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  • How can I pass a const array or a variable array to a function in C?

    - by CSharperWithJava
    I have a simple function Bar that uses a set of values from a data set that is passed in in the form of an Array of data structures. The data can come from two sources: a constant initialized array of default values, or a dynamically updated cache. The calling function determines which data is used and should be passed to Bar. Bar doesn't need to edit any of the data and in fact should never do so. How should I declare Bar's data parameter so that I can provide data from either set? union Foo { long _long; int _int; } static const Foo DEFAULTS[8] = {1,10,100,1000,10000,100000,1000000,10000000}; static Foo Cache[8] = {0}; void Bar(Foo* dataSet, int len);//example function prototype Note, this is C, NOT C++ if that makes a difference; Edit Oh, one more thing. When I use the example prototype I get a type qualifier mismatch warning, (because I'm passing a mutable reference to a const array?). What do I have to change for that?

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  • XSLT - Catching parameters

    - by Brian Roisentul
    The situation is I have two xslt files: one is called from my ASP.NET code, and there, the second xslt file is imported. What I'd like to accomplish is to pass a parameter to the first one so the second xslt(the one that is imported at the first xslt) can read it. My c# code looks like this: var oArgs = new XsltArgumentList(); oArgs.AddParam("fbLikeFeatureName", "", "Facebook_Like_Button"); ltlContentBody.Text = xmlUtil.TransformXML(oXmlDoc, Server.MapPath(eSpaceId + "/styles/ExploringXSLT/ExploreContentObjects.xslt"), true); And I'm catching the param at the first xslt this way: <xsl:param name="fbLikeFeatureName" /> And then, passing it to the second xslt like this(previously, I import that file): <xsl:call-template name="Articles"> <xsl:with-param name="fbLikeFeatureName"></xsl:with-param> </xsl:call-template> Finally, I'm catching the param on the second xslt file as following: <xsl:value-of select="$fbLikeButtonName"/> What Am I doing wrong? I'm kind of new at xslt.

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  • MySQL Stored Procedures : Use a variable as the database name in a cursor declaration

    - by Justin
    I need to use a variable to indicate what database to query in the declaration of a cursor. Here is a short snippet of the code : CREATE PROCEDURE `update_cdrs_lnp_data`(IN dbName VARCHAR(25), OUT returnCode SMALLINT) cdr_records:BEGIN DECLARE cdr_record_cursor CURSOR FOR SELECT cdrs_id, called, calling FROM dbName.cdrs WHERE lrn_checked = 'N'; # Setup logging DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION BEGIN #call log_debug('Got exception in update_cdrs_lnp_data'); SET returnCode = -1; END; As you can see, I'm TRYING to use the variable dbName to indicate in which database the query should occur within. However, MySQL will NOT allow that. I also tried things such as : CREATE PROCEDURE `update_cdrs_lnp_data`(IN dbName VARCHAR(25), OUT returnCode SMALLINT) cdr_records:BEGIN DECLARE cdr_record_cursor CURSOR FOR SET @query = CONCAT("SELECT cdrs_id, called, calling FROM " ,dbName, ".cdrs WHERE lrn_checked = 'N' "); PREPARE STMT FROM @query; EXECUTE STMT; # Setup logging DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION BEGIN #call log_debug('Got exception in update_cdrs_lnp_data'); SET returnCode = -1; END; Of course this doesn't work either as MySQL only allows a standard SQL statement in the cursor declaration. Can anyone think of a way to use the same stored procedure in multiple databases by passing in the name of the db that should be affected?

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  • How to pass date parameters to Crystal Reports 2008 from an ASP.NET App?

    - by Unlimited071
    Hello all, I'm passing some parameters to a CR report programatically and it was working fine, but now that I have added a new date parameter to the report, for some reason, it is prompting me to enter that parameter on screen (the user isn't allowed to set that parameter is the system who must set it.), I haven't changed a thing other than adding the new date parameter, and all the other parameters behave normal, just the date parameter is prompted even thought I've already set a value for the parameter. This is the code I've got: private void ConfigureCrystalReports() { crystalReportViewer.ReportSource = GetReportPath(); crystalReportViewer.DataBind(); ConnectionInfo connectionInfo = GetConnectionInfo(); TableLogOnInfos tableLogOnInfos = crystalReportViewer.LogOnInfo; foreach (TableLogOnInfo tableLogOnInfo in tableLogOnInfos) { tableLogOnInfo.ConnectionInfo = connectionInfo; } ArrayList totOriValues = new ArrayList(); totOriValues.Add(date.ToString("MM/dd/yyyy HH:mm:ss")); ParameterFields parameterFields = crystalReportViewer.ParameterFieldInfo; SetCurrentValuesForParameterField(parameterFields, totOriValues, "DateParameter"); } private static void SetCurrentValuesForParameterField(ParameterFields parameterFields, ArrayList arrayList, string parameterName) { ParameterValues currentParameterValues = new ParameterValues(); foreach (object submittedValue in arrayList) { ParameterDiscreteValue parameterDiscreteValue = new ParameterDiscreteValue(); parameterDiscreteValue.Value = submittedValue.ToString(); currentParameterValues.Add(parameterDiscreteValue); } ParameterField parameterField = parameterFields[parameterName]; parameterField.CurrentValues = currentParameterValues; } Just for the sake of things: I have checked that the parameter is indeed a date and that it is well formed. CR prompts me to enter it in the format (mm/dd/yyyy hh:mm:ss) so I pass date in that exact format (In fact I've even tried hard coding a well-formed date and it still prompts me to enter the date). Am I doing something wrong?

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  • Is it possible to render PDF (fPDF) via a javascript?

    - by J. LaRosee
    So, I'm passing some values via jQuery to the server, which generates PDF garble. It goes something like this: $.post('/admin/printBatch', data, // Some vars and such function(data){ if(data) { var batch = window.open('','Batch Print','width=600,height=600,location=_newtab'); var html = data; // Perhaps some header info here?! batch.document.open(); batch.document.write(html); batch.document.close(); $( this ).dialog( "close" ); // jQuery UI } else { alert("Something went wrong, dawg."); } return false; }); The output file looks roughly like so: $pdf->AddPage(null, null, 'A PDF Page'); //.... $pdf->Output('', 'I'); // 'I' sends the file inline to the browser (http://fpdf.org/en/doc/output.htm) What gets rendered to the browser window: %PDF-1.3 3 0 obj <> endobj 4 0 obj <> stream ... I'm missing something major, I just know it... thoughts? Thanks, guys.

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  • How to fetch and populate backbone model for Google Places JS API?

    - by code-gijoe
    I'm implementing a system that require access to Google Places JS API. I've been using rails for most of the project, but now I want to inject a bit of AJAX in one of my views. Basically it is a view that displays places near your location. For this, I'm using the JS API of Google places. A quick workflow would be: 1- The user inputs a text query and hits enter. 2- There is an AJAX call to request data from Google Places API. 3- The successful result is presented to the user. The problem is primarily in step 2. I want to use backbone for this but when I create a backbone model, it requests to the 'rootURL'. This wouldn't be a problem if the requests to Places was done from the server but it is not. A place call is done like this: service = new google.maps.places.PlacesService(map); service.nearbySearch(request, callback); Passing a callback function: function callback(results, status) { if (status == google.maps.places.PlacesServiceStatus.OK) { for (var i = 0; i < results.length; i++) { var place = results[i]; createMarker(results[i]); } } } Is it possible to override the 'fetch' method in backbone model and populate the model with the successful Places result? Is this a bad idea?

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  • Asp.net membership salt?

    - by chobo2
    Hi Does anyone know how Asp.net membership generates their salt key and then how they encode it(ie is it salt + password or password + salt)? I am using sha1 with my membership but I would like to recreate the same salts so the built in membership stuff could hash the stuff the same way as my stuff can. Thanks Edit 2 Never Mind I mis read it and was thinking it said bytes not bit. So I was passing in 128 bytes not 128bits. Edit I been trying to make it so this is what I have public string EncodePassword(string password, string salt) { byte[] bytes = Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(password); byte[] src = Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(salt); byte[] dst = new byte[src.Length + bytes.Length]; Buffer.BlockCopy(src, 0, dst, 0, src.Length); Buffer.BlockCopy(bytes, 0, dst, src.Length, bytes.Length); HashAlgorithm algorithm = HashAlgorithm.Create("SHA1"); byte[] inArray = algorithm.ComputeHash(dst); return Convert.ToBase64String(inArray); } private byte[] createSalt(byte[] saltSize) { byte[] saltBytes = saltSize; RNGCryptoServiceProvider rng = new RNGCryptoServiceProvider(); rng.GetNonZeroBytes(saltBytes); return saltBytes; } So I have not tried to see if the asp.net membership will recognize this yet the hashed password looks close. I just don't know how to convert it to base64 for the salt. I did this byte[] storeSalt = createSalt(new byte[128]); string salt = Encoding.Unicode.GetString(storeSalt); string base64Salt = Convert.ToBase64String(storeSalt); int test = base64Salt.Length; Test length is 172 what is well over the 128bits so what am I doing wrong? This is what their salt looks like vkNj4EvbEPbk1HHW+K8y/A== This is what my salt looks like E9oEtqo0livLke9+csUkf2AOLzFsOvhkB/NocSQm33aySyNOphplx9yH2bgsHoEeR/aw/pMe4SkeDvNVfnemoB4PDNRUB9drFhzXOW5jypF9NQmBZaJDvJ+uK3mPXsWkEcxANn9mdRzYCEYCaVhgAZ5oQRnnT721mbFKpfc4kpI=

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  • Textures in Opengl ES 2 not working properly

    - by Adl
    Hi! I'm working with Opengl ES 2 on iphone and right now I am trying to get my textures working on my objects. I'm using .obj files and all the data in them are correct. I have written a parser myself to retrieve all data, I convert it to static arrays in C. I discard the material properties for now, only getting the image path from the .mtl files manually. I have an object with 336 triangles, making this non-trivial to observe, with appertaining vertices, vertex faces and texture coordinates (u,v). Passing all data into the shaders, the resulting image is this: http://img530.imageshack.us/img530/9637/pic1io.png http://img404.imageshack.us/img404/7358/pic2pg.png But it should look like this (Displaying it in an object viewer). Please ignore the material properties. http://img16.imageshack.us/img16/1401/pic3cq.png Using this image as a texture: http://img217.imageshack.us/img217/1300/shirtdiffuse.png I'm thinking it might have to do with texture coordinate faces ? It is defined in my .obj file, and I'm not using them at all. In books and tutorials I have not found anything concerning this. Regards Niclas

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  • How to pass Event as a parameter in JQuery function

    - by Manas Saha
    Hi I am learning JQuery and I have written a small function where I am attaching a function with a button's click event. this is the head element of the HTML <script type="text/javascript"> $(pageLoaded); function pageLoaded() { $("#Button1").bind("click", { key1: "value1", key2: "value2" }, function buttonClick(event) { $("#displayArea").text(event.data.key1); } ); } </script> This is the body of the HTML <input id="Button1" type="button" value="button" /> <div id = "displayArea" style="border:2px solid black; width:300px; height:200px"> This code works fine. But when I try to write the buttonClick function outside the anonymus method, it does not work anymore. I tried to call it this way: $("#Button1").bind("click", { key1: "value1", key2: "value2" }, buttonClick(event)); function buttonClick(var event) { $("#displayArea").text(event.data.key1); } This is not working. Am I doing some mistake while passing the Event as parameter? what is the correct way to do it without using anonymous methods?

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  • What's the boost way to create a functor that binds out an argument

    - by Mordachai
    I have need for a function pointer that takes two arguments and returns a string. I would like to pass an adapter that wraps a function that takes one argument, and returns the string (i.e. discard one of the arguments). I can trivially build my own adapter, that takes the 2 arguments, calls the wrapped function passing just the one argument through. But I'd much rather have a simple way to create an adapter on the fly, if there is an easy way to do so in C++/boost? Here's some details to make this a bit more concrete: typedef boost::function<CString (int,int)> TooltipTextFn; class MyCtrl { public: MyCtrl(TooltipTextFn callback = boost::bind(&MyCtrl::GetCellText, this, _1, _2)) : m_callback(callback) { } // QUESTION: how to trivially wrapper GetRowText to conform to TooltipTextFn by just discarding _2 ?! void UseRowText() { m_callback = boost::bind(&MyCtrl::GetRowText, this, _1, ??); } private: CString GetCellText(int row, int column); CString GetRowText(int row); TooltipTextFn m_callback; } Obviously, I can supply a member that adapts GetRowText to take two arguments and only passes the first to GetRowText() itself. But is there already a boost binder / adapter that lets me do that?

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  • How do you send in the LayoutRoot into a RelayCommand via a EventToCommand?

    - by user298145
    Grid example with the trigger: <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" DataContext="{Binding ProjectGrid, Source={StaticResource Locator}}"> <i:Interaction.Triggers> <i:EventTrigger EventName="Loaded"> <GalaSoft_MvvmLight_Command:EventToCommand Command="{Binding LoadedCommand, Mode=OneWay}" PassEventArgsToCommand="True"/> </i:EventTrigger> </i:Interaction.Triggers> In my ViewModel I set the LoadedCommand like this: public RelayCommand<RoutedEventArgs> LoadedCommand {get;private set;} And in the ViewModel initializer I have this: public ProjectGridViewModel() { LoadedCommand = new RelayCommand<RoutedEventArgs>(e => { this.DoLoaded(e); } ); } Then, in my DoLoaded I'm trying to do this: Grid _projectGrid = null; public void DoLoaded(RoutedEventArgs e) { _projectGrid = e.OriginalSource as Grid; } You can see I'm trying to get rid of my Loaded="" in my Grid in my view, and do a RelayCommand instead. The issue is the OriginalSource brings back nothing. My loaded event is running nice this way, but I need to get the Grid in via the RoutedEventArgs it seems. I tried passing in the Grid in the EventCommand with CommandParameter="{Binding ElementName=LayoutRoot}", but this just crashes VS2010 when hitting F5 and running the project. Any ideas? Or a better way to do this? I had the Loaded event run in the views C# then call the ViewModel in the Views code-behind, but I'd like to do a nicer binding. Talking to the ViewMode in the Views code-behind feels like a hack.

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  • Calling SDL/OpenGL from Assembly code on Linux

    - by Lie Ryan
    I'm write a simple graphic-based program in Assembly for learning purpose; for this, I intended to use either OpenGL or SDL. I'm trying to call OpenGL/SDL's function from assembly. The problem is, unlike many assembly and OpenGL/SDL tutorials I found in the internet, the OpenGL/SDL in my machine apparently doesn't use C calling convention. I wrote a simple program in C, compile it to assembly (using -S switch), and apparently the assembly code that is generated by GCC calls the OpenGL/SDL functions by passing parameters in the registers instead of being pushed to the stack. Now, the question is, how do I determine how to pass arguments to these OpenGL/SDL functions? That is, how do I figure out which argument corresponds to which registers? Obviously since GCC can compile C code to call OpenGL/SDL, so therefore there must be a way to figure out the correspondence between function arguments and registers. In C calling conventions, the rule is easy, push parameters backwards and return value in eax/rax, I can simply read their C documentation and I can easily figure out how to pass the parameters. But how about these? Is there a way to call OpenGL/SDL using C calling convention? btw, I'm using yasm, with gcc/ld as the linker on Gentoo Linux amd64.

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  • SharpDevelop WIX project: MSBuild Configurations

    - by chezy525
    Using SharpDevelop, I wrote a windows service with a WIX setup project to install/auto-start it. For testing purposes, I've done a number of things I don't want to do in the release version (i.e. add an uninstall shortcut to the desktop). So, my question really boils down to this; how do you handle build configurations within a WiX project? I think I've solved most of my problems after I found this question Passing build parameters to .wxs file to dynamicaly build wix installers. And thus far I've done the following: Added a property that checks the Configuration variable <Product> ... <Property Id="DEBUG">$(var.Configuration) == 'Debug'</Property> ... Separated all of the debug files into unique components and setup as a separate feature with a condition checking the DEBUG property. <Product> ... <Feature> ... <Feature Id="DebugFiles" Level="1"> <ComponentRef Id="UninstallShortcutComponent" /> <Condition Level="0">DEBUG</Condition> </Feature> ... Then, finally, pointing to the correct file based on the configuration, using the Configuration variable <Directory> ... <Component> <File Source="..\mainProject\bin\$(var.Configuration)\main.exe" /> </Component> ... So, now my question is simplified to how to handle files that may not exist under certain build configurations (like .pdb files). Using all of the above (including pointing the file source to the ...\bin\Release\*.pdb, which I know isn't expected to exist) I get a LGHT0103 compiler error, it can't find the file.

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  • mod_rewrite if file exists

    - by Mathieu Parent
    Hi everyone, I already have two rewrite rules that work correctly for now but some more code has to be added to work perfectly. I have a website hosted at mydomain.com and all subdom.mydomain.com are rewrited to mydomain.com/subs/subdom . My CMS has to handle the request if the file being reached does not exist, the rewrite is done like so: RewriteCond $1 !^subs/ RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+)\.mydomain\.com$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ subs/%1/index.php?page=$1 [L] My CMS handles the next part of the parsing as usual. The problem is if a file really exists, I need to link to it without passing through my CMS, I managed to do it like this: RewriteCond $1 !^subs/ RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+)\.mydomain\.com$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -f [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ subs/%1/$1 [L] So far it seems to work like a charm. Now I am being picky and I need to have default files that are stored in subs/default/. If the file exists in the subdomain folder, we should grab this one but if not, we need to get the file from the default subdomain. And if the file does not exist anywhere, we should be using the 404 page from the current subdomain unless there is none. I hope it describes well enough. Thank you for your time!

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  • C++0x rvalue references and temporaries

    - by Doug
    (I asked a variation of this question on comp.std.c++ but didn't get an answer.) Why does the call to f(arg) in this code call the const ref overload of f? void f(const std::string &); //less efficient void f(std::string &&); //more efficient void g(const char * arg) { f(arg); } My intuition says that the f(string &&) overload should be chosen, because arg needs to be converted to a temporary no matter what, and the temporary matches the rvalue reference better than the lvalue reference. This is not what happens in GCC and MSVC. In at least G++ and MSVC, any lvalue does not bind to an rvalue reference argument, even if there is an intermediate temporary created. Indeed, if the const ref overload isn't present, the compilers diagnose an error. However, writing f(arg + 0) or f(std::string(arg)) does choose the rvalue reference overload as you would expect. From my reading of the C++0x standard, it seems like the implicit conversion of a const char * to a string should be considered when considering if f(string &&) is viable, just as when passing a const lvalue ref arguments. Section 13.3 (overload resolution) doesn't differentiate between rvalue refs and const references in too many places. Also, it seems that the rule that prevents lvalues from binding to rvalue references (13.3.3.1.4/3) shouldn't apply if there's an intermediate temporary - after all, it's perfectly safe to move from the temporary. Is this: Me misreading/misunderstand the standard, where the implemented behavior is the intended behavior, and there's some good reason why my example should behave the way it does? A mistake that the compiler vendors have somehow all made? Or a mistake based on common implementation strategies? Or a mistake in e.g. GCC (where this lvalue/rvalue reference binding rule was first implemented), that was copied by other vendors? A defect in the standard, or an unintended consequence, or something that should be clarified?

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  • How to receive Email in JEE application

    - by Hank
    Obviously it's not so difficult to send out emails from a JEE application via JavaMail. What I am interested in is the best pattern to receive emails (notification bounces, mostly)? I am not interested in IMAP/POP3-based approaches (polling the inbox) - my application shall react to inbound emails. One approach I could think of would be Keep existing MTA (postfix on linux in my case) - ops team already knows how to configure / operate it For every mail that arrives, spawn a Java app that receives the data and sends it off via JMS. I could do this via an entry in /etc/aliases like myuser: "|/path/to/javahelper" with javahelper calling the Java app, passing STDIN along. MDB (part of JEE application) receives JMS message, parses it, detects bounce message and acts accordingly. Another approach could be Open a listening network socket on port 25 on the JEE application container. Associate a SessionBean with the socket. Bean is part of JEE application and can parse/detect bounces/handle the messages directly. Keep existing MTA as inbound relay, do all its security/spam filtering, but forward emails to myuser (that pass the filter) to the JEE application container, port 25. The first approach I have done before (albeit in a different language/setup). From a performance and (perceived) cleanliness point of view, I think the second approach is better, but it would require me to provide a proper SMTP transport implementation. Also, I don't know if it's at all possible to connect a network socket with a bean... What is your recommendation? Do you have details about the second approach?

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  • PHP + MYSQLI: Variable parameter/result binding with prepared statements.

    - by Brian Warshaw
    In a project that I'm about to wrap up, I've written and implemented an object-relational mapping solution for PHP. Before the doubters and dreamers cry out "how on earth?", relax -- I haven't found a way to make late static binding work -- I'm just working around it in the best way that I possibly can. Anyway, I'm not currently using prepared statements for querying, because I couldn't come up with a way to pass a variable number of arguments to the bind_params() or bind_result() methods. Why do I need to support a variable number of arguments, you ask? Because the superclass of my models (think of my solution as a hacked-up PHP ActiveRecord wannabe) is where the querying is defined, and so the find() method, for example, doesn't know how many parameters it would need to bind. Now, I've already thought of building an argument list and passing a string to eval(), but I don't like that solution very much -- I'd rather just implement my own security checks and pass on statements. Does anyone have any suggestions (or success stories) about how to get this done? If you can help me solve this first problem, perhaps we can tackle binding the result set (something I suspect will be more difficult, or at least more resource-intensive if it involves an initial query to determine table structure).

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  • nhibernate : Repository Session Management

    - by frosty
    At the moment my repository has 2 constructors. When i call these from my mvc website i am alway calling first constructor and thus opening a new session. Should i been passing in the session. How should i be doing this. public CompanyRepository() { _session = NHibernateHelper.OpenSession(); } public CompanyRepository(ISession session) { _session = session; } public class NHibernateHelper { private static ISessionFactory _sessionFactory; private static ISessionFactory SessionFactory { get { if (_sessionFactory == null) { var configuration = new Configuration(); configuration.Configure(); configuration.AddAssembly(typeof(UserProfile).Assembly); configuration.SetProperty(NHibernate.Cfg.Environment.ConnectionStringName, System.Environment.MachineName); _sessionFactory = configuration.BuildSessionFactory(); } return _sessionFactory; } } public static ISession OpenSession() { return SessionFactory.OpenSession(); } } I'm using the Ninject IOC container ( very new to me ). I have the following container. How would i bind the ISession to the CompanyRepository. private class EStoreDependencies : NinjectModule { public override void Load() { Bind<ICompanyRepository>().To<CompanyRepository>(); Bind<IUserProfileRepository>().To<UserProfileRepository>(); Bind<IAddressRepository>().To<AddressRepository>(); Bind<IRolesService>().To<AspNetRoleProviderWrapper>(); Bind<IUserService>().To<AspNetMembershipProviderWrapper>(); Bind<ICurrentUserSerivce>().To<DefaultCurrentUserSerivce>(); Bind<IPasswordService>().To<AspNetMembershipProviderWrapper>(); Bind<IStatusResponseRepository>().To<StatusResponseRepository>(); Bind<ICategoryRepository>().To<CategoryRepository>(); Bind<IProductRepository>().To<ProductRepository>(); } }

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  • NSIS patching (multiple patches in one file)

    - by Owen
    I'm able to generate patch files from one version to another using NSIS' Vpatch. Let's say I have mydll.dll version 1, and I have a patch to update it to version 2. Then I have a new version again, thus I generate another patch to update it to version 3. What bothers me though is, what if user cancels updating to version 2 and so forth. Then my latest version let's say is version 20. User decides to update to version 20. Is there a way to generate a patch that's like accumulative in nature? whereas user can jump from version any old version to the newest version (i.e ver 3 to ver 20) without passing through the versions in between? I've read this line in vpatch's documentation --- "if you want to be able to upgrade version 1 and 2 to version 3, you can put a 1 3 and 2 3 patch in one file." But how do I that? What if I alread have like 30 versions. Does that mean I have to create a patch whose arguments are old files(versions 1-29) and new file(version20)? Any help would be appreciated. Thanks...

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  • Finding Palindromes in an Array

    - by Jack L.
    For this assignemnt, I think that I got it right, but when I submit it online, it doesn't list it as correct even though I checked with Eclipse. The prompt: Write a method isPalindrome that accepts an array of Strings as its argument and returns true if that array is a palindrome (if it reads the same forwards as backwards) and /false if not. For example, the array {"alpha", "beta", "gamma", "delta", "gamma", "beta", "alpha"} is a palindrome, so passing that array to your method would return true. Arrays with zero or one element are considered to be palindromes. My code: public static void main(String[] args) { String[] input = new String[6]; //{"aay", "bee", "cee", "cee", "bee", "aay"} Should return true input[0] = "aay"; input[1] = "bee"; input[2] = "cee"; input[3] = "cee"; input[4] = "bee"; input[5] = "aay"; System.out.println(isPalindrome(input)); } public static boolean isPalindrome(String[] input) { for (int i=0; i<input.length; i++) { // Checks each element if (input[i] != input[input.length-1-i]){ return false; // If a single instance of non-symmetry } } return true; // If symmetrical, only one element, or zero elements } As an example, {"aay", "bee", "cee", "cee", "bee", "aay"} returns true in Eclipse, but Practice-It! says it returns false. What is going on?

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  • Python - Checking for membership inside nested dict

    - by victorhooi
    heya, This is a followup questions to this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2901422/python-dictreader-skipping-rows-with-missing-columns Turns out I was being silly, and using the wrong ID field. I'm using Python 3.x here. I have a dict of employees, indexed by a string, "directory_id". Each value is a nested dict with employee attributes (phone number, surname etc.). One of these values is a secondary ID, say "internal_id", and another is their manager, call it "manager_internal_id". The "internal_id" field is non-mandatory, and not every employee has one. (I've simplified the fields a little, both to make it easier to read, and also for privacy/compliance reasons). The issue here is that we index (key) each employee by their directory_id, but when we lookup their manager, we need to find managers by their "internal_id". Before, when employee.keys() was a list of internal_ids, I was using a membership check on this. Now, the last part of my if statement won't work, since the internal_ids is part of the dict values, instead of the key itself. def lookup_supervisor(manager_internal_id, employees): if manager_internal_idis not None and manager_internal_id!= "" and manager_internal_id in employees.keys(): return (employees[manager_internal_id]['mail'], employees[manager_internal_id]['givenName'], employees[manager_internal_id]['sn']) else: return ('Supervisor Not Found', 'Supervisor Not Found', 'Supervisor Not Found') So the first question is, how do I check whether the manager_internal_id is present in the dict's values. I've tried substituting employee.keys() with employee.values(), that didn't work. Also, I'm hoping for something a little more efficient, not sure if there's a way to get a subset of the values, specifically, all the entries for employees[directory_id]['internal_id']. Hopefully there's some Pythonic way of doing this, without using a massive heap of nested for/if loops. My second question is, how do I then cleanly return the required employee attributes (mail, givenname, surname etc.). My for loop is iterating over each employee, and calling lookup_supervisor. I'm feeling a bit stupid/stumped here. def tidy_data(employees): for directory_id, data in employees.items(): # We really shouldnt' be passing employees back and forth like this - hmm, classes? data['SupervisorEmail'], data['SupervisorFirstName'], data['SupervisorSurname'] = lookup_supervisor(data['manager_internal_id'], employees) Thanks in advance =), Victor

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  • Redirecting users after destroy

    - by mathee
    I have 3 models: Questions, Answers, and Profiles (I know, it should be called "Users"). When you view a question Q, I query the database for the answers to Q. (They are linked by id.) In the view, the current user has the option to delete his answer by clicking on the destroy link displayed next to his answer: %table %tr %td Answers: - @answers.each do |a| %tr %td - @provider = Profile.find(a.provider) %i #{h @provider.username} said: %br #{h a.description} %td = link_to 'View full answer', a %td - if a.provider == @profile.id #{link_to 'Delete my answer', a, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete} The problem is that when the user clicks on the destroy link, it redirects to the /answers/index. I want it to redirect to /questions/Q. What's the best way to do this? I know that there's a redirect_to method, but I don't know how to implement it when I want to redirect to an action for a different controller. It also needs to remember the question from which the answer is being deleted. I tried passing something like :question_id in link_to as: #{link_to 'Delete my answer', a, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :question_id => @question.id, :method => :delete} In AnswersController#destroy: def destroy @answer = Answer.find(params[:id]) @answer.destroy respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to(answers_url) } format.xml { head :ok } end @question = Question.find(params[:question_id]) redirect_to question_path(@question) end The :question_id information is not passed to the destroy method, so I get this error: Couldn't find Question without an ID To confirm, I added a puts call before Question.find, and it returned nil.

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  • .NET: How to pass value when subscribing to event and obtain it when the event is triggered (Dynamic

    - by Entrase
    The task is to create event handlers in runtime. I need the one method to be called with different parameter value for different events. The events and their number are only known in runtime. So I'm trying to generate dynamic methods, each of which will be assigned to some event, but in general they all just pass some value to an instance method and call it. It would be great if something similar could be done the easier way. I mean passing some value at subscribing stage and then obtaining it when the event is triggered. This is what I'm trying to do now: public class EventSource { public event EventHandler eventOne; public event EventHandler eventTwO; public event EventHandler eventThree; } public class EventListener { SubscribeForEvents() { BindingFlags flags = BindingFlags.IgnoreCase | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Instance; // Suppose we've already got EventInfo // and target source somewhere // so we can do eventInfo.AddEventHandler(target, delegate) // Now we need a delegate. int value = 42; Type tDelegate = eventInfo.EventHandlerType; // http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms228976(VS.95).aspx Type returnType = GetDelegateReturnType(tDelegate); DynamicMethod listener = new DynamicMethod("", null, GetDelegateParameterTypes(tDelegate), this.GetType()); ///////// Type[] callParameters = { typeof(int) }; MethodInfo method = this.GetType().GetMethod("ToCallFromDelegate", flags); ILGenerator generator = listener.GetILGenerator(); // No success in this mess. What's wrong? generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldc_I4, value); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Call, method); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Pop); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ret); ///////////// Delegate delegate = listener.CreateDelegate(tDelegate); eventInfo.AddEventHandler(target, delegate); // When triggered, there is InvalidProgramException } void ToCallFromDelegate(int value) { doSomething(); } }

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  • Update or Insert Row depending on whether row is present in Microsoft SQL Server 2005

    - by Srikanth
    Hi, I am passing a XML document as a input to a stored procedure in Microsoft SQL Server 2005. This is the sample XML being passed as input <Strategy StrategyID="0" TOStrategyID="8" ShutdownQtySell="1" ShutdownQtyBuy="1"> <ParameterRange ParameterSetID="6" ParameterRangeID="1" ParameterRangeFrom="0" ParameterRangeTo="20" ParameterAutoTakeOut="False"> </ParameterRange> <ParameterRange ParameterSetID="6" ParameterRangeID="4" ParameterRangeFrom="21" ParameterRangeTo="40" ParameterAutoTakeOut="False"> </ParameterRange> <ParameterRange ParameterSetID="6" ParameterRangeID="5" ParameterRangeFrom="41" ParameterRangeTo="60" ParameterAutoTakeOut="False"> </ParameterRange> <ParameterRange ParameterSetID="6" ParameterRangeID="6" ParameterRangeFrom="61" ParameterRangeTo="80" ParameterAutoTakeOut="False"> </ParameterRange> <ParameterRange ParameterSetID="6" ParameterRangeID="7" ParameterRangeFrom="81" ParameterRangeTo="100" ParameterAutoTakeOut="False"> </ParameterRange> </Strategy> I am able to retrieve the data using OpenXML functionality in SQL server I am using this to get the data corresponding to ParameterRange rows SELECT ParameterRangeID as iRangeID, ParameterSetID as iSetID, ParameterRangeFrom as fRangeFrom, ParameterRangeTo as fRangeTo, ParameterAutoTakeOut as bTakeoutEnabled FROM OPENXML(@idoc, '/Strategy/ParameterRange', 1) WITH (ParameterSetID int,ParameterRangeID int,ParameterRangeFrom float,ParameterRangeTo float,ParameterAutoTakeOut bit) Now, I need to insert/update these rows into a table TempRanges which has (iRangeID,iSetID) as the primary key. If there is a row with the primary key, I want to update it the latest values and If there is no row with that primary key, I need to insert into the table. How can I accomplish this inside the Stored Procedure ? Thanks, Sri

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  • How do I convert an AMD module from a singleton to an instance?

    - by Jamie Ide
    I'm trying to convert a working Durandal view model module from a singleton to an instance. The original working version followed this pattern: define(['knockout'], function(ko) { var vm = { activate: activate, companyId: null; company: ko.observable({}) }; return vm; function activate(companyId) { vm.companyId = companyId; //get company data then vm.company(data); } } The new version exports a function so that I get a new instance on every request... define(['knockout'], function(ko) { var vm = function() { activate = activate; companyId = null; company = ko.observable({}); }; return vm; function activate(companyId) { vm.companyId = companyId; //get company data then vm.company(data); } } The error I'm getting is "object function () [...function signature...] has no method company on the line vm.company(data);. What am I doing wrong? Why can I set the property but can't access the knockout observable? How should I refactor the original code so that I get a new instance on every request? My efforts to simplify the code for this question hid the actual problem. My real code was using Q promises and calling two methods with Q.All. Since Q is in the global namespace, it couldn't resolve my viewmodel after converting to a function. Passing the view model to the methods called by Q resolved the problem.

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