can be a significant number of higher level objects in use though the exact number will be runtime dependent so I can't be more precise than that. As I was writing the method code for one of the top level ones I noticed that it was starting to get quite lengthy. Memory optimisation is something of a lost art given how much memory the average PC has these days but I don't want to make my application a resource hog. So my questions for anyone who knows .Net way better than I do (of which there will be many) are: Is the code loaded into memory with each instance of the class that's created? Alternatively is it loaded only once with the definition of the class, and all derived objects just refer to that definition? (I'm not really sure how that could be possible given that, for example, event handlers can be assigned dynamically, but no harm asking.) If the answer to the first one is yes, would it be more efficient to write the code in a "utility" object which is loaded only once and called from the real class' methods? Any thoughts appreciated.

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• possible to make codeigniter work with another framework?

  - by ajsie

  the situation is this. my client (who also is a programmer) asks me to develop an address book (with mysql database) with a lot of functions. then he can interact with some class methods i provide for him. kinda like an API. the situation is that the address book application is getting bigger and bigger, and i feel like its way better to use CodeIgniter to code it with MVC. i wonder if i can use codeigniter, then in some way give him the access to controller methods. eg. in a controller there are some functions u can call with the web browser. public function create_contact($information) {..} public function delete_contact($id) {..} public function get_contact($id) {..} however, these are just callable from web browser. how can i let my client have access to these functions like an API? then in his own application he can use: $result = $address_book-create_contact($information); if($result) { echo "Success"; } $contact = $address_book-get_contact($id); is this possible? cause i just know how to access the controller methods with the webbrowser. and i guess its not an option for him to use header(location) to access them. all suggestions to make this possible are welcomed! thanks

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• Soap 1.2 Endpoint Performance

  - by mflair2000

  I have a Client WCF Host Service SOAP 1.2 Service setup and i'm having performance issues on the SOAP Java proxy. I have no control over how the Java service is setup, aside from the endpoint config. I have the Client running Asynchronously, and the host WCF service running in Async pattern, but i see the SOAP 1.2 proxy bottlenecking and handling the requests in a Synchronous way. Can someone take a look at the auto-generated SOAP 1.2 configuration below, from the SOAP 1.2 Service wsdl? Is there a way to configure this for Async way and improve performance? Could be configured for SOAP 1.1? <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration> <system.web> <compilation debug="true"/> </system.web> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <customBinding> <binding name="WebserviceListenerSoap12Binding" closeTimeout="00:30:00" openTimeout="00:30:00" receiveTimeout="00:30:00" sendTimeout="00:30:00"> <textMessageEncoding maxReadPoolSize="64" maxWritePoolSize="16" messageVersion="Soap12" writeEncoding="utf-8"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="20000000" maxArrayLength="20000000" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> </textMessageEncoding> <httpTransport manualAddressing="false" maxBufferPoolSize="20000000" maxReceivedMessageSize="20000000" allowCookies="false" authenticationScheme="Anonymous" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" decompressionEnabled="true" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" keepAliveEnabled="true" maxBufferSize="20000000" proxyAuthenticationScheme="Anonymous" realm="" transferMode="Buffered" unsafeConnectionNtlmAuthentication="false" useDefaultWebProxy="true" /> </binding> </customBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://10.18.2.117:8080/java/webservice/WebserviceListener.WebserviceListenerHttpSoap12Endpoint/" binding="customBinding" bindingConfiguration="WebserviceListenerSoap12Binding" contract="ResolveServiceReference.WebserviceListenerPortType" name="WebserviceListenerHttpSoap12Endpoint" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> </configuration>

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• C# properties: How are they instantiated?

  - by Pedery

  Hi! This might be a pretty straightforward question, but I'm trying to understand some of the internal workings of the compilation. Very simply put, imagine an arbitrary object being instantiated. This object is then allocated on the heap. The object has a property of type PointF (which is value type), with a get and a set method. Imagine the get and the set method containing a few calculations for doing their work. How and where (stack/heap) and when is this code instantiated? This is the background for this question: I'm writing get and set methods for an object and these methods need to be accessed very frequently. The get and set code in itself is rather massive so I feared that in a worst case scenario the methods would be instantiated as an object or a value type with all internal code for every access of the property. On the other hand the code is probably instantiated when the main object is created and the CPU is simply told to jmp to the property code start. Anyway, this is what I want to have clarified.

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• Problem in homemade function to merge objects

  - by Eric

  I'm trying to make a function that merges arrays. The reason is, I have a function that supposed to get the settings of an entity, and merge them with the global defaults. //So for example, let's say globalOptions is something like this var globalOptions={opt1:'foo',opt2:'something'}; //and this is entityOptions var entityOptions={opt1:'foofoo',opt2:null}; The only difference is it has objects in objects and objects in objects in objects, so what I made was a function that loops through all objects, thinking I would later, easily be able to loop through it all. Please ignore the array thing. That is defected, but unneeded. function loopObj(obj, call, where, objcall, array) { if ($.isArray(obj) || $.isPlainObject(obj)) { for (i in obj) { if ($.isArray(obj)) { if (array) { loopObj(obj[i], call, where[where.length] = i, true); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } else { loopObj(obj[i], call, where+'['+i+']', false); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } } else { if (array) { loopObj(obj[i], call, where[where.length] = parseInt(i), true); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } else { loopObj(obj[i], call, where+'[\''+i+'\']', false); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } } } } else { return call(obj,where); } } Then I made this program to convert it: function mergeObj(a,b) { temp.retd = new Object(); loopObj(a,function (c,d) { if (c) { eval(d.replace('%par%','temp.retd'))=c; } else { eval(d.replace('%par%','temp.retd'))=eval(d.replace('%par%','b')); } },'%par%', true); return temp.retd(); } I get the error: Uncaught ReferenceError: Invalid left-hand side in assignment (anonymous function)base.js:51 loopObjbase.js:40 loopObjbase.js:31 mergeObjbase.js:46 (anonymous function)base.js:72 I know what it means, the eval returns an anonomys variable (copy of the variable), so I can't set it, only get it.

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• Exposing a C++ API to C#

  - by Siyfion

  So what I have is a C++ API contained within a *.dll and I want to use a C# application to call methods within the API. So far I have created a C++ / CLR project that includes the native C++ API and managed to create a "bridge" class that looks a bit like the following: ManagedBridge.h namespace ManagedAPIWrapper { public ref class Bridge { public: int bridge_test(void); int bridge_test2(api_struct* temp); } } ManagedBridge.cpp int Bridge::bridge_test(void) { return test(); } int Bridge::bridge_test2(api_struct* temp) { return test2(temp); } I also have a C# application that has a reference to the C++/CLR "Bridge.dll" and then uses the methods contained within. I have a number of problems with this: I can't figure out how to call bridge_test2 within the C# program, as it has no knowledge of what a api_struct actually is. I know that I need to marshal the object somewhere, but do I do it in the C# program or the C++/CLR bridge? This seems like a very long-winded way of exposing all of the methods in the API, is there not an easier way that I'm missing out? (That doesn't use P/Invoke!)

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• Minimal framework in Scala for collections with inheriting return type

  - by Rex Kerr

  Suppose one wants to build a novel generic class, Novel[A]. This class will contain lots of useful methods--perhaps it is a type of collection--and therefore you want to subclass it. But you want the methods to return the type of the subclass, not the original type. In Scala 2.8, what is the minimal amount of work one has to do so that methods of that class will return the relevant subclass, not the original? For example, class Novel[A] /* What goes here? */ { /* Must you have stuff here? */ def reverse/* What goes here instead of :Novel[A]? */ = //... def revrev/*?*/ = reverse.reverse } class ShortStory[A] extends Novel[A] /* What goes here? */ { override def reverse: /*?*/ = //... } val ss = new ShortStory[String] val ss2 = ss.revrev // Type had better be ShortStory[String], not Novel[String] Does this minimal amount change if you want Novel to be covariant? (The 2.8 collections do this among other things, but they also play with return types in more fancy (and useful) ways--the question is how little framework one can get away with if one only wants this subtypes-always-return-subtypes feature.)

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• Action on each method's return value

  - by RobGlynn

  What I'd like to do is take some action using the value returned by every method in a class. So for instance, if I have a class Order which has a method public Customer GetCustomer() { Customer CustomerInstance = // get customer return CustomerInstance; } Let's say I want to log the creation of these - Log(CustomerInstance); My options (AFAIK) are: Call Log() in each of these methods before returning the object. I'm not a fan of this because it gets unwieldy if used on a lot of classes with a lot of methods. It also is not an intrinsic part of the method's purpose. Use composition or inheritance to layer the log callon the Order class similar to: public Customer GetCustomer() { Customer CustomerInstance = this.originalCustomer.GetCustomer(); Log(CustomerInstance); return CustomerInstance; } I don't think this buys me anything over #1. Create extension methods on each of the returned types: Customer CustomerInstance = Order.GetCustomer().Log(); which has just as many downsides. I'm looking to do this for every (or almost every) object returned, automatically if possible, without having to write double the amount of code. I feel like I'm either trying to bend the language into doing something it's not supposed to, or failing to recognize some language feature that would enable this. Possible solutions would be greatly appreciated.

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• Is it an good idea to make a wrapper specifically for a DateTime that respresents Now?

  - by Dirk Boer

  I have been noticing lately that is really nice to use a DateTime representing 'now' as an input parameter for your methods, for mocking and testing purposes. Instead of every method calling DateTime.UtcNow themselves, I do it once in the upper methods and forward it on the lower ones. So a lot of methods that need a 'now', have an input parameter DateTime now. (I'm using MVC, and try to detect a parameter called now and modelbind DateTime.UtcNow to it) So instead of: public bool IsStarted { get { return StartTime >= DateTime.UtcNow; } } I usually have: public bool IsStarted(DateTime now) { return StartTime >= now; } So my convention is at the moment, if a method has a DateTime parameter called now, you have to feed it with the current time. Of course this comes down to convention, and someone else can easily just throw some other DateTime in there as a parameter. To make it more solid and static-typed I am thinking about wrapping DateTime in a new object, i.e. DateTimeNow. So in one of the most upper layers I will convert the DateTime to a DateTimeNow and we will get compile errors when, someone tries to fiddle in a normal DateTime. Of course you can still workaround this, but at least if feels more that you are doing something wrong at point. Did anyone else ever went into this path? Are there any good or bad results on the long term that I am not thinking about?

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• Should Service Depend on Many Repositories, or Break Them Up?

  - by Josh Pollard

  I'm using a repository pattern for my data access. So I basically have a repository per table/class. My UI currently uses service classes to actually get things done, and these service classes wrap, and therefore depend on repositories. In many cases my services are only dependent upon one or two repositories, so things aren't too crazy. Unfortunately, one of my forms in the UI expects the user to enter data that will span five different tables. For this form I made a single service class that depends upon five repositories. Then the methods within the service for saving and loading the data call the appropriate methods on all of the corresponding repositories. As you can imagine, the save and load methods in this service are really big. Also, unit testing this service is getting really difficult because I have to setup so many fake repositories. Would it have been a better choice to break this single service apart into a few smaller services? It would put more code at the UI layer, but would make the services smaller and more testable.

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• convert a repeating code to method

  - by Mr_Green

  In my project, I am adding ComboBox, Text, Link label to my DataGridView dgvMain.I have created different methods for different cell templates as shown below: (The code below is working) gridLnklbl(string headerName) DataGridViewLinkColumn col = new DataGridViewLinkColumn(); col.HeaderText = headerName; // col.Name = "col" + headerName; // same code repeating to all the methods dgvMain.Columns.Add(col); // gridCmb(string headerName) DataGridViewComboBoxColumn col = new DataGridViewComboBoxColumn(); col.HeaderText = headerName; col.Name = "col" + headerName; dgvMain.Columns.Add(col); gridText(string headerName) DataGridViewTextBoxColumn col = new DataGridViewTextBoxColumn(); col.HeaderText = headerName; col.Name = "col" + headerName; dgvMain.Columns.Add(col); As you can see, except the declaration of objects, the code for every method is repeating. Just curious to know, can the repeating code be converted to single method? I dont know how to do that.. Its not about 3 codes of line, I have written many more lines which can be make common to those methods.

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• WMI Rights required to read root\MicrosoftIISv2 in IIS7 with IIS6 compatibility mode

  - by JoeBilly

  I need to manage my IIS7 (Windows Server 2008) remotely with a WMI IIS6 API. So I added the IIS6 WMI Compatibility and IIS6 Metabase Compatibility roles to access the root\MicrosoftIIsv2 namespace. I have a domain account which is not administrator on the remote machine ; with this right, everything is ok. I configured these rights for my domain account to access the root\MicrosoftIIsv2 WMI namespace remotely ; note that these rights work perfectly on a IIS6 and Windows Server 2003 : DCOM : Account in Distributed COM Users Remote & local access to DCOM WMI : Root\CIMV2 (I need access here too) Execute methods, Enable Account, Remote Enable Root\Default (I need access here too) Execute methods, Enable Account, Remote Enable Root\MicrosoftIISv2 Execute methods, Enable Account, Provider Write, Remote Enable IIS Metabase (Metabase Explorer) : LM Full Control (W3SVC inherits these permissions) I tried to give some access on C:\Windows\System32\inetsrv too ; don't know if needed. My issue is : I can't list the IIS WebSites (\root\MicrosoftIISv2:IIsWebServerSetting.Name="W3SVC/*"). I don't get an 'access denied' but nothing is returned. My API and powershell tests can connect and execute queries in the root\MicrosoftIISv2 namespace I can read the IIsComputer class ex: Get-WmiObject IIsComputer -namespace "ROOT\MicrosoftIISv2" -authentication PacketPrivacy | SELECT * I can't read the IIsWebServerSetting, IIsWebServer ... to list the WebSites : the query returns an empty collection ex: Get-WmiObject IIsWebServerSetting -namespace "ROOT\MicrosoftIISv2" -authentication PacketPrivacy | SELECT ServerComment All queries work perfectly if the account is administrator as already said I am using PacketPrivacy authentication FI: I got a Warning Event 5605 with the Administrator right or not, that does not seem to have an impact : The root\MicrosoftIISv2 namespace is marked with the RequiresEncryption flag. Access to this namespace might be denied if the script or application does not have the appropriate authentication level. Change the authentication level to Pkt_Privacy and run the script or application again Ok, I have some more informations, when I use IIS 6 Metabase Explorer with my administrator account I can see the rights are correctly inherited for my non-administrator account. But when I try to connect using my non-administrator account, I can list the LM node, but get an "access denied, failed to get a key's data" when I try to browse the child nodes. I'll check further. I tried to Trace the WMI Activity, and everything seems OK ; this tends to confirm that the problem lies in IIS Rights.

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• Sharepoint error 403 access forbidden

  - by seenasan

  I am new to sharepoint and after creating a new web application this is what i'm getting - The website declined to show this webpage HTTP 403 Most likely causes: •This website requires you to log in. This error (HTTP 403 Forbidden) means that Internet Explorer was able to connect to the website, but it does not have permission to view the webpage. I have Anonymous Authorization enabled in IIS and in sharepoint central admin. Does anyone know how to make this work?

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• Mac OS X Server Configure DHCP Options 66 and 67

  - by Paul Adams

  I need to configure Mountain Lion (10.8.2) OS X Server BOOTP to provide DHCP options 66 and 67 to provide PXE booting for PCs on my network. I have tried following the bootpd MAN pages, but they are not specific enough. I have also read conflicting information on the net, but nothing definitive for Mountain Lion DHCP. From bootpd man page: bootpd has a built-in type conversion table for many more options, mostly those specified in RFC 2132, and will try to convert from whatever type the option appears in the property list to the binary, packet format. For example, if bootpd knows that the type of the option is an IP address or list of IP addresses, it converts from the string form of the IP address to the binary, network byte order numeric value. If the type of the option is a numeric value, it converts from string, integer, or boolean, to the proper sized, network byte-order numeric value. Regardless of whether bootpd knows the type of the option or not, you can always specify the DHCP option using the data property list type <key>dhcp_option_128</key> <data> AAqV1Tzo </data> My TFTP server is 172.16.152.20 and the bootfile is pxelinux.0 I have edited /etc/bootpd.plist and added the following to the subnet dict: <key>dhcp_option_66</key> <data> LW4gLWUgrBCYFAo= </data> <key>dhcp_option_67</key> <data> LW4gLWUgcHhlbGludXguMAo= </data> According to the man page, the data elements are supposed to be Base64 encoded, but no matter what I try, I cannot get PXE clients to boot. I have tried encoding 172.16.152.20 using various methods: echo "172.16.152.20" | openssl enc -base64 returns MTcyLjE2LjE1Mi4yMAo= DHCP Option Code Utility (http://mac.softpedia.com/get/Internet-Utilities/DHCP-Option-Code-Utility.shtml) generating a string from 172.16.152.20 yields: LW4gLWUgMTcyLjE2LjE1Mi4yMAo= (used in the above example) DHCP Option Code Utility generating an IP Addresss from 172.16.152.20 yields: LW4gLWUgrBCYFAo= Encoding pxelinux.0 with the above methods likewise yields different encodings. I have tried using all three methods of encoding the data elements, but nothing seems to work i.e. my PXE boot clients do not get directed to my TFTP server. Can anyone help? Regards, Paul Adams.

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• Best way to migrate from IIS6 to IIS6

  - by darko-romanov

  Hi, I need to move all my sites on a server with IIS 6 to another one, that has same OS (Windows Server 20003) and same IIS version. I'm trying to understand which is the best way to do it. Searching on Google I've found that there are at least 2 methods, one uses IIS Migration Tool, and another Web Deployment Tool. I don't know which method is best, it also seems that both methods can export one site at once, and I have about 100 sites hosted. What would you do?

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• NPS EAP authentication failing after Windows Update

  - by sqlreader

  I have a Windows 2008 Std server running NPS. After applying the latest round of updates (including Root Certificates for April 2012 KB931125 (See:http://support.microsoft.com/kb/933430/)), EAP authentication is failing due to being malformed. Sample error (Security/Event ID 6273), truncated for brevity: Authentication Details: Proxy Policy Name: Use Windows authentication for all users Network Policy Name: Wireless Access Authentication Provider: Windows Authentication Server: nps-host.corp.contoso.com Authentication Type: PEAP EAP Type: - Account Session Identifier: - Reason Code: 266 Reason: The message received was unexpected or badly formatted. The NPS policy (Wireless Access) is configured accordingly (for Constraints/Authentication methods) EAP Types: Microsoft: Protected EAP (PEAP) - with a valid certificate from ADCS Microsoft: Secured password (EAP-MSCHAP v2) Less secure authentication methods: Microsoft Encrypted Authentication version 2 (MS-CHAP-v2) User can change password after it has expired Microsoft Encrypted Authentication (MS-CHAP) User can change password after it has expired We've tested a different RADIUS server without the aforementioned patch, and removed EAP as an authentication type and experienced success. Has anyone else experienced this issue?

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• Can't Connect to IIS Ftp Site under Amazon EC2

  - by h3n

  IIS 7.5: Ftp Firewall Suport: Data Ranges 49152-65535 using external Ip of Amazon EC2 static IP Ftp IPv4 Restriction: allow: Amazon EC2 static IP Ftp Authentication: Anonymous: Enabled, Basic: Disabled, IISMgr: Enabled Ftp Authorization: Allow All Users: Read/Write Windows Firewall (Inbound): Open port 21 Open port ranges: 49152-65535 (Outbound) Open port: 20 Amazon EC2 Security Group: Custom TCP Rule: 21 Custom TCP Rule: 49152-65535 It works on Internet Explorer when I typed the address: ftp://localhost on the server but when I entered the Amazon EC2 Static IP (ftp://IPADRESS) it doesnt connect. I cant connect also to FileZilla

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• DD-WRT with native IPv6

  - by Matt

  My ISP provides native IPv6 support (ie. I can plug in my computer straight into the WAN and get an IPv6 address). However I can not get this working on DD-WRT. When I enable IPv6 and radvd in DD-WRT, the router gets in IPv6 address, but the devices on my LAN do not. I tried looking at the DD-WRT wiki, but this only displayed instructions for tunneling or other methods where native support isn't available. I found a small amount of sites thorough searching, but none of the methods these sites described gave my computers each a global IPv6 address. In addition, SSHing into the router using ping6 on sites such as ipv6.google.com causes "host unreachable" errors. Has anyone using DD-WRT configured a successful setup with native IPv6? I am using a Netgear WNDR3700 v2, with DD-WRT build 17201

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• Using WSUS Admin Console from outside domain

  - by Nick

  Environment: I have a workstation on our primary domain. We have a primary WSUS Server that is the upstream server of 8 different testing domains. The Primary WSUS server is not part of any domain. Routing is configured between my workstation and the Primary WSUS server. I can RDP to the Primary WSUS sever without any problem. The router is configured to forward any any between my workstation and the Primary WSUS server. This WSUS server cannot be part of a domain due to external requirements (I can't change them) on the lab I work in. The version of WSUS is WSUS 3.0 SP 2 What I want to do: I need to connect to the WSUS server with the WSUS Admin console from my local workstation. The end goal is to connect via Powershell and manage with that. I also need to take what I do here and port it to the 8 test domains so I can manage those WSUS servers. The routing is all in place so I can talk to the servers, it's just connecting to the WSUS console that is causing problems. The problem: I cannot get my workstation to connect to the WSUS Console. I get one of the following errors depending on the setup. 1st error: Cannot connect to 'WSUS'. You do not have the permissions required to access this WSUS server. To connect to the server you must be a member of the WSUS Administrators or WSUS Reporters security groups I also get the warning 7012 from the event log that says the same thing. 2nd error: Cannot connect to 'WSUS'. The server may be using another port or different Secure Sockets Layer setting. What I have tried: So far I have configured IIS for Anonymous Authentication on both the WSUS Administration and ApiRemoting30 using an account will call WSUS_User. With this in place, I get the 1st error. When I do this though, the local WSUS Console cannot be used either. Reverting back to only Windows Authentication allows the local console to work, but the remote console now give the 2nd error. I have confirmed the port, and that there is no SSL in use (which is a policy that is pushed from above, that I cannot effect). I have placed WSUS_User in the groups mentioned above, but it still does not connect. I made sure WSUS_User has full access on C:\Program Files\Update Services and C:\Program Files\Update Services\WebServices I am not very familiar with the workings of WSUS or IIS, and have gone as far as I can figure out on my own. Googling these errors all take me to the same steps about Anonymous Authentication and configuring permissions on folders. Note: I have cross-posted this to StackOverflow as well.

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• How to properly add .NET assemblies to Powershell session?

  - by amandion

  I have a .NET assembly (a dll) which is an API to backup software we use here. It contains some properties and methods I would like to take advantage of in my Powershell script(s). However, I am running into a lot of issues with first loading the assembly, then using any of the types once the assembly is loaded. The complete file path is: C:\rnd\CloudBerry.Backup.API.dll In Powershell I use: $dllpath = "C:\rnd\CloudBerry.Backup.API.dll" Add-Type -Path $dllpath I get the error below: Add-Type : Unable to load one or more of the requested types. Retrieve the LoaderExceptions property for more information. At line:1 char:9 + Add-Type <<<< -Path $dllpath + CategoryInfo : NotSpecified: (:) [Add-Type], ReflectionTypeLoadException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : System.Reflection.ReflectionTypeLoadException,Microsoft.PowerShell.Commands.AddTypeComma ndAdd-Type : Unable to load one or more of the requested types. Retrieve the LoaderExceptions property for more information. Using the same cmdlet on another .NET assembly, DotNetZip, which has examples of using the same functionality on the site also does not work for me. I eventually find that I am seemingly able to load the assembly using reflection: [System.Reflection.Assembly]::LoadFrom($dllpath) Although I don't understand the difference between the methods Load, LoadFrom, or LoadFile that last method seems to work. However, I still seem to be unable to create instances or use objects. Each time I try, I get errors that describe that Powershell is unable to find any of the public types. I know the classes are there: $asm = [System.Reflection.Assembly]::LoadFrom($dllpath) $cbbtypes = $asm.GetExportedTypes() $cbbtypes | Get-Member -Static ---- start of excerpt ---- TypeName: CloudBerryLab.Backup.API.BackupProvider Name MemberType Definition ---- ---------- ---------- PlanChanged Event System.EventHandler`1[CloudBerryLab.Backup.API.Utils.ChangedEventArgs] PlanChanged(Sy... PlanRemoved Event System.EventHandler`1[CloudBerryLab.Backup.API.Utils.PlanRemoveEventArgs] PlanRemoved... CalculateFolderSize Method static long CalculateFolderSize() Equals Method static bool Equals(System.Object objA, System.Object objB) GetAccounts Method static CloudBerryLab.Backup.API.Account[], CloudBerry.Backup.API, Version=1.0.0.1, Cu... GetBackupPlans Method static CloudBerryLab.Backup.API.BackupPlan[], CloudBerry.Backup.API, Version=1.0.0.1,... ReferenceEquals Method static bool ReferenceEquals(System.Object objA, System.Object objB) SetProfilePath Method static System.Void SetProfilePath(string profilePath) ----end of excerpt---- Trying to use static methods fail, I don't know why!!! [CloudBerryLab.Backup.API.BackupProvider]::GetAccounts() Unable to find type [CloudBerryLab.Backup.API.BackupProvider]: make sure that the assembly containing this type is load ed. At line:1 char:42 + [CloudBerryLab.Backup.API.BackupProvider] <<<< ::GetAccounts() + CategoryInfo : InvalidOperation: (CloudBerryLab.Backup.API.BackupProvider:String) [], RuntimeException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : TypeNotFound Any guidance appreciated!!

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