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  • Hibernate JPA 2.0 CriteriaQuery, subset listing and counting at once

    - by Jeroen
    Hello, I recently started using the new Hibernate (EntityManager) 3.5.1 with JPA 2.0, and I was wondering if it was possible to both retrieve a (sub-set) of entities and their count from a single CriteriaQuery instance. My current implementation looks as follows: class HibernateResult<T> extends AbstractResult<T> { /** * Construct a new {@link HibernateResult}. * @param criteriaQuery the criteria query * @param selector the selector that determines the entities to return */ HibernateResult(CriteriaQuery<T> criteriaQuery, Selector selector, EntityManager entityManager) { CriteriaBuilder builder = entityManager.getCriteriaBuilder(); // Count the entities CriteriaQuery<Long> countQuery = builder.createQuery(Long.class); Root<T> path = criteriaQuery.from(criteriaQuery.getResultType()); countQuery.select(builder.count(path)); final int count = entityManager.createQuery(countQuery).getSingleResult().intValue(); this.setCount(count); // List the entities according to selector TypedQuery<T> entityQuery = entityManager.createQuery(criteriaQuery); entityQuery.setFirstResult(selector.getFirstResult()); entityQuery.setMaxResults(selector.getMaxRecords()); List<T> entities = entityQuery.getResultList(); this.setEntities(entities); } } The thing is that I want to count all entities that match my criteria query, but the count method from CriteriaBuilder only seems to take Expression as argument. Is there any quick way of converting my criteria query to an expression?

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  • .NET C# : Image Conversion from Bitmap to Icon doesn't seem to work

    - by contactmatt
    I have a simple function that takes a bitmap, and converts the bitmap to an ICON format. Below is the function. (I placed literal values in place of the variables) Bitmap tempBmp = new Bitmap(@"C:\temp\mypicture.jpeg"); Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(tempBmp, 16, 16); bmp.Save("@C:\temp\mypicture2.ico", ImageFormat.Icon) It doesn't seem to be converting correctly...or so I think. After the image is converted, some browsers do not reconigze the image as a true "ICON" , and even Visual Studio 2008 doesn't reconigze the image as an icon after its converted to an Icon format. For example, I was going to set the Icon property for my Win32 form app with the Icon i just converted. I open the dialouge box and select the icon I just converted and get the following error. -- "Argument 'picture' must be a picture that can be used as a Icon." I've browsed the web and come across complicated code where people take the time to manually convert the bitmap to different formats, but I would think the above code should work, and that the .NET framework would take care of this conversion.

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  • MSMQ first Message.Body in queue is OK, all following Message.Body in queue are empty

    - by Andrew A
    I send a handful of identical (except for Id#, obviously) messages to an MSMQ queue on my local machine. The body of the messages is a serialized XElement object. When I try to process the first message in the queue, I am able to successfully de-serialize the Message.Body object and save it to file. However, when trying to process the next (or any subsequent) message, the Message.Body is absent, and an exception is thrown. I have verified the Message ID's are correct for the message attempting to be processed. The XML being serialized is properly formed. Any ideas? I am basing my code on the Microsoft MSMQ Book order sample found here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms180970%28VS.80%29.aspx // Create Envelope XML object XElement envelope = new XElement(env + "Envelope", new XAttribute(XNamespace.Xmlns + "env", env.NamespaceName) <snip> //Send envelope as message body MessageQueue myQueue = new MessageQueue(String.Format(@"FORMATNAME:DIRECT=OS:localhost\private$\mqsample")); myQueue.DefaultPropertiesToSend.Recoverable = true; // Prepare message Message myMessage = new Message(); myMessage.ResponseQueue = new MessageQueue(String.Format(System.Globalization.CultureInfo.InvariantCulture, @"FORMATNAME:DIRECT=TCP:192.168.1.217\private$\mqdemoAck")); myMessage.Body = envelope; // Send the message into the queue. myQueue.Send(myMessage,"message label"); //Retrieve messages from queue LabelIdMapping labelID = (LabelIdMapping)mqlistBox3.SelectedItem; System.Messaging.Message message = mqOrderQueue.ReceiveById(labelID.Id); The Message.Body value I see on the 1st retrieve is as expected: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <string>Some String</string> However, the 2nd and subsequent retrieve operations Message.Body is: "Cannot deserialize the message passed as an argument. Cannot recognize the serialization format." How does this work fine the first time but not after that? I have tried message.Dispose() after retrieving it but it did not help. Thank you very much for any help on this!

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  • How can I add a link with a UID from a User Reference from a table in Drupal Views

    - by pduncan
    I have the following in Drupal 6: A Master CCK type which contains a User reference field and other fields. There will only be one record per user here. A View of this CCK, shown as a table, with one of the fields being the user ref from the CCK type. This field is initially shown as a user name, linking to the user profile. A Second CCK type which can have several pieces of data about a particular user. A View for this CCK type, displaying information as a table. It takes a user id as an argument (an integer) I want to click on the user name in the master view, and be directed to the detail view for this user. To do this, I tried selecting 'Output this field as a link' on the user field. The thing available for me to replace are: Fields * [field_my_user_ref_uid_1] == Content: User (field_my_user_ref) Arguments * %1 == User: Uid However, the [field_my_user_ref_uid_1] element is replaced by the user name, and %1 seems to get replaced with an empty string. How can I put the user id in here?

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  • Inheriting from ViewPage forces explicit casting of model in view

    - by Martin Hansen
    I try to inhering from ViewPage as shown in this question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/370500/inheriting-from-viewpage But I get a Compiler Error Message: CS1061: 'object' does not contain a definition for 'Spot' and no extension method 'Spot' accepting a first argument of type 'object' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) My viewpage, normally I can do Model.ChildProperty(Spot) when I inherit from ViewPage directly, so I do that here too. But it fails. <%@ Page Language="C#" Inherits="Company.Site.ViewPageBase<WebSite.Models.SpotEntity>" %> <h1><%= Html.Encode(Model.Spot.Title) %></h1> To get it working correctly I have to do like this: <%@ Page Language="C#" Inherits="Company.Site.ViewPageBase<WebSite.Models.SpotEntity>" %> <h1><%= Html.Encode(((WebSite.Models.SpotEntity)Model).Spot.Title) %></h1> Here is my classes: namespace Company.Site { public class ViewPageBase<TModel> : Company.Site.ViewPageBase where TModel:class { private ViewDataDictionary<TModel> _viewData; [System.Diagnostics.CodeAnalysis.SuppressMessage("Microsoft.Usage", "CA2227:CollectionPropertiesShouldBeReadOnly")] public new ViewDataDictionary<TModel> ViewData { get { if (_viewData == null) { SetViewData(new ViewDataDictionary<TModel>()); } return _viewData; } set { SetViewData(value); } } protected override void SetViewData(ViewDataDictionary viewData) { _viewData = new ViewDataDictionary<TModel>(viewData); base.SetViewData(_viewData); } } public class ViewPageBase : System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage { } } So how do I get it to work without the explicit cast?

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  • How to approach ninject container/kernel in inheritance situation

    - by Bas
    I have the following situation: class RuleEngine {} abstract class RuleImplementation {} class RootRule : RuleImplementation {} class Rule1 : RuleImplementation {} class Rule2 : RuleImplementation {} The RuleEngine is injected by Ninject and has a kernel at it's disposal, the role of the RuleEngine is to fire off the root rule, which on it's turn will load all the other rules also using Ninject, but using a different Module and creating a new Kernel. Now my question is, some of the rules require some dependencies which I want to inject using Ninject. What would be the best way to create the kernel for these rules and also still do proper unit testing with it? (the kernel shouldn't become a real pain in my tests) I've been thinking of the following possibilitys: The kernel that I use in the RuleEngine class could be tossed around to RuleImplementation and thus be available for every rule. But tossing around Kernels isn't really something I wish to do. When creating the rules, I could give the kernel (which creates the rules) as a constructor argument for each rule. I could create a method inside the RuleImplementation which creates a kernel and makes it possible for the rules to retrieve the kernel using a get() in the abstract class Whats the convention of passing around/creating kernels? Just create new kernels, or reuse them?

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  • During suite tests EasyMock says 0 matchers expected 1 recorded

    - by holmes
    So I've been using EasyMock's class extension for a while now. All of a sudden I'm getting this exception, but only when I run the entire test suite: java.lang.IllegalStateException: 0 matchers expected, 1 recorded. at org.easymock.internal.ExpectedInvocation.createMissingMatchers(ExpectedInvocation.java:42) at org.easymock.internal.ExpectedInvocation.<init>(ExpectedInvocation.java:34) at org.easymock.internal.ExpectedInvocation.<init>(ExpectedInvocation.java:26) at org.easymock.internal.RecordState.invoke(RecordState.java:64) at org.easymock.internal.MockInvocationHandler.invoke(MockInvocationHandler.java:24) at org.easymock.internal.ObjectMethodsFilter.invoke(ObjectMethodsFilter.java:56) at org.easymock.classextension.internal.ClassProxyFactory$1.intercept(ClassProxyFactory.java:74) at com.protrade.soccersim.data.emulator.matrix.PositionCategoryMatrix$$EnhancerByCGLIB$$c5298a7.getPossession(<generated>) at com.protrade.soccersim.data.emulator.stats.team.PossessionCalculatorUnitTest.testDeterminePossessionHomeWin(PossessionCalculatorUnitTest.java:45) The code involved is this little beauty (trimmed a bit): @Before public void setUp() throws Exception { homeTeam = createMock( PositionCategoryMatrix.class ); awayTeam = createMock( PositionCategoryMatrix.class ); ... } @Test public void testDeterminePossessionHomeWin() { expect(homeTeam.getPossession()).andReturn( 0.15151515 ); expect(awayTeam.getPossession()).andReturn( 0.01515152 ); replay( homeTeam, awayTeam ); ... } The exception is being thrown on the first expect. And it really doesn't make sense. It says it's getting a matcher, but the method doesn't even take an argument. And odd enough it's only during test suites! I'm creating a new mock in the @Before, so it shouldn't be inheriting anything from somewhere else (not that some other method would have a matcher on it) So, any ideas?

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  • PLT Scheme Memory

    - by Eric
    So I need some help with implementing a Make-memory program using Scheme. I need two messages 'write and 'read. So it would be like (mymem 'write 34 -116) and (mymem 'read 99) right? and (define mymem (make-memory 100)).....How would I implement this in scheme? using an Alist???I need some help coding it. I have this code which makes make-memory a procedure and when you run mymem you get ((99.0)) and what i need to do is recur this so i get an alist with dotted pairs to ((0.0)). So any suggestions on how to code this?? Does anyone have any ideas what I could do to recur and make messages Write and read?? (define make-memory (lambda (n) (letrec ((mem '()) (dump (display mem))) (lambda () (if (= n 0) (cons (cons n 0) mem) mem) (cons (cons (- n 1) 0) mem)) (lambda (msg loc val) (cond ((equal? msg 'read) (display (cons n val))(set! n (- n 1))) ((equal? msg 'write) (set! mem (cons val loc)) (set! n (- n 1)) (display mem))))))) (define mymem (make-memory 100)) Yes this is an assignment but I wrote this code. I just need some help or direction. And yes I do know about variable-length argument lists.

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  • Problem with Java Applet <--> Javascript communication

    - by davr
    I'm having trouble getting a Java Applet to communicate with the Javascript code on the page the applet is hosted on. It works sometimes, but othertimes it throws an obscure exception, that googling for has not turned up any useful information, besides a few Java bug reports that were never resolved (thanks Sun). Here is the code I am using: JSObject win = JSObject.getWindow(this); Object[] args = new Object[1]; args[0] = "test argument"; String result = (String) win.call("testJSfunc", args); // XXX Here is the exception I get on the line marked // XXX. Note that it is intermittent. Often it works, but sometimes it does not, using the same exact code. Reloading the page repeatedly will produce the error pretty quickly. netscape.javascript.JSException: No registered plugin for applet ID 1 at sun.plugin2.main.client.MessagePassingJSObject.newJSException(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.main.client.MessagePassingJSObject.waitForReply(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.main.client.MessagePassingJSObject.call(Unknown Source) at TestApplet.testCallJS(TestApplet.java:159) at TestApplet.init(TestApplet.java:139) at sun.plugin2.applet.Plugin2Manager$AppletExecutionRunnable.run(Unknown Source) at java.lang.Thread.run(Unknown Source) Is there another more stable way of communicating between Java and Javascript that I should be using?

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  • Correctly assigning value to a Core Data attribute with an integer data-type

    - by Gordon Fontenot
    I'm missing something here, and feeling like an idiot about it. I'm using a UIPickerView in my app, and I need to assign the row number to a 32-bit integer attribute for a Core Data object. To do this, I am using this method: -(void)pickerView:(UIPickerView *)pickerView didSelectRow:(NSInteger)row inComponent:(NSInteger)component { object.integerValue = row; } This is giving me a warning: warning: passing argument 1 of 'setIntegerValue:' makes pointer from integer without a cast What am I mixing up here? --Edit 1-- Ok, so I can get rid of the warning by changing the method to do the following: NSNumber *number = [NSNumber numberWithInteger:row]; object.integerValue = rating; However, I still get a value of 0 for object.integerValue if I use NSLog to print it out. object.integerValue has a max value of 5, so I print out number instead, and then I'm getting a number above 62,000,000. Which doesn't seem right to me, since there are 5 rows. If I NSLog the row variable, I get a number between 0 and 5. So why do I end up with a completely different number after casting the number to NSNumber? --Edit 2-- Ok, so I'm realizing that there is some fundamental idea that I don't understand. I now understand that the 60 million + number can be cast back to the correct 0-5 number by using integerValue. So, it seems my question is how can I save an integer between 0-5 to the attribute if the NSNumber that is returned is over 60 million? Do I need to be using a different data type?

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  • BCP task hangs while executing

    - by user350374
    Hey guys, We have a HPC node that runs some of our tasks in it. I have a task in my .net project that kicks the bcp utility on the HPC node and the output of the query that I have runs into 9 Mb. When the HPC node runs this task the output of the query is dumped into a file and then after it dumps around 5mb of data it suddenly stops dumping any more data and this happens all the time. (Please note this isnt any data issue as its not crashing on a particular row every time). this may or may not be of significance but I dump the data into a different server which has adequate permissions set. I have run the command with the same query directly on the hpc node and on other comps and it gives the right output. I'm running the bcp command as follows: var processInfo = new ProcessStartInfo("bcp.exe", argument) { RedirectStandardOutput = true, RedirectStandardError = true, CreateNoWindow = true, UseShellExecute = false }; var proc = new Process { StartInfo = processInfo, EnableRaisingEvents = true }; proc.Exited += new EventHandler(bcp_log); proc.Start(); proc.WaitForExit(); So my code actually waits for each bcp task to run before it goes ahead as I call it multiple times. FYI to remind you again it only fails when my o/p exceeds a certain no of bytes in this case approx 5mb. Any help is much appreciated.

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  • Eclipse RCP: Using different JUnit version (4.3.1) than shipped with eclipse galileo (4.5.0)

    - by Skrrytch
    Hallo, I have the following situation: We are developing an Eclipse RCP Application and want to switch from Eclipse 3.4 to Eclipse 3.5. Our JUnit-Tests are using JUnit 4.3.1 and we have a launch configuration to start our test suite. I think I don't need to go into more details here. The problem is: Running the tests with Eclipse 3.5 does not work: JUnit cannot find any annotations in the test classes (neither (at)Test nor (at)RunWith). I patched the junit library with some logging output to check what is going on. I found out that this problem is a classloading issue: The test class passed to JUnit 'lies in' a ClassLoader which is different from the one JUnit uses to load the annotation classes like 'RunWith'. This is not the case in Eclipse 3.4 in org.junit.internal.requests.ClassRequest: public Runner getRunner() { log("TestClass ClassLoader: "+this.fTestClass.getClassLoader()); log("RunWith.class ClassLoader: "+RunWith.class.getClassLoader()); ... // validating test class: searching for annotations and more } The first line prints another classloader than the second line. This is bad because JUnit cannot match the annotations in the test class with the Annotation-Class (here: RunWith.class): "RunWith" in CL1 is not equal to "RunWith" in CL2. I have a solution which points to the core problem: Replace JUnit 4.5 in Eclipse Galileo with JUnit 4.3.1 so that there is only one JUnit-Version: The Test-Run and the tests classes are both using JUnit 4.3.1 (I had to patch "org.eclipse.jdt.junit4.runtime" to accept an ealier junit version). I think I can also replace JUnit 4.3.1 in my test class with Version 4.5, but that is not an option yet. Guess: The classloaders are different because the classes 'come from' different JUnit-Bundles: the testclass with its annotations from version 4.3.1 and the test runs in version 4.5 What I want to know: Is there any other solution besides patching Eclipse (replace JUnit versions)? Any commandline argument or such? Any configuration to force Eclipse to Use JUnit 4.3.1? Any hints on the above described analysis are welcome!

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  • Excel vba -get ActiveX Control checkbox when event handler is triggered

    - by danoran
    I have an excel spreadsheet that is separated into different sections with named ranges. I want to hide a named range when a checkbox is clicked. I can do this for one checkbox, but I would like to have a single function that can hide the appropriate section based on the calling checkbox. I was planning on calling that function from the event_handlers for when the checkboxes are clicked, and to pass the checkbox as an argument. Is there a way to access the checkbox object that calls the event handler? This works: Sub chkDogsInContest_Click() ActiveSheet.Names("DogsInContest").RefersToRange.EntireRow.Hidden = Not chkMemberData.Value End Sub But this is what I would like to do: Sub chkDogsInContest_Click() Module1.Show_Hide_Section (<calling checkbox>) End Sub These functions are defined in a different module: 'The format for the the names of the checkbox controls is 'CHECKBOX_NAME_PREFIX + <name> 'where "name" is also the name of the associated Named Range Public Const CHECKBOX_NAME_PREFIX As String = "chk" 'The format for the the names of the checkbox controls is 'CHECKBOX_NAME_PREFIX + <name> 'where "name" is also the name of the associated Named Range Public Function CheckName_To_SectionName(ByRef strCheckName As String) CheckName_To_SectionName = Mid(strCheckName, CHECKBOX_NAME_PREFIX.Length() + 1) End Function Public Sub Show_Hide_Section(ByRef chkBox As CheckBox) ActiveSheet.Names(CheckName_To_SectionName(chkBox.Name())).RefersTo.EntireRow.Hidden = True End Sub

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  • Why is the compiler not selecting my function-template overload in the following example?

    - by Steve Guidi
    Given the following function templates: #include <vector> #include <utility> struct Base { }; struct Derived : Base { }; // #1 template <typename T1, typename T2> void f(const T1& a, const T2& b) { }; // #2 template <typename T1, typename T2> void f(const std::vector<std::pair<T1, T2> >& v, Base* p) { }; Why is it that the following code always invokes overload #1 instead of overload #2? void main() { std::vector<std::pair<int, int> > v; Derived derived; f(100, 200); // clearly calls overload #1 f(v, &derived); // always calls overload #1 } Given that the second parameter of f is a derived type of Base, I was hoping that the compiler would choose overload #2 as it is a better match than the generic type in overload #1. Are there any techniques that I could use to rewrite these functions so that the user can write code as displayed in the main function (i.e., leveraging compiler-deduction of argument types)?

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  • Get variables in c# from ajax call

    - by fzshah76
    I've got an Ajax call for log in here is the code: //if MOUSE class is clicked $('.mouse').click(function () { //get the form to submit and return a message //how to call the function var name = $('#name').val(); var pwd2 = $('#pwd2').val(); $.ajax({ type:"POST", url: "http://localhost:51870/code/Login.aspx", data: "{ 'name':'" + $('#name').val() + "', 'pwd':'" + $('#pwd2').val() + "' }", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", context: document.body, success: function () { //$(this).addClass("done"); $(this).hide(); $('.mouse, .window').hide(); } }); }); the problem is I can't seem to catch name and pwd variables in Login page's preinit event or page load event here is the code in c#: protected void Page_PreInit(object sender, EventArgs e) { //taking javascript argument in preinit event //from here I'll have to build the page for specific lookbook var name = Request.QueryString["name"]; var pwd = Request.QueryString["pwd"]; } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { var name = Request.QueryString["name"]; var pwd = Request.QueryString["pwd"]; SignIn(name); } I can't seem to get username name and password in c# side, help is appreciated. Here is my final javascript code c# code remains the same: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { //if MOUSE class is clicked $('.mouse').click(function () { var name = $('#name').val(); var pwd = $('#pwd').val(); $.ajax({ url: "http://localhost:51870/code/Login.aspx?name="+ name +"&pwd="+pwd, context: document.body, success: function () { //$(this).addClass("done"); $(this).hide(); $('.mouse, .window').hide(); } }); }); }); </script> Thanks Zachary

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  • Parallel WCF calls to multiple servers

    - by gregmac
    I have a WCF service (the same one) running on multiple servers, and I'd like to call all instances in parallel from a single client. I'm using ChannelFactory and the interface (contract) to call the service. Each service has a local <endpoint> client defined in the .config file. What I'm trying to do is build some kind of generic framework to avoid code duplication. For example a synchronous call in a single thread looks something like this: Dim remoteName As String = "endpointName1" Dim svcProxy As ChannelFactory(Of IMyService) = New ChannelFactory(Of IMyService)(remoteName) Try svcProxy.Open() Dim svc As IMyService = svcProxy.CreateChannel() nodeResult = svc.TestRemote("foo") Finally svcProxy.Close() End Try The part I'm having difficulty with is how to specify and actually invoke the actual remote method (eg "TestRemote") without having to duplicate the above code, and all the thread-related stuff that invokes that, for each method. In the end, I'd like to be able to write code along the lines of (consider this psuedo code): Dim results as Dictionary(Of Node, ExpectedReturnType) results = ParallelInvoke(IMyService.SomeMethod, parameter1, parameter2) where ParallelInvoke() will take the method as an argument, as well as the parameters (paramArray or object() .. whatever) and then go run the request on each remote node, block until they all return an answer or timeout, and then return the results into a Dictionary with the key as the node, and the value as whatever value it returned. I can then (depending on the method) pick out the single value I need, or aggregate all the values from each server together, etc. I'm pretty sure I can do this using reflection and InvokeMember(), but that requires passing the method as a string (which can lead to errors like calling a non-existing method that can't be caught at compile time), so I'd like to see if there is a cleaner way to do this. Thanks

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  • ant deploy to oc4j problem

    - by senzacionale
    BUILD FAILED C:\Projekti\Projekt ANT\build.xml:337: Problem: failed to create task or type antlib:oracle:deploy Cause: The name is undefined. Action: Check the spelling. Action: Check that any custom tasks/types have been declared. Action: Check that any / declarations have taken place. No types or tasks have been defined in this namespace yet This appears to be an antlib declaration. Action: Check that the implementing library exists in one of: -C:\Projekti\Apache ANT\apache-ant-1.8.1\bin..\lib -C:\Documents and Settings\MitjaG.ant\lib -a directory added on the command line with the -lib argument CODE: <target name="deploy" depends="init, ear"> <oracle:deploy moduletype="ear" host="${oc4j.host}" port="${oc4j.admin.port}" userid="${oc4j.admin.user}" password="${oc4j.admin.password}" file="${dest.dir}/${package.name}/${view.dir}/${deploy.dir}/${ear.file}" deploymentname="${app.name}" logfile="${log.dir}/deploy-ear.log"/> <oracle:bindWebApp host="${oc4j.host}" port="${oc4j.admin.port}" userid="${oc4j.admin.user}" password="${oc4j.admin.password}" deploymentname="${app.name}" webmodule="${web.name}" websitename="${oc4j.binding.module}" contextroot="/${app.name}" /> </target> I google and search for whole day but i can not find solution. There is no good docs for oc4j and ant except this from 2005: http://www.it-eye.nl/weblog/2005/08/15/how-to-using-ant-to-deploy-to-oc4j-dp4/

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  • Command-Line Parsing API from TestAPI library - Type-Safe Commands how to

    - by MicMit
    Library at http://testapi.codeplex.com/ Excerpt of usage from http://blogs.msdn.com/ivo_manolov/archive/2008/12/17/9230331.aspx A third common approach is forming strongly-typed commands from the command-line parameters. This is common for cases when the command-line looks as follows: some-exe COMMAND parameters-to-the-command The parsing in this case is a little bit more involved: Create one class for every supported command, which derives from the Command abstract base class and implements an expected Execute method. Pass an expected command along with the command-line arguments to CommandLineParser.ParseCommand – the method will return a strongly-typed Command instance that can be Execute()-d. // EXAMPLE #3: // Sample for parsing the following command-line: // Test.exe run /runId=10 /verbose // In this particular case we have an actual command on the command-line (“run”), which we want to effectively de-serialize and execute. public class RunCommand : Command { bool? Verbose { get; set; } int? RunId { get; set; } public override void Execute() { // Implement your "run" execution logic here. } } Command c = new RunCommand(); CommandLineParser.ParseArguments(c, args); c.Execute(); ============================ I don't get if we instantiate specific class before parsing arguments , what's the point of command line argument "run" which is very first one. I thought the idea was to instantiate and execute command/class based on a command line parameter ( "run" parameter becomes instance RunCommand class, "walk" becomes WalkCommand class and so on ). Can it be done with the latest version ?

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  • Is there a better way of launching same app from GUI or Command line

    - by markhunte
    Hi All, I worked out a way of running my Cocoa (GUI) app. From either the normal double clicking it, Or from the CLI. I realised that when an app launches from a double click (GUI), it returns an argument count (argc) of 0. But when launched from the CLI it will have an argc of 1. So long as I do not put any arguments myself. Which means I can use if.. else.. to determine how the app was launched. This works fine for my app as I do not need to put arguments. But I wondered if there was a better way of doing it. Here is an example of the code in the main.m int main (int argc, const char * argv[]) { //This determins if the app is launched from the command line or app itself is opened. if (argc == 1) { //app was run from CLI // Create a object MyClass *mMyClass; mMyClass = [[MyClass alloc] init]; // Read the Buffer [mMyClass readBuffer]; // Write out file on disk [mMyClass createFile]; [mMyClass doMoreStuff]; [mMyClass release]; mMyClass = nil; return 0; } else { NSAutoreleasePool * pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; //app was doubled click, (Opened) return NSApplicationMain(argc, (const char **) argv); [pool drain]; // */ // return NSApplicationMain(argc, (const char **) argv); }} Many Thanks. M

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  • Can't Change The Content of a Ajax Control After CallBack

    - by Kubi
    public void RaiseCallbackEvent(String eventArgument) { // Processes a callback event on the server using the event // argument from the client. //Response.Write(eventArgument); printAlternativesFromAirport(eventArgument); } public void printAlternativesFromAirport(string airport) { List<TravelPlan> alternatives = fit.Code.TextDataHelper.GetAllTravelPlansFromCity(airport); AlternativesAcc.Panes.Clear(); AjaxControlToolkit.AccordionPane p = new AjaxControlToolkit.AccordionPane(); Label header = new Label(); header.Text = airport; Label content = new Label(); content.Text = airport; p.HeaderContainer.Controls.Add(header); p.ContentContainer.Controls.Add(content); AlternativesAcc.Panes.Add(p); ... Hi, printAlternativesFromAirport method should change an accordion panel after the callback but it doesn't. Is there anything that i could set to fix this problem ? There should be stg with the page lifecycle but i can't figure it out ! Thanks

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  • FindBugs controversial description

    - by Tom Brito
    Am I understanding it wrong, or is the description wrong? Equals checks for noncompatible operand (EQ_CHECK_FOR_OPERAND_NOT_COMPATIBLE_WITH_THIS) This equals method is checking to see if the argument is some incompatible type (i.e., a class that is neither a supertype nor subtype of the class that defines the equals method). For example, the Foo class might have an equals method that looks like: public boolean equals(Object o) { if (o instanceof Foo) return name.equals(((Foo)o).name); else if (o instanceof String) return name.equals(o); else return false; This is considered bad practice, as it makes it very hard to implement an equals method that is symmetric and transitive. Without those properties, very unexpected behavoirs are possible. From: http://findbugs.sourceforge.net/bugDescriptions.html#EQ_CHECK_FOR_OPERAND_NOT_COMPATIBLE_WITH_THIS The description says that the Foo class might have an equals method like that, and after it says that "This is considered bad practice". I'm not getting the "right way".. How should the following method be to be right? @Override public boolean equals(Object obj) { if (obj instanceof DefaultTableModel) return model.equals((DefaultTableModel)obj); else return false; }

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  • (1 2 3 . #<void>)- heapsort

    - by superguay
    Hello everybody: I tried to implement a "pairing heap" with all the regular operations (merge, delete-min etc.), then I've been requested to write a function that would sort a list using my newly constructed heap implementation. Unfortunately it seems that someting goes wrong... Here's the relevant code: (define (heap-merge h1 h2) (cond ((heap-empty? h1) h2) ((heap-empty? h2) h1) (else (let ((min1 (heap-get-min h1)) (min2 (heap-get-min h2))) (if ((heap-get-less h1) min1 min2) (make-pairing-heap (heap-get-less h1) min1 (cons h2 (heap-get-subheaps h1))) (make-pairing-heap (heap-get-less h1) min2 (cons h1 (heap-get-subheaps h2)))))))) (define (heap-insert element h) (heap-merge (make-pairing-heap (heap-get-less h) element '()) h)) (define (heap-delete-min h) (define (merge-in-pairs less? subheaps) (cond ((null? subheaps) (make-heap less?)) ((null? (cdr subheaps)) (car subheaps)) (else (heap-merge (heap-merge (car subheaps) (cadr subheaps)) (merge-in-pairs less? (cddr subheaps)))))) (if (heap-empty? h) (error "expected pairing-heap for first argument, got an empty heap ") (merge-in-pairs (heap-get-less h) (heap-get-subheaps h)))) (define (heapsort l less?) (let aux ((h (accumulate heap-insert (make-heap less?) l))) (if (not (heap-empty? h)) (cons (heap-get-min h) (aux (heap-delete-min h)))))) And these are some selectors that may help you to understand the code: (define (make-pairing-heap less? min subheaps) (cons less? (cons min subheaps))) (define (make-heap less?) (cons less? '())) (define (heap-get-less h) (car h)) (define (heap-empty? h) (if (null? (cdr h)) #t #f)) Now lets get to the problem: When i run 'heapsort' it returns the sorted list with "void", as you can see: (heapsort (list 1 2 3) <) (1 2 3 . #)..HOW CAN I FIX IT? Regards, Superguay

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  • Image Conversion from Bitmap to Icon doesn't seem to work

    - by contactmatt
    I have a simple function that takes a bitmap, and converts the bitmap to an ICON format. Below is the function. (I placed literal values in place of the variables) Bitmap tempBmp = new Bitmap(@"C:\temp\mypicture.jpeg"); Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(tempBmp, 16, 16); bmp.Save("@C:\temp\mypicture2.ico", ImageFormat.Icon) It doesn't seem to be converting correctly...or so I think. After the image is converted, some browsers do not reconigze the image as a true "ICON" , and even Visual Studio 2008 doesn't reconigze the image as an icon after its converted to an Icon format. For example, I was going to set the Icon property for my Win32 form app with the Icon i just converted. I open the dialouge box and select the icon I just converted and get the following error. -- "Argument 'picture' must be a picture that can be used as a Icon." I've browsed the web and come across complicated code where people take the time to manually convert the bitmap to different formats, but I would think the above code should work, and that the .NET framework would take care of this conversion.

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  • Problem with WCF Streaming

    - by H4mm3rHead
    Hi, I was looking at this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1935040/how-to-handle-large-file-uploads-via-wcf I need to have a web service hosted at my provider where i need to upload and download files to. We are talking videos from 1Mb to 100Mb hence the streaming approach. I cant get it to work, i declared an Interface: [ServiceContract] public interface IFileTransferService { [OperationContract] void UploadFile(Stream stream); } and all is fine, i implement it like this: public string FileName = "test"; public void UploadFile(Stream stream) { try { FileStream outStream = File.Open(FileName, FileMode.Create, FileAccess.Write); const int bufferLength = 4096; byte[] buffer = new byte[bufferLength]; int count = 0; while((count = stream.Read(buffer, 0, bufferLength)) > 0) { //progress outStream.Write(buffer, 0, count); } outStream.Close(); stream.Close(); //saved } catch(Exception ex) { throw new Exception("error: "+ex.Message); } } Still no problem, its published to my webserver out on the interweb. So far so good. Now i make a reference to it and will pass it a FileStream, but the argument is now a byte[] - why is that and how do i get it the proper way for streaming? Edit My binding look like this: <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="StreamingFileTransferServicesBinding" transferMode="StreamedRequest" maxBufferSize="65536" maxReceivedMessageSize="204003200" /> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> I can consume it without problems, and get no errors - other than my input parameter has changed from a stream to a byte[]

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  • Can I avoid explicit 'self'?

    - by bguiz
    I am fairly new to Python and trying to pick it up, so please forgive if this question has a very obvious answer! I have been learning Python by following some pygame tutorials. Therein I found extensive use of the keyword self, and coming from a primarily Java background, I find that I keep forgetting to type self. For example, instead of self.rect.centerx I would type rect.centerx, because, to me, rect is already a member variable of the class. The Java parallel I can think of for this situation is having to prefix all references to member variables with this. Am I stuck prefixing all member variables with self, or is there a way to declare them that would allow me to avoid having to do so? Even if what I am suggesting isn't "pythonic", I'd still like to know if it is possible. I have taken a look at these related SO questions, but they don't quite answer what I am after: Python - why use “self” in a class? Why do you need explicitly have the “self” argument into a Python method?

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