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• KISS: Simple C# application which communicates with a RESTful web service.

  - by Workshop Alex

  Following the KISS principle, I suddenly realised the following: In .NET, you can use the Entity Model Framework to wrap around a database. This model can be exposed as a web service through WCF. This web service would have a very standardized definition. A client application could be created which could consume any such RESTful web service. I don't want to re-invent the wheel and it wouldn't surprise me if someone has already done this, so my question is simple: Has anyone already created a simple (desktop, not web) client application that can consume a RESTful service that's based on the Entity Framework and which will allow the user to read and write data directly to this service? Otherwise, I'll just have to "invent" this myself. :-)Problem is, the database layer and RESTful service is already finished. The RESTful service will only stay in the project during it's development phase, since we can use the database-layer assembly directly from the web applications that are build around it. When the web application is deployed, the RESTful services are just kept out of the deployment. But the database has a lot of data to manage over nearly 50 tables. When developing against a local database, we can have straight access to the database so I wouldn't need this tool for this. When it's deployed, the web application would be the only way to access the data so I could not use this tool. But we're also having a test phase where the database is stored on another system outside the local domain and this database is not available for developers. Only administrators have direct access to this database, making tests a bit more complex. However, through the RESTful service, I can still access the data directly. Thus, when some test goes wrong, I can repair the data through this connection or just create a copy of the data for tests on my local system. There's plenty of other functionality and it's even possible to just open the URL to a table service straight in Excel or XMLSpy to see the contents. But when I want to write something back, I have to write special code to do just that. A generic tool that would allow me to access the data and modify it would be easier. Since it's a generic setup around the ADO.NET Data services, this should be reasonable easy too. Thus, I can do it but hoped someone else has already done something similar. But it appears that there's no such tool made yet...

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• user generated / user specific functions

  - by pedalpete

  I'm looking for the most elegant and secure method to do the following. I have a calendar, and groups of users. Users can add events to specific days on the calendar, and specify how long each event lasts for. I've had a few requests from users to add the ability for them to define that events of a specific length include a break, of a certain amount of time, or require that a specific amount of time be left between events. For example, if event is 2 hours, include a 20min break. for each event, require 30 minutes before start of next event. The same group that has asked for an event of 2 hours to include a 20 min break, could also require that an event 3 hours include a 30 minute break. In the end, what the users are trying to get is an elapsed time excluding breaks calculated for them. Currently I provide them a total elapsed time, but they are looking for a running time. However, each of these requests is different for each group. Where one group may want a 30 minute break during a 2 hour event, and another may want only 10 minutes for each 3 hour event. I was kinda thinking I could write the functions into a php file per group, and then include that file and do the calculations via php and then return a calculated total to the user, but something about that doesn't sit right with me. Another option is to output the groups functions to javascript, and have it run client-side, as I'm already returning the duration of the event, but where the user is part of more than one group with different rules, this seems like it could get rather messy. I currently store the start and end time in the database, but no 'durations', and I don't think I should be storing the calculated totals in the db, because if a group decides to change their calculations, I'd need to change it throughout the db. Is there a better way of doing this? I would just store the variables in mysql, but I don't see how I can then say to mysql to calculate based on those variables. I'm REALLY lost here. Any suggestions? I'm hoping somebody has done something similar and can provide some insight into the best direction. If it helps, my table contains eventid, user, group, startDate, startTime, endDate, endTime, type The json for the event which I return to the user is {"eventid":"'.$eventId.'", "user":"'.$userId.'","group":"'.$groupId.'","type":"'.$type.'","startDate":".$startDate.'","startTime":"'.$startTime.'","endDate":"'.$endDate.'","endTime":"'.$endTime.'","durationLength":"'.$duration.'", "durationHrs":"'.$durationHrs.'"} where for example, duration length is 2.5 and duration hours is 2:30.

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• load google annotated chart within jquery ui tab content via ajax method

  - by twmulloy

  Hi, I am encountering an issue with trying to load a google annotated chart (http://code.google.com/apis/visualization/documentation/gallery/annotatedtimeline.html) within a jquery ui tab using content via ajax method (http://jqueryui.com/demos/tabs/#ajax). If instead I use the default tabs functionality, writing out the code things work fine: <div id="tabs"> <ul> <li><a href="#tabs-1">Chart</a></li> </ul> <div id="tabs-1"> <script type="text/javascript"> google.load('visualization', '1', {'packages':['annotatedtimeline']}); google.setOnLoadCallback(drawChart); function drawChart() { var data = new google.visualization.DataTable(); data.addColumn('date', 'Date'); data.addColumn('number', 'cloudofinc.com'); data.addColumn('string', 'header'); data.addColumn('string', 'text') data.addColumn('number', 'All Clients'); data.addRows([ [new Date('May 12, 2010'), 2, '2 New Users', '', 3], [new Date('May 13, 2010'), 0, undefined, undefined, 0], [new Date('May 14, 2010'), 0, undefined, undefined, 0], ]); var chart = new google.visualization.AnnotatedTimeLine(document.getElementById('chart_users')); chart.draw(data, { displayAnnotations: false, fill: 10, thickness: 1 }); } </script> <div id='chart_users' style='width: 100%; height: 400px;'></div> </div> </div> But if I use the ajax method for jquery ui tab and point to the partial for the tab, it doesn't work completely. The page renders and once the chart loads, the browser window goes white. However, you can see the tab partial flash just before the chart appears to finish rendering (the chart never actually displays). I have verified that the partial is indeed loading properly without the chart. <div id="tabs"> <ul> <li><a href="ajax/tabs-1">Chart</a></li> </ul> </div>

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• Prototype JS swallows errors in dom:loaded, and ajax callbacks?

  - by WishCow

  I can't figure out why prototype suppressess the error messages in the dom:loaded event, and in AJAX handlers. Given the following piece of HTML: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.1//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml11/DTD/xhtml11.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>Conforming XHTML 1.1 Template</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="prototype.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> document.observe('dom:loaded', function() { console.log('domready'); console.log(idontexist); }); </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> The domready event fires, I see the log in the console, but there is no indication of any errors whatsoever. If you move the console.log(idontexist); line out of the handler, you get the idontexist is not defined error in the console. I find it a little weird, that in other event handlers, like 'click', you get the error message, it seems that it's only the dom:loaded that has this problem. The same goes for AJAX handlers: new Ajax.Request('/', { method: 'get', onComplete: function(r) { console.log('xhr complete'); alert(youwontseeme); } }); You won't see any errors. This is with prototype.js 1.6.1, and I can't find any indication of this behavior in the docs, nor a way to enable error reporting in these handlers. I have tried stepping through the code with FireBug's debugger, and it seems to jump to a function on line 53 named K, when it encounters the missing variable in the dom:loaded handler: K: function(x) { return x } But how? Why? When? I can't see any try/catch block there, how does the program flow end up there? I know that I can make the errors visible by packing my dom:ready handler(s) in try/catch blocks, but that's not a very comfortable option. Same goes for registering a global onException handler for the AJAX calls. Why does it even suppress the errors? Did someone encounter this before?

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• WCF XmlSerializer assembly not speeding up first request

  - by Matt Dearing

  I am generating proxy classes to a clients java webservice wsdls and xsd files with svcutil. The first call made to each service proxy class takes a very long time. I was hoping to speed this up by generating the XmlSerializers assembly myself (based on the article How to: Improve the Startup Time of WCF Client Applications using the XmlSerializer), but when I do the first call to each service still takes the same amount of time. Here are the steps I am following: //generate strong name key file sn -k Blah.snk //generate the proxy class file svcutil blah.wsdl blah2.wsdl blah3.wsdl ... base.xsd blah.xsd ... /UseSerializerForFaults /ser:XmlSerializer /n:*,SomeNamespace /out:Blah.cs //compile the class into an assembly signing it with the strong name key file csc /target:library /keyfile:Blah.snk /out:Blah.dll Blah.cs //generate the XmlSerializer code this will give us Blah.XmlSerializers.dll.cs svcutil /t:xmlSerializer Blah.dll //compile the xmlserializer code into its own dll using the same key to sign it and referencing the original dll csc /target:library /keyfile:Blah.snk /out:Blah.XmlSerializers.dll Blah.XmlSerializers.dll.cs /r:Blah.dll I then create a standard Console application that references both Blah.dll and Blah.XmlSerializers.dll. I will then try something like: //BlahProxy is one of the generated service proxy classes BlahProxy p = new BlahProxy(); //this call takes 30ish seconds p.SomeMethod(); BlahProxy p2 = new BlahProxy(); //this call takes < 1 second p2.SomeMethod(); //BlahProx2y is one of the generated service proxy classes BlahProxy2 p3 = new BlahProxy2(); //this call takes 30ish seconds p3.SomeMethod(); BlahProxy2 p4 = new BlahProxy2(); //this call takes < 1 second p4.SomeMethod(); I know that the problem is not server side because I don't see the request made in Fiddler until around 29 seconds. Subsequent calls to each service take < 1 second, so thats why I was hoping the main slow down was the .net runtime generating the xmlserializer code itself, compiling it and loading the assembly. I figured this would be the reason the first call to each service is slow and the rest are fast. Unfortunatley, me generating the code myself is not speeding anything up. Does anyone see what I am doing wrong?

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• make an http post from server using user credentials - integrated security

  - by opensas

  I'm trying to make a post, from an asp classic server side page, using the user credentials... I'm using msxml2.ServerXMLHTTP to programatically make the post I've tried with several configurations in the IIS 5.1 site, but there's no way I can make IIS run with a specified account... I made a little asp page that runs whoami to verify what account the iis process i using... with IIS 5.1, using integrated security the process uses: my_machine\IWAM_my_machine I disable integrated security, and leave a domain account as anonymous access, and I get the same (¿?) to test the user I do the following private function whoami() dim shell, cmd set shell = createObject("wscript.shell") set cmd = shell.exec( server.mapPath( "whoami.exe" ) ) whoami = cmd.stdOut.readAll() set shell = nothing: set cmd = nothing end function is it because I'm issuing a shell command? I'd like to make http post calls, to another site that works with integrated security... So I need some way to pass the credentials, or at least to run with a specified account, and then configure the remote site to thrust that account... I thought that just setting the site to work with integrated security would be enough... How can I achieve such a thing? ps: with IIS6,happens the same but if I change the pool canfiguration I get the following info from whoami NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE NT AUTHORITY\LOCAL SERVICE NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM if I set a domain account, I get a "service unavailable" message... edit: found this http://www.microsoft.com/technet/prodtechnol/WindowsServer2003/Library/IIS/275269ee-1b9f-4869-8d72-c9006b5bd659.mspx?mfr=true it says what I supossed, "If an authenticated user makes a request, the thread token is based on the authenticated account of the user", but somehow I doesn't seem to work like that... what could I possibly be missing? edit: well the whoami thing is obviously fooling me, I tried with the following function private function whoami_db( serverName, dbName ) dim conn, data set conn = server.createObject("adodb.connection") conn.open "Provider=SQLOLEDB.1;Integrated Security=SSPI;" & _ "Initial Catalog=" & dbName & ";Data Source=" & serverName set data = conn.execute( "select suser_sname() as user_name" ) whoami_db = data("user_name") data.close: conn.close set data = nothing: set conn = nothing end function and everything seemed to be working fine... but how can I make msxml2.ServerXMLHTTP work with the user credentials???

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• How to “unbind” .result on Jquery Autocomplete?

  - by Cesar

  I have this code: $("#xyz").unautocomplete().autocomplete(dataVar, { minChars: 0, width: 400, matchContains: true, highlightItem: true, formatItem: formatItem, formatResult: formatResult }) .result(findValueCallback).next().click(function() { $(this).prev().search(); }); I call this code many times and the first call works correctly, but after he calls findValueCallback many times, not once more. The unautocomplete don't clear .result What I have to do for call findValueCallback once? Sample Code: var niveis01 = []; var niveis02 = []; var niveis03 = []; $(document).ready(function(){ carregaDadosNivel1(); }); function carregaDadosNivel1() { $.ajax({ url: "http://.....", cache: true, type: "POST", dataType:"json", success: function(data){ ... niveis01 = data; habilitaComboNivel1(); ... }, error: function(xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError){ ... } }); } function habilitaComboNivel1() { function findValueCallback1(event, data01, formatted) { ... carregaDadosNivel2(); ... } $("#nivel01").unautocomplete().autocomplete(niveis01, { minChars: 0, width: 400, matchContains: true, highlightItem: true, formatItem: formatItem, formatResult: formatResult }).result(findValueCallback1).next().click(function() { $(this).prev().search(); }); } function carregaDadosNivel2() { $.ajax({ url: "http://.....", cache: true, type: "POST", dataType:"json", success: function(data){ ... niveis02 = data; habilitaComboNivel2(); ... }, error: function(xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError){ ... } }); } function habilitaComboNivel2() { function findValueCallback2(event, data02, formatted) { ... carregaDadosNivel3(); ... } $("#nivel02").unautocomplete().autocomplete(niveis02, { minChars: 0, width: 400, matchContains: true, highlightItem: true, formatItem: formatItem, formatResult: formatResult }).result(findValueCallback2).next().click(function() { $(this).prev().search(); }); } function carregaDadosNivel3() { $.ajax({ url: ""http://.....", cache: true, type: "POST", dataType:"json", success: function(data){ ... niveis03 = data; habilitaComboNivel3(); ... }, error: function(xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError){ ... } }); } function habilitaComboNivel3() { function findValueCallback3(event, data03, formatted) { ... } $("#nivel03").unautocomplete().autocomplete(niveis03, { minChars: 0, width: 400, matchContains: true, highlightItem: true, formatItem: formatItem, formatResult: formatResult }).result(findValueCallback3).next().click(function() { $(this).prev().search(); }); }

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• Hiding iPhone Status Bar pulls my tableViews up by 20px

  - by JustinXXVII

  When doing an asynchronous HTTP request, I hide the iPhone status bar and animate in my own custom UIViewController to show upload status. So instead of seeing signal strength, carrier, time and battery life, the user gets messages based on the progress of the HTTP request. My status bar is exactly 20px high, and fits nicely where the status bar used to be. When the HTTP activity is done, the custom view animates out and the iPhone status bar animates back in. I would like to just avoid hiding the iPhone status bar completely, and instead bring my custom view ON TOP of the status bar. Currently, if I invoke my custom view animation and keep the iPhone status bar set to visible, my custom view is behind it. This is the code I have: -(void) animateStatusBarIn { CGRect statusFrame = CGRectMake(0.0f, -20.0f, 320.0f, 20.0f); UploadStatusBar *statusView = [[UploadStatusBar alloc] initWithNibName:@"UploadStatusBar" bundle:nil]; self.status = statusView; [statusView release]; status.view.frame = statusFrame; [[UIApplication sharedApplication] setStatusBarHidden:YES animated:YES]; [window addSubview:status.view]; [UIView beginAnimations:@"slideDown" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.3]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(animationFinished:)]; status.view.frame = CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 320.0f, 20.0f); [UIView commitAnimations]; } -(void) animateStatusBarOut { [UIView beginAnimations:@"slideUp" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.3]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(animationFinished:)]; status.view.frame = CGRectMake(0.0f, -20.0f, 320.0f, 20.0f); [UIView commitAnimations]; } -(void)animationFinished:(NSString *)name { if ([name isEqualToString:@"slideDown"]) { } if ([name isEqualToString:@"slideUp"]) { [[UIApplication sharedApplication]setStatusBarHidden:NO animated:YES]; [status.view removeFromSuperview]; } } Without the [[UIApplication sharedApplication]setStatusBarHidden:YES animated:YES] you can't see my custom view. How can I get my custom view to just appear on top of the status bar so I don't have to hide it? Thank you!

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• jquery data selector

  - by Tauren

  I need to select elements based on values stored in an element's .data() object. At a minimum, I'd like to select top-level data properties using selectors, perhaps like this: $('a').data("category","music"); $('a:data(category=music)'); Or perhaps the selector would be in regular attribute selector format: $('a[category=music]'); Or in attribute format, but with a specifier to indicate it is in .data(): $('a[:category=music]'); I've found James Padolsey's implementation to look simple, yet good. The selector formats above mirror methods shown on that page. There is also this Sizzle patch. For some reason, I recall reading a while back that jQuery 1.4 would include support for selectors on values in the jquery .data() object. However, now that I'm looking for it, I can't find it. Maybe it was just a feature request that I saw. Is there support for this and I'm just not seeing it? Ideally, I'd like to support sub-properties in data() using dot notation. Like this: $('a').data("user",{name: {first:"Tom",last:"Smith"},username: "tomsmith"}); $('a[:user.name.first=Tom]'); I also would like to support multiple data selectors, where only elements with ALL specified data selectors are found. The regular jquery multiple selector does an OR operation. For instance, $('a.big, a.small') selects a tags with either class big or small). I'm looking for an AND, perhaps like this: $('a').data("artist",{id: 3281, name: "Madonna"}); $('a').data("category","music"); $('a[:category=music && :artist.name=Madonna]'); Lastly, it would be great if comparison operators and regex features were available on data selectors. So $(a[:artist.id>5000]) would be possible. I realize I could probably do much of this using filter(), but it would be nice to have a simple selector format. What solutions are available to do this? Is Jame's Padolsey's the best solution at this time? My concern is primarily in regards to performance, but also in the extra features like sub-property dot-notation and multiple data selectors. Are there other implementations that support these things or are better in some way?

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• Use a subdirectory as root with htaccess in Apache 1.3

  - by Andrew

  I'm trying to deploy a site generated with Jekyll and would like to keep the site in its own subfolder on my server to keep everything more organized. Essentially, I'd like to use the contents of /jekyll as the root unless a file similarly named exists in the actual web root. So something like /jekyll/sample-page/ would show as http://www.example.com/sample-page/, while something like /other-folder/ would display as http://www.example.com/other-folder. My test server runs Apache 2.2 and the following .htaccess (adapted from http://gist.github.com/97822) works flawlessly: RewriteEngine On # Map http://www.example.com to /jekyll. RewriteRule ^$ /jekyll/ [L] # Map http://www.example.com/x to /jekyll/x unless there is a x in the web root. RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/jekyll/ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /jekyll/$1 # Add trailing slash to directories without them so DirectoryIndex works. # This does not expose the internal URL. RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !/$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ $1/ # Disable auto-adding slashes to directories without them, since this happens # after mod_rewrite and exposes the rewritten internal URL, e.g. turning # http://www.example.com/about into http://www.example.com/jekyll/about. DirectorySlash off However, my production server runs Apache 1.3, which doesn't allow DirectorySlash. If I disable it, the server gives a 500 error because of internal redirect overload. If I comment out the last section of ReWriteConds and rules: RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !/$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ $1/ …everything mostly works: http://www.example.com/sample-page/ displays the correct content. However, if I omit the trailing slash, the URL in the address bar exposes the real internal URL structure: http://www.example.com/jekyll/sample-page/ What is the best way to account for directory slashes in Apache 1.3, where useful tools like DirectorySlash don't exist? How can I use the /jekyll/ directory as the site root without revealing the actual URL structure? Edit: After a ton of research into Apache 1.3, I've found that this problem is essentially a combination of two different issues listed at the Apache 1.3 URL Rewriting Guide. I have a (partially) moved DocumentRoot, which in theory would be taken care of with something like this: RewriteRule ^/$ /e/www/ [R] I also have the infamous "Trailing Slash Problem," which is solved by setting the RewriteBase (as was suggested in one of the responses below): RewriteBase /~quux/ RewriteRule ^foo$ foo/ [R] The problem is combining the two. Moving the document root doesn't (can't?) use RewriteBase—fixing trailing slashes requires(?) it… Hmm…

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• node.js / socket.io, cookies only working locally

  - by Ben Griffiths

  I'm trying to use cookie based sessions, however it'll only work on the local machine, not over the network. If I remove the session related stuff, it will however work just great over the network... You'll have to forgive the lack of quality code here, I'm just starting out with node/socket etc etc, and finding any clear guides is tough going, so I'm in n00b territory right now. Basically this is so far hacked together from various snippets with about 10% understanding of what I'm actually doing... The error I see in Chrome is: socket.io.js:1632GET http://192.168.0.6:8080/socket.io/1/?t=1334431940273 500 (Internal Server Error) Socket.handshake ------- socket.io.js:1632 Socket.connect ------- socket.io.js:1671 Socket ------- socket.io.js:1530 io.connect ------- socket.io.js:91 (anonymous function) ------- /socket-test/:9 jQuery.extend.ready ------- jquery.js:438 And in the console for the server I see: debug - served static content /socket.io.js debug - authorized warn - handshake error No cookie My server is: var express = require('express') , app = express.createServer() , io = require('socket.io').listen(app) , connect = require('express/node_modules/connect') , parseCookie = connect.utils.parseCookie , RedisStore = require('connect-redis')(express) , sessionStore = new RedisStore(); app.listen(8080, '192.168.0.6'); app.configure(function() { app.use(express.cookieParser()); app.use(express.session( { secret: 'YOURSOOPERSEKRITKEY', store: sessionStore })); }); io.configure(function() { io.set('authorization', function(data, callback) { if(data.headers.cookie) { var cookie = parseCookie(data.headers.cookie); sessionStore.get(cookie['connect.sid'], function(err, session) { if(err || !session) { callback('Error', false); } else { data.session = session; callback(null, true); } }); } else { callback('No cookie', false); } }); }); var users_count = 0; io.sockets.on('connection', function (socket) { console.log('New Connection'); var session = socket.handshake.session; ++users_count; io.sockets.emit('users_count', users_count); socket.on('something', function(data) { io.sockets.emit('doing_something', data['data']); }); socket.on('disconnect', function() { --users_count; io.sockets.emit('users_count', users_count); }); }); My page JS is: jQuery(function($){ var socket = io.connect('http://192.168.0.6', { port: 8080 } ); socket.on('users_count', function(data) { $('#client_count').text(data); }); socket.on('doing_something', function(data) { if(data == '') { window.setTimeout(function() { $('#target').text(data); }, 3000); } else { $('#target').text(data); } }); $('#textbox').keydown(function() { socket.emit('something', { data: 'typing' }); }); $('#textbox').keyup(function() { socket.emit('something', { data: '' }); }); });

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• DataContractSerializer and XSLT not Serializing Class Properties

  - by Russ Clark

  I've written a simple Employee class that I'm trying to serialize to an XDocument and then use XSLT to transform the document to a page that displays both the properties (Name and ID) from the Employee class, and an html form with 2 radio buttons (Approve and Reject) and a submit button. Here is the Employee class: [Serializable, DataContract(Namespace="XSLT_MVC.Controllers/")] public class Employee { [DataMember] public string Name { get; set; } [DataMember] public int ID { get; set; } public Employee() { } public Employee(string name, int id) { Name = name; ID = id; } public XDocument GetDoc() { XDocument doc = new XDocument(); var serializer = new DataContractSerializer(typeof(Employee)); using (var writer = doc.CreateWriter()) { serializer.WriteObject(writer, this); writer.Close(); } return doc; } } And here is the XSLT file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" > <xsl:output method="html" indent="yes"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <html> <body> <xsl:value-of select="Employee/Name"/> <br /> <xsl:value-of select="Employee/ID"/> <br /> <form method="post" action="/Home/ProcessRequest?id={Employee/ID}"> <input id="Action" name="Action" type="radio" value="Approved"></input> Approved <br /> <input id="Action" name="Action" type="radio" value="Rejected"></input> Rejected <br /> <input type="submit" value="Submit"></input> </form> </body> </html> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> When I run this, all I get is the html form with the 2 radio buttons and the submit button, but not the properties from the Employee class. I saw a separate StackOverflow post that said I need to change the <xsl:template match="/"> to match on the namespace of my Employee class like this: <xsl:template match="/XSLT_MVC.Controllers"> but when I do that, now all I get are the Employee properties, and not the html form with the 2 radio buttons and the submit button. Does anyone know what needs to be done so that my transform will select and display both the Employee properties and the html form?

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• System architecture: simple approach for setting up background tasks behind a web application -- wil

  - by Tim Molendijk

  I have a Django web application and I have some tasks that should operate (or actually: be initiated) on the background. The application is deployed as follows: apache2-mpm-worker; mod_wsgi in daemon mode (1 process, 15 threads). The background tasks have the following characteristics: they need to operate in a regular interval (every 5 minutes or so); they require the application context (i.e. the application packages need to be available in memory); they do not need any input other than database access, in order to perform some not-so-heavy tasks such as sending out e-mail and updating the state of the database. Now I was thinking that the most simple approach to this problem would be simply to piggyback on the existing application process (as spawned by mod_wsgi). By implementing the task as part of the application and providing an HTTP interface for it, I would prevent the overhead of another process that is holding all of the application into memory. A simple cronjob can be setup that sends a request to this HTTP interface every 5 minutes and that would be it. Since the application process provides 15 threads and the tasks are quite lightweight and only running every 5 minutes, I figure they would not be hindering the performance of the web application's user-facing operations. Yet... I have done some online research and I have seen nobody advocating this approach. Many articles suggest a significantly more complex approach based on a full-blown messaging component (such as Celery, which uses RabbitMQ). Although that's sexy, it sounds like overkill to me. Some articles suggest setting up a cronjob that executes a script which performs the tasks. But that doesn't feel very attractive either, as it results in creating a new process that loads the entire application into memory, performs some tiny task, and destroys the process again. And this is repeated every 5 minutes. Does not sound like an elegant solution. So, I'm looking for some feedback on my suggested approach as described in the paragraph before the preceeding paragraph. Is my reasoning correct? Am I overlooking (potential) problems? What about my assumption that application's performance will not be impeded?

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• Personal Project - Next practical language/tech to learn

  - by Paul Nathan

  I'm working on a personal project doing some finance analysis. It's a totally new field for me, and I'm really having fun with it so far, plus working in the high-level language arena is a great break from my embedded systems daytime work. I have a MySQL backend on a non-local server with a pile of stock data. My task now is to do some analysis of the stocks and produce something approximating a useful result. There are a couple technical difficulties. (1) I have a lot of records. To be precise, I believe I'm near 100K records right now, and this number grows by 6.1K each weekday. I need to create a way to rummage through these fields and do data analysis - based on a given computation, go look at this other set. Fine and dandy, nothing too outre. But this means I could really use a straightforward API for talking to MySQL. (2) Ideally, it runs on OS X 10.4.11. No Windows/Linux machine at home. (3) I can use PHP, C++, Perl, etc. I even have an R installation. I'm pretty flexible with stuff, so long as it runs on OS X. (Lots of options here, pick water, H20, or dihydrogen monoxide ;-) ) (4)Lack of hassle. While I like clever and fun ways of doing things, I'm trying to get some analysis done, not spend ten hours doing installation work and scratching my head figuring out a theoretical syntax question needed to spout out "hello world". What's the question? I'd like to dig into something different than my usual PHP/C++/C toolset. I'm looking for recommendations for languages/technologies that will assist me and meet the above requirements. In particular, I've heard a lot of buzz about F# and Python on SO. I've used CLISP for small problems before, and kinda liked it. I'm seeking opinions about those in particular. edit:since I rent the DB server and have a limited amount of CPU time online, I'm trying to do the analysis on a local machine.

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• Using OpenID as the only authentication method

  - by iconiK

  I have read the other questions and they mostly talk about the security of doing so. That's not entirely my concern, mostly because the website is question is a browser-based game. However, the larger issue is the user - not every user is literate enough to understand OpenID. Sure RPX makes this pretty easy, which is what I'll use, but what if the user does not have an account at Google or Facebook or whatever, or does not trust the system to log in with an existing account? They'd have to get an account at another provide - I'm sure most will know how to do it, let alone be bothered to do it. There is also the problem of how to manage it in the application. A user might want to use multiple identities with a single account, so it's not as simple as username + password to deal with. How do I store the OpenID identities of a user in the database? Using OpenID gives me a benefit too: RPX can provide extensive profile information, so I can just prefill the profile form and ask the user to edit as required. I currently have this: UserID Email ------ --------------- 86000 [email protected] 86001 [email protected] UserOpenID OpenID ---------- ------ 86000 16733 86001 16839 86002 19361 OpenID Provider Identifier ------ -------- ---------------- 16733 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\bob#d36bd 16839 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\bigbobby#x75af 19361 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\alice#c19fd Is that the right way to store OpenID identifiers in the database? How would I match the identifier RPX gave me with one in the database to log in the user (if the identifier is known). So here are concrete questions: How would I make it accessible to users not having an OpenID or not wanting to use one? (security concerns over say, logging in with their Google account for example) How do I store the identifier in the database? (I'm not sure if the tables above are right) What measures do I need to take in order to prevent someone from logging in as another user and happily doing anything with their account? (as I understand RPX sends the identifier via HTTP, so what anyone would have to do is to just somehow grab it then enter it in the "OpenID" field) What else do I need to be aware of when using OpenID?

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• Keeping files or database records? Java and Python

  - by danpalmer

  My website will use a Neural Network to predict thing based on user data. The user can select the data to be used in training the network and then use their trained network to predict things. I am using a framework to create, train and query the networks. This uses Java. The framework has persistence for saving a network to an XML file. What is the best way to store these files? I can see several potential ideas, but I need help on choosing which is best: Save each network to a separate XML file with a name that is stored in the database. Load this each time. Save all the networks to the same XML file with each network having a different name that is stored in the database. Somehow pass what would normally be written to an XML file to the Django site for writing to the database. This would need to be returned to the Java code when a prediction needs to be made. I am able to do 1 or 2, but I think their performance will be quite limited and I am on shared hosting at the moment, so I don't know how pleased they would be with thousands of files. Also, after adding a few thousand records to one XML file, I was noticing a massive performance hit on saving to it. If I were able to implement version 3 somehow I think it would be best. No issues with separate processes accessing the database and I think performance would be better. Not to mention having no files lying around. However, the stuff in the neural network framework I am using (Encog) for saving to a file needs access to a Java file object, not a string that could be saved to a database. Unless there is some Java magic I can do here (I know very little Java), the only way I can see of doing this would be with a temporary files but I don't know if this is the correct way to do it. I would appreciate any ideas on the best way to implement any of the above 3 ideas or any alternatives. Thanks!

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• Jquery Tools Overlay call on javascript function

  - by user342944

  Hi Guys, I have a jquery overlay window in my html alongwith a button to activate here is the code. <!-- Validation Overlay Box --> <div class="modal" id="yesno" style="top: 100px; left: 320px; position: relative; display: none; z-index: 0; margin-top: 100px;"> <h2> &nbsp;&nbsp;Authentication Failed</h2> <p style="font-family:Arial; font-size:small; text-align:center"> Ether your username or password has been entered incorrectly. Please make sure that your username or password entered correctly... </p> <!-- yes/no buttons --> <p align="center"> <button class="close"> OK </button> </p> </div> Here is the Jquery tools Script <SCRIPT> $(document).ready(function() { var triggers = $(".modalInput").overlay({ // some mask tweaks suitable for modal dialogs mask: { color: '#a2a2a2', loadSpeed: 200, opacity: 0.9 }, closeOnClick: false }); var buttons = $("#yesno button").click(function(e) { // get user input var yes = buttons.index(this) === 0; // do something with the answer triggers.eq(0).html("You clicked " + (yes ? "yes" : "no")); }); $("#prompt form").submit(function(e) { // close the overlay triggers.eq(1).overlay().close(); // get user input var input = $("input", this).val(); // do something with the answer triggers.eq(1).html(input); // do not submit the form return e.preventDefault(); }); }); And here how its called upon clicking on a button or a hyperlink "<BUTTON class="modalInput" rel="#yesno">You clicked no</BUTTON>" All i want is I dont want to show the overlay on clicking on button or through a link. Is it possible to call it through a javascript function like "showOverlay()" ??

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• The most efficient method of drawing multiple quads in OpenGL

  - by CPatton

  I'm not very keen with OpenGL and I was wondering if someone could give me some insight on this. I'm a 'seasoned' programmer, I've read the redbook about VBOs and the like, but I was wondering from a more experienced person about the best/most efficient way of achieving this. I've been producing this 2d tile-based game engine to be used in several projects. I have a class called "ScreenObject" which is mainly composed of a Dictionary<Point, Tile> The Point key is to show where to render the Tile on the screen, and the Tile contains one or more textures to be drawn at that point. This ScreenObject is where the tiles will be modified, deleted, added, etc.. My original method of drawing the tiles in the testing I've done was to iterate through the ScreenObject and draw each quad at each location separately. From what I've read, this is a massive waste of resources. It wasn't horribly slow in the testing, but after I've completed the animation classes and effect classes, I'm sure it would be extremely slow. And one last thing, if you wouldn't mind.. As I said before, the Tile class can contain multiple textures to be drawn at the Point location on the screen. I recognize possibly two options for me here. Either add a quad at that location for each texture to be drawn, or, somehow.. use a multiple texture for the same quad (if it's possible). Even if each tile contained one texture only, that would be 64 quads to be drawn on the screen. Most of the tiles will contain 2-5 textures, so the number of total quads would increase dramatically with this method. Would it be feasible to add a quad for each new texture, or am I ignoring a better way to do this? Just need some help understanding this if you don't mind :) I've tried to be as concise as possible, and I'd greatly appreciate any responses.. and even some criticism. Programming is often a learning process and one who develops seems to never stops learning. Thanks for your time.

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• Exporting a report from Crystal 8.5 causes the report to first refresh, then export, with unexpected

  - by LittleBobbyTables

  We have a VB6 application that can generate reports using the Crystal Reports 8.5 runtime. To generate one of the more complicated reports we have, the VB app does the following: Deletes records from a SQL table (we'll call it Foo) based on the session ID of the user Performs a select statement, and populates the Foo table with the contents of the select statement. Massages the data in Foo. Executes the report (we'll call it Bar). The Bar report uses the Foo table as part of some outer joins to get some descriptions. After the report is opened and populated, the code then deletes the records in Foo. If you ever look in Foo there will be no data since it is always purged at the end, but the Crystal Report will still have the data, since Foo wasn't cleared out until after the report ran. Most sites can export this report afterwards, to either PDF or Excel, with no issue. One site, however, has two servers in production where if you attempt to export the Bar report (doesn't matter what format it is exported to), the report will visibly refresh and then export the report in the requested format. This refresh, however, causes the exported data to be invalid because the report is still doing the outer joins to the Foo table, which is now empty. I'm at a total loss why the report refreshes before printing on these two servers. One server has Crystal Reports 8.5 installed on it as well as the Crystal Reports 8.5 runtime (so they can modify reports). The other server only has the Crystal Reports 8.5 runtime (so you can generate reports from the VB application, but can't modify them on that server). Both of the servers belong to a French site. Another support staff here said the issue sounded vaguely familiar to an issue a few years ago, and suggested re-registering DLLs. I have tried unregistering and re-registering the following DLLs out of frustration: Crystl32.ocx crxlat32.dll cpeau32.dll exportmodeller.dll crtslv.dll atl.dll Unregistering and re-registering the above DLLs does not fix the issue. If we take the problem report, and run it on any of our development or QA servers, we have no issues; the report does NOT refresh before exporting, and the data looks consistent. It seems like a server or regional setting may be causing this, but what could possibly cause the report to refresh before exporting on only two of our servers? The most obvious solution is to simply alter the code so the Foo table isn't purged after the report is run, only when the report is run, but this is a production issue, the customer wants a fix now, and there's quite a few hoops to jump through to make the change.

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• Multiple Mod_ReWrites on one site - Possible? (Wordpress blog in root directory, CodeIgniter project

  - by Sootah

  Currently I am creating a project with CodeIgniter that is contained within a subdirectory of my domain. For this example we'll call it domain.com/test. I also have Wordpress installed on this domain, and all of its files are in the root. For instance, if you navigate to my domain.com then it pulls up the Wordpress blog. I currently have the Wordpress mod_rewrite activated so that it uses friendly-URLs. For those of you that aren't familiar with CodeIgniter, all requests are routed through index.php in the project's root folder. So, in this case, it'd be domain.com/text/index.php. A request to the application would be sent like domain.com/test/index.php/somecontroller/method. What I'd like to do, is for any incoming request that is directed towards the /test/ folder, or some subdirectory therein I'd like it to appropriately rewrite the URL so the index.php isn't included. (As per the example above, it'd end up being domain.com/test/somecontroller/method) For any OTHER request, meaning anything that's not within the /test/ directory, I would like it to route the request to Wordpress. I would imagine it's a simple RewriteCond to make it check to see if the request is for the /test/ directory or a subdirectory therein, but I've no idea how to do it. Perhaps you can't have more than one set of Rewrite Rules per site. I will include the recommended mod_rewrite rules for each application. Wordpress: (Currently used) <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /index.php [L] </IfModule> CodeIgniter: (Pulled from their Wiki) <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / #Removes access to the system folder by users. #Additionally this will allow you to create a System.php controller, #previously this would not have been possible. #'system' can be replaced if you have renamed your system folder. RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^system.* RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /index.php?/$1 [L] #When your application folder isn't in the system folder #This snippet prevents user access to the application folder #Submitted by: Fabdrol #Rename 'application' to your applications folder name. RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^application.* RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /index.php?/$1 [L] #Checks to see if the user is attempting to access a valid file, #such as an image or css document, if this isn't true it sends the #request to index.php RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?/$1 [L] </IfModule> <IfModule !mod_rewrite.c> # If we don't have mod_rewrite installed, all 404's # can be sent to index.php, and everything works as normal. # Submitted by: ElliotHaughin ErrorDocument 404 /index.php </IfModule> Any and all help is much appreciated!! Thanks, -Sootah

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• Calculating multiple column average in SQLite3

  - by Benjamin Oakes

  I need to average some values in a row-wise fashion, rather than a column-wise fashion. (If I were doing a column-wise average, I could just use avg()). My specific application of this requires me ignore NULLs in averaging. It's pretty straightforward logic, but seems awfully difficult to do in SQL. Is there an elegant way of doing my calculation? I'm using SQLite3, for what it's worth. Details If you need more details, here's an illustration: I have a a table with a survey: | q1 | q2 | q3 | ... | q144 | |----|-------|-------|-----|------| | 1 | 3 | 7 | ... | 2 | | 4 | 2 | NULL | ... | 1 | | 5 | NULL | 2 | ... | 3 | (Those are just some example values and simple column names. The valid values are 1 through 7 and NULL.) I need to calculate some averages like so: q7 + q33 + q38 + q40 + ... + q119 / 11 as domain_score_1 q10 + q11 + q34 + q35 + ... + q140 / 13 as domain_score_2 ... q2 + q5 + q13 + q25 + ... + q122 / 12 as domain_score_14 ...but i need to pull out the nulls and average based on the non-nulls. So, for domain_score_1 (which has 11 items), I would need to do: Input: 3, 5, NULL, 7, 2, NULL, 3, 1, 5, NULL, 1 (3 + 5 + 7 + 2 + 3 + 1 + 5 + 1) / (11 - 3) 27 / 8 3.375 A simple algorithm I'm considering is: Input: 3, 5, NULL, 7, 2, NULL, 3, 1, 5, NULL, 1 Coalesce each value to 0 if NULL: 3, 5, 0, 7, 2, 0, 3, 1, 5, 0, 1 Sum: 27 Get the number of non-zeros by converting values 0 to 1 and sum: 3, 5, 0, 7, 2, 0, 3, 1, 5, 0, 1 1, 1, 0, 1, 1, 0, 1, 1, 1, 0, 1 8 Divide those two numbers 27 / 8 3.375 But that seems like a lot more programming than this should take. Is there an elegant way of doing this that I'm not aware of? Update: Unless I'm misunderstanding something, avg() won't work for this. Example of what I would want to do: select avg(q7, q33, q38, ..., q119) from survey; Output: SQL error near line 3: wrong number of arguments to function avg()

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• Synchronized IEnumerator<T>

  - by Dan Bryant

  I'm putting together a custom SynchronizedCollection<T> class so that I can have a synchronized Observable collection for my WPF application. The synchronization is provided via a ReaderWriterLockSlim, which, for the most part, has been easy to apply. The case I'm having trouble with is how to provide thread-safe enumeration of the collection. I've created a custom IEnumerator<T> nested class that looks like this: private class SynchronizedEnumerator : IEnumerator<T> { private SynchronizedCollection<T> _collection; private int _currentIndex; internal SynchronizedEnumerator(SynchronizedCollection<T> collection) { _collection = collection; _collection._lock.EnterReadLock(); _currentIndex = -1; } #region IEnumerator<T> Members public T Current { get; private set;} #endregion #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { var collection = _collection; if (collection != null) collection._lock.ExitReadLock(); _collection = null; } #endregion #region IEnumerator Members object System.Collections.IEnumerator.Current { get { return Current; } } public bool MoveNext() { var collection = _collection; if (collection == null) throw new ObjectDisposedException("SynchronizedEnumerator"); _currentIndex++; if (_currentIndex >= collection.Count) { Current = default(T); return false; } Current = collection[_currentIndex]; return true; } public void Reset() { if (_collection == null) throw new ObjectDisposedException("SynchronizedEnumerator"); _currentIndex = -1; Current = default(T); } #endregion } My concern, however, is that if the Enumerator is not Disposed, the lock will never be released. In most use cases, this is not a problem, as foreach should properly call Dispose. It could be a problem, however, if a consumer retrieves an explicit Enumerator instance. Is my only option to document the class with a caveat implementer reminding the consumer to call Dispose if using the Enumerator explicitly or is there a way to safely release the lock during finalization? I'm thinking not, since the finalizer doesn't even run on the same thread, but I was curious if there other ways to improve this. EDIT After thinking about this a bit and reading the responses (particular thanks to Hans), I've decided this is definitely a bad idea. The biggest issue actually isn't forgetting to Dispose, but rather a leisurely consumer creating deadlock while enumerating. I now only read-lock long enough to get a copy and return the enumerator for the copy.

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• Non RBAC User Roles and Permissions System: a role with properties

  - by micha12

  We are currently designing a User Roles and Permissions System in our web application (ASP.NET), and it seems that we have several cases that do no fit within the classical Role-Based Access Control (RBAC). I will post several questions, each devoted to a particular case. This is my second question (the first question is here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2839797/non-rbac-user-roles-and-permissions-system-checking-the-users-city). We have the following case: we need to implement a Manager role in our web application. However, a Manager can belong to one or several companies (within a big group of companies for which we are creating this web app). Say, there can be “Manager of companies A and B”, “Manager of company C”, etc. Depending on the companies that the Manager belongs, he has access to certain operations: for example, he can communicate with clients only of those companies that he belongs to. That is, “Manager of companies A and B” can only have contacts with clients of companies A and B, and not with those of company C. He can also view clients’ details pages of companies A and B and not of C, etc. It seems that this case falls within the RBAC. However, this is not really the case. We will need to create a ManagerRole class that will have a Companies property – that is, this will not be just a role as a collection of permissions (like in the classical RBAC), but a role with properties! This was just one example of a role having properties. There will be others: for example, an Administrator role that will also belong to a number of companies and will also have other custom properties. This means that we will a hierarchy or roles classes: class Role – base class class ManagerRole : Role List Companies class AdministratorRole : Role List Companies Other properties We investigated pure RBAC and its implementation in several systems, and found no systems featuring a hierarchy or roles, each having custom properties. In RBAC, roles are just collections of permissions. We could model our cases using permission with properties, like ManagerPermission, AdministratorPermission, but this has a lot of drawbacks, the main being that we will not be able to assign a role like “Manager of Companies A and B” to a user directly, but will have to create a role containing a ManagerPermission for companies A and B… Moreover, a "Manager" seems to be rather a "role" (position in the company) rather than a "permission" from the linguistic point of view. Would be grateful for any ideas on this subject, as well as any experience in this field! Thank you.

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• Adding simple marker clusterer to google map

  - by take2

  Hi, I'm having problems with adding marker clusterer functionality to my map. What I want is to use custom icon for my markers and every marker has its own info window which I want to be able to edit. I did accomplish that, but now I have problems adding marker clusterer library functionality. I read something about adding markers to array, but I'm not sure what would it exactly mean. Besides, all of the examples with array I have found, don't have info windows and searching through the code I didn't find appropriate way to add them. Here is my code (mostly from Geocodezip.com): <script type="text/javascript" src="http://maps.google.com/maps/api/js?sensor=false"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://google-maps-utility-library-v3.googlecode.com/svn/trunk/markerclusterer/src/markerclusterer.js"></script> <style type="text/css"> html, body { height: 100%; } </style> <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ var map = null; function initialize() { var myOptions = { zoom: 8, center: new google.maps.LatLng(43.907787,-79.359741), mapTypeControl: true, mapTypeControlOptions: {style: google.maps.MapTypeControlStyle.DROPDOWN_MENU}, navigationControl: true, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP } map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), myOptions); var mcOptions = {gridSize: 50, maxZoom: 15}; var mc = new MarkerClusterer(map, [], mcOptions); google.maps.event.addListener(map, 'click', function() { infowindow.close(); }); // Add markers to the map // Set up three markers with info windows var point = new google.maps.LatLng(43.65654,-79.90138); var marker1 = createMarker(point,'Abc'); var point = new google.maps.LatLng(43.91892,-78.89231); var marker2 = createMarker(point,'Abc'); var point = new google.maps.LatLng(43.82589,-79.10040); var marker3 = createMarker(point,'Abc'); var markerArray = new Array(marker1, marker2, marker3); mc.addMarkers(markerArray, true); } var infowindow = new google.maps.InfoWindow( { size: new google.maps.Size(150,50) }); function createMarker(latlng, html) { var image = '/321.png'; var contentString = html; var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: latlng, map: map, icon: image, zIndex: Math.round(latlng.lat()*-100000)<<5 }); google.maps.event.addListener(marker, 'click', function() { infowindow.setContent(contentString); infowindow.open(map,marker); }); } //]]> </script>

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• How to update strongly typed Html.DropDownList using Jquery

  - by Remnant

  I have a webpage with two radiobuttons and a dropdownlist as follows: <div class="sectionheader">Course <div class="dropdown"><%=Html.DropDownList("CourseSelection", Model.CourseList, new { @class = "dropdown" })%> </div> <div class="radiobuttons"><label><%=Html.RadioButton("CourseType", "Advanced", false )%> Advanced </label></div> <div class="radiobuttons"><label><%=Html.RadioButton("CourseType", "Beginner", true )%> Beginner </label></div> </div> The dropdownlist is strongly typed and populated with Model.CourseList (NB - on the first page load, 'Beginner' is the default selection and the dropdown shows the beginner course options accordingly) What I want to be able to do is to update the DropDownList based on which radiobutton is selected i.e. if 'Advanced' selected then show one list of course options in dropdown, and if 'Beginner' selected then show another list of courses. The code I would like to call sits within my Controller: public JsonResult UpdateDropDown(string courseType) { IDropDownList dropdownlistRepository = new DropDownListRepository(); IEnumerable<SelectListItem> courseList = dropdownlistRepository.GetCourseList(courseType); return Json(courseList); } Edit - Updated below to show latest position Using examples provided in jQuery in Action, I now have the following jQuery code: $('.radiobuttons input:radio').click(function() { var courseType = $(this).val(); //Get selected courseType from radiobutton var dropdownList = $(".dropdown"); //Ref for dropdownlist $.getJSON("/ByCourse/UpdateDropDown", { courseType: courseType }, function(data) { $(dropdownList).loadSelect(data); }); }); The loadSelect function is taken straight from the book and is as follows: (function($) { $.fn.emptySelect = function() { return this.each(function() { if (this.tagName == 'SELECT') this.options.length = 0; }); } $.fn.loadSelect = function(optionsDataArray) { return this.emptySelect().each(function() { if (this.tagName == 'SELECT') { var selectElement = this; $.each(optionsDataArray, function(index, optionData) { var option = new Option(optionData.Text, optionData.Value); if ($.browser.msie) { selectElement.add(option); } else { selectElement.add(option, null); } }); } }); } })(jQuery); 1 day+ later I still cannot get this to work. Assuming the jQuery code is correct then I can only think that the issue is with retrieving the actual data with $getJSON. I have verified that JsonResult UpdateDropDown does actually retrieve valid data. What am I missing? Assembly reference? (NB: I have MicrosoftAjax.js and MicrosoftMvcAjax.js in my head tags of the master page Should JsonResult be ActionResult? (I have seen both used in samples on web) Do I need to register route Controller/UpdateDropDown in Global.asax? Any further guidance would be appreciated.

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