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  • Vectors or Java arrays for Tetris?

    - by StackedCrooked
    I'm trying to create a Tetris-like game with Clojure and I'm having some trouble deciding the data structure for the playing field. I want to define the playing field as a mutable grid. The individual blocks are also grids, but don't need to be mutable. My first attempt was to define a grid as a vector of vectors. For example an S-block looks like this: :s-block { :grids [ [ [ 0 1 1 ] [ 1 1 0 ] ] [ [ 1 0 ] [ 1 1 ] [ 0 1 ] ] ] } But that turns out to be rather tricky for simple things like iterating and painting (see the code below). For making the grid mutable my initial idea was to make each row a reference. But then I couldn't really figure out how to change the value of a specific cell in a row. One option would have been to create each individual cell a ref instead of each row. But that feels like an unclean approach. I'm considering using Java arrays now. Clojure's aget and aset functions will probably turn out to be much simpler. However before digging myself in a deeper mess I want to ask ideas/insights. How would you recommend implementing a mutable 2d grid? Feel free to share alternative approaches as well. Source code current state: Tetris.clj (rev452)

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  • What are your suggestions for best practises for regular data updates in a website database?

    - by bboyle1234
    My shared-hosting asp.net website must automatically run data update routines at regular times of day. Once it has finished running certain update routines, it can run update routines that are dependent on the previous updates. I have done this type of work before, using quite complicated setups. Some features of the framework I created are: A cron job from another server makes a request which starts a data update routine on the main server Each updater is loaded from web.config Each updater overrides a "canRunUpdate" method that determines whether its dependencies have finished updating Each updater overrides a "hasFinishedUpdate" method Each updater overrides a "runUpdate" method Updaters start and run in parallel threads The initial request from the cron job server started each updater in its own thread and then ended. As a result, the threads containing the updaters would be terminated before the updaters were finished. Therefore I had to give the updaters the ability to save partial results and continue the update job next time they are started up. As a result, the cron server had to call the updater many times to ensure the job is done. Sometimes the cron server would continue making update requests long after all the updates were completed. Sometimes the cron server would finish calling the update requests and leave some updates uncompleted. It's not the best system. I'm looking for inspiration. Any ideas please? Thank you :)

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  • Apache's AuthDigestDomain and Rails Distributed Asset Hosts

    - by Jared
    I've got a server I'm in the process of setting up and I'm running into an Apache configuration problem that I can not get around. I've got Apache 2.2 and Passenger serving a Rails app with distributed asset hosting. This is the feature of Rails that lets you serve your static assets from assets0.example.com, assets1, assets2, and so on. The site needs to be passworded until launch. I've set up HTTP authentication on the site using Apache's mod_auth_digest. In my configuration I'm attempting to use the AuthDigestDomain directive to allow access to each of the asset URLs. The problem is, it doesn't seem to be working. I get the initial prompt for the password when I load the page, but then the first time it loads an asset from one of the asset URLs, I get prompted a 2nd, 3rd, or 4th time. In some browsers, I get prompted for every single resource on the page. I'm hoping that this is only a problem of how I'm specifying my directives and not a limitation of authorization in Apache itself. See the edited auth section below: <Location /> AuthType Digest AuthName "Restricted Site" AuthUserFile /etc/httpd/passwd/passwords AuthGroupFile /dev/null AuthDigestDomain / http://assets0.example.com/ http://assets1.example.com/ http://assets2.example.com/ http://assets3.example.com/ require valid-user order deny,allow allow from all </Location>

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  • lstrcpy not updating passed in string

    - by Rorschach
    I'm trying to use kernel32.dll's lstrcpy to get a string from a pointer in C#, but it isn't working. lstrlenA IS working, it gives me the length of the string, so I'm hitting the kernel32.dll at least. lstrcpy is working in the VB6 app I'm converting, so I know it CAN work, but I don't have a clue why it isn't here. The string s never gets filled with the actual string, it just returns the initial padded string. [DllImport("kernel32.dll", EntryPoint = "lstrlenA", CharSet = CharSet.Ansi)] private static extern int lstrlen( int StringPointer ); [DllImport( "kernel32.dll",EntryPoint = "lstrcpyA", CharSet = CharSet.Ansi )] private static extern int lstrcpy(string lpString1, int StringPointer ); private static string StringFromPointer(int pointer) { //.....Get the length of the LPSTR int strLen = lstrlen(pointer); //.....Allocate the NewString to the right size string s = ""; for (int i = 0; i < strLen; i++) s += " "; //.....Copy the LPSTR to the VB string lstrcpy(s, pointer); return s; }

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  • Batch Inserts And Prepared Query Error

    - by ircmaxell
    Ok, so I need to populate a MS Access database table with results from a MySQL query. That's not hard at all. I've got the program written to where it copies a template .mdb file to a temp name and opens it via odbc. No problem so far. I've noticed that Access does not support batch inserting (VALUES (foo, bar), (second, query), (third query)). So that means I need to execute one query per row (there are potentially hundreds of thousands of rows). Initial performance tests show a rate of around 900 inserts/sec into Access. With our largest data sets, that could mean execution times of minutes (Which isn't the end of the world, but obviously the faster the better). So, I tried testing a prepared statement. But I keep getting an error (Warning: odbc_execute() [function.odbc-execute]: SQL error: [Microsoft][ODBC Microsoft Access Driver]COUNT field incorrect , SQL state 07001 in SQLExecute in D:\....php on line 30). Here's the code I'm using (Line 30 is odbc_execute): $sql = 'INSERT INTO table ([field0], [field1], [field2], [field3], [field4], [field5]) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?)'; $stmt = odbc_prepare($conn, $sql); for ($i = 200001; $i < 300001; $i++) { $a = array($i, "Field1 $", "Field2 $i", "Field3 $i", "Field4 $i", $i); odbc_execute($stmt, $a); } So my question is two fold. First, is there any idea on why I'm getting that error (I've checked, and the number in the array matches the field list which matches the number of parameter ? markers)? And second, should I even bother with this or just use the straight INSERT statements? Like I said, time isn't critical, but if it's possible, I'd like to get that time as low as possible (Then again, I may be limited by disk throughput, since 900 operations/sec is high already)... Thanks

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  • Porting VB6 app to VB.Net: Can anyone ballpark how much effort this is?

    - by Robusto
    In 2002 I did a pretty large VB6 app for a client. It used a lot of UserControls and a 3rd party menu control (for putting icons next to menu names). It had dynamically "splittable" panels, TreeViews with multi-state checkboxes, etc. A very rich UI. My total time on the project was about 500 hours, which the client graciously let me spread over a whole month. (Yeah, it was that kind of job.) They were very happy, though, and they paid the bill on time with no argument. So after having no contact with them for years, they suddenly call and wonder if I can update the app to .Net for them. My initial reaction is just to decline, since I don't use VB.Net. And having read a bunch of posts on SO about the difficulties of porting, etc., etc., I'm even more inclined to decline, so to speak. Still, before I tell them no I am interested in roughly quantifying the effort it would take. I would love to hear from anyone who has done this kind of thing and has a feel for how much work it is. Was it: Significantly less than the effort you used on the original? Somewhat less than the effort you used on the original? The same as the effort you used on the original? More? A lot more? Please only respond if you have actually done this kind of port. And the answer doesn't have to be exact, since I really am only trying to ballpark this. My feeling is that the effort will be at least as much as it took for the original, if not more. But I could be wrong. Thanks for any help.

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  • printSoln module problem

    - by dingo_d
    Hi I found in book:Numerical Methods in engineering with Python the module run_kut5, but for that module I need module printSoln, all provided in the book. Now I cp the code, made necessary line adjustments and so. The code looks like: # -*- coding: cp1250 -*- ## module printSoln ''' printSoln(X,Y,freq). Prints X and Y returned from the differential equation solvers using printput frequency ’freq’. freq = n prints every nth step. freq = 0 prints initial and final values only. ''' def printSoln(X,Y,freq): def printHead(n): print "\n x ", for i in range (n): print " y[",i,"] ", print def printLine(x,y,n): print "%13.4e"% x,f for i in range (n): print "%13.4e"% y[i], print m = len(Y) try: n = len(Y[0]) except TypeError: n = 1 if freq == 0: freq = m printHead(n) for i in range(0,m,freq): printLine(X[i],Y[i],n) if i != m - 1: printLine(X[m - 1],Y[m - 1],n) Now, when I run the program it says: line 24, in <module> m = len(Y) NameError: name 'Y' is not defined But I cp'd from the book :\ So now when I call the run_kut module I get the same error, no Y defined in printSoln... I'm trying to figure this out but I suck :( Help, please...

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  • For a 1view/scene to 2view/scene app, what application should I choose in Xcode?

    - by Tony Xu
    The question may be simple to some others, but I have been struggling with this for a while. The app I want would be like this: first scene/view with two big buttons (no toolbar item), click each one to get into two new scenes. So totally three scenes. In Xcode, what application should I choose? And in storyboard how/should I drag/draw? Thanks. Update: thanks for the link, the big-number-user. I actually read that tutorial before I asked. A little update on what I got so far: 1, I selected "single view", so there's view controller 1 (VC1) in the storyboard. 2, dragged a navigation controller (NC), and move the initial view arrow pointing to NC 3, control-drag to link NC and VC1, selected "relationship segue root view controller" when some small dialog popup. IS THIS CORRECT? 4, created two additional VC, VC3 and VC4, control-drag link each to NC. selected "push", IS THIS CORRECT? 5, in VC1, I added two buttons, showVC3 and showVC4. NOW I DON'T KNOW how to add IBAction to button showVC3 and showVC4. I tried to control-drag it to ViewController.m file @interface and @end section, but failed. What should I do next?

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  • Access to SQL Server 2005 from a non-domain machine using Windows authentication

    - by user304582
    Hi, I have a Windows domain within which a machine is running SQL Server 2005 and which is configured to support only Windows authentication. I would like to run a C# client application on a machine on the same network, but which is NOT on the domain, and access a database on the SQL Server 2005 instance. I thought that it would be a simple matter of doing something like this: string connectionString = "Data Source=server;Initial Catalog=database;User Id=domain\user;Password=password"; SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(connectionString); connection.Open(); However, this fails: the client-side error is: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Login failed for user 'domain\user' and the server-side error is: Error 18456, Severity 14, State 5 I have tried various things including setting integrated security to true and false, and \ instead of \ in the User Id, but without success. In general, I know that it possible to connect to the SQL Server 2005 instance from a non-domain machine (for example, I am working with a Linux-based application which happily does this), but I don't seem to be able to work out how to do it from a Windows machine. Help would be appreciated! Thanks, Martin

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  • AS3 colorTransform over multiple frames?

    - by user359519
    (Flash Professional, AS3) I'm working on a custom avatar system where you can select various festures and colors. For example, I have 10 hairstyles, and a colorPicker to change the color. mc_myAvatar has 10 frames. Each frame has a movieclip of a different hairstyle (HairStyle1, HairStyle2, etc.) Here's my code: var hairColor:ColorTransform; hairColor = mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer.transform.colorTransform; hairColor.color = 0xCCCC00; mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer.transform.colorTransform = hairColor; This correctly changes the initial color. I have a "nextHair" button to advance mc_myAvatar.hair to the next frame. When I click the button, I get an error message saying that I have a null object reference. I added a trace, and mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer is null on frame 2. Why??? I've clearly named HairStyle2 as "colorLayer" in frame 2. I think the problem is related to me using the same name for different classes/movieclips, but I don't know how to fix the problem... I added a square movieclip below my hairStyle movieclips, named the square "colorLevel", and deleted the name from my hairStyle clips. When I click the next button, the square correctly maintains the color from frame to frame. However, having a square doesn't do me much good. :( I tried converting the hairStyle layer to a mask. Doing this, however, results in yet another "null object" error - mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer is null after frame 1. I even tried "spanning" my colorLevel across all frames (no keyframes), thinking that this would give me just one movieclip to work with. No luck. Same error! What's going on, here? Why am I getting these null objects, when they are clearly defined in my movieclip? I'm also open to suggestions on a better way to do multiple frames and colors.

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  • Redirecting http to https for a directory, via .htaccess, using mod_alias only

    - by Belinda
    I have the common problem of wanting to redirect requests for a certain restricted access directory from http to https, so that users' login credentials are sent in a secure way. However, I do not have mod_rewrite enabled on my server. I only have mod_alias. This means I have to use the RedirectMatch command. I can't use the usual solutions that use RewriteCond and RewriteRule. (A note on the politics: I am a small-fry subsite maintainer in a very large organisation, so the server admins are unlikely to be willing to change the server config for me!) The following line works, but forms an infinite loop (because the rewritten URL is still caught by the initial regular expression): RedirectMatch permanent ^/intranet(.*)$ https://example.com/intranet$1 One of my internal IT guys has suggested I avoid the infinite loop by moving the files to a new directory with a new name (eg /intranet2/). That seems pretty ugly to me. And people could still accidentally/deliberately revert to an insecure connection by visiting http://example.com/intranet2/ directly. Then I tried this, but it didn't work: RedirectMatch permanent ^http:(.*)/intranet(.*)$ https://example.com/intranet$1 I suspect it didn't work because the first argument must be a file path from the root directory, so it can't start with "http:". So: any better ideas how to do this?

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  • How to document an existing small web site (web application), inside and out?

    - by Ricket
    We have a "web application" which has been developed over the past 7 months. The problem is, it was not really documented. The requirements consisted of a small bulleted list from the initial meeting 7 months ago (it's more of a "goals" statement than software requirements). It has collected a number of features which stemmed from small verbal or chat discussions. The developer is leaving very soon. He wrote the entire thing himself and he knows all of the quirks and underlying rules to each page, but nobody else really knows much more than the user interface side of it; which of course is the easy part, as it's made to be intuitive to the user. But if someone needs to repair or add a feature to it, the entire thing is a black box. The code has some minimal comments, and of course the good thing about web applications is that the address bar points you in the right direction towards fixing a problem or upgrading a page. But how should the developer go about documenting this web application? He is a bit lost as far as where to begin. As developers, how do you completely document your web applications for other developers, maintainers, and administrative-level users? What approach do you use, where do you start, do you have a template? An idea of magnitude: it uses PHP, MySQL and jQuery. It has about 20-30 main (frontend) files, along with about 15 included files and a couple folders of some assets. So overall it's a pretty small application. It interfaces with 7 MySQL tables, each one well-named, so I think the database end is pretty self-explanatory. There is a config.inc.php file with definitions of consts like the MySQL user details, some from/to emails, and URLs which PHP uses to insert into emails and pages (relative and absolute paths, basiecally). There is some AJAX via jQuery. Please comment if there is any other information that would help you help me and I will be glad to edit it in.

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  • Simple javascript/jquery append, remove question

    - by Scarface
    Hey guys, quick question. I have a div that on click will execute a jquery function onclick, and then replace the div with its opposite div which onclick will replace back to the first div just like the favorite function on this site. I am having a simple problem I hope someone can spot or explain to me it is not possible. The function works with the initial two divs that are served directly, but when I click on either of the original two divs, and the function executes and replaces the div with the corresponding div the replacement div does not execute the function. I have to refresh the page to get the original div, which is identical to execute the function. Is the div actually replaced on the page with append, or does it just visually show it? Any advice appreciated. original div <div class="unfavorite"><img id="unfavorite_img" src="images/favorite2.png" /></div> javascript div replacement $(".favorite").remove(); $(".favoriteholder").append('<div class="unfavorite"><img id="unfavorite_img" src="images/favorite2.png" /></div>');

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  • Issue creating side-by-side slideshows with jQuery

    - by JShweky
    I'm trying to create a site with 2 slideshows. I've tweaked and re-tweaked the JS and Jquery numerous times. Sometimes one slideshow works perfectly and the other cycles between one picture, other times both work but are out of sync, or the fadeIn doesn't seem to be applied to the second slideshow, or in some variations one slideshow stays frozen on the initial image and just remains static. Anyway, I created a JS Fiddle (link at bottom) and apparently my code is at least free of typos. JS is below, the rest is on the JS Fiddle. Any help would be greatly appreciated. $(document).ready(function () { $(".slider #1").fadeIn(1000); $(".slider #1").delay(2000).fadeOut(1000); var sc = $(".slider img").size(); var count = 2; setInterval(function () { $(".slider #" + count).fadeIn(1000); $(".slider #" + count).delay(2000).fadeOut(1000); if (count === sc) { count = 1; } else { count++; } }, 3500); $(".sliderTwo #7").fadeIn(1000); $(".sliderTwo #7").delay(2000).fadeOut(1000); var sc2 = 12; var count2 = 7; setInterval(function () { $(".sliderTwo #" + count2).fadeIn(1000); $(".sliderTwo #" + count2).delay(2000).fadeOut(1000); if (count2 === sc2) { count2 = 7; } else { count2++; } }, 3500); }); http://jsfiddle.net/gg4PL/

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  • why is Active Record firing extra query when I use Includes method to fetch data

    - by riddhi_agrawal
    I have the following model structure: class Group < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :group_products, :dependent => :destroy has_many :products, :through => :group_products end class Product < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :group_products, :dependent => :destroy has_many :groups, :through => :group_products end class GroupProduct < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :group belongs_to :product end I wanted to minimize my database queries so I decided to use includes.In the console I tried something like, groups = Group.includes(:products) my development logs show the following calls, Group Load (403.0ms) SELECT `groups`.* FROM `groups` GroupProduct Load (60.0ms) SELECT `group_products`.* FROM `group_products` WHERE (`group_products`.group_id IN (1,3,14,15,16,18,19,20,21,22,23,24,25,26,27,28,29,30,33,42,49,51)) Product Load (22.0ms) SELECT `products`.* FROM `products` WHERE (`products`.`id` IN (382,304,353,12,63,103,104,105,262,377,263,264,265,283,284,285,286,287,302,306,307,308,328,335,336,337,340,355,59,60,61,247,309,311,66,30,274,294,324,350,140,176,177,178,64,240,327,332,338,380,383,252,254,255,256,257,325,326)) Product Load (10.0ms) SELECT `products`.* FROM `products` WHERE (`products`.`id` = 377) LIMIT 1 I could analyze the initial three calls were necessary but don't get the reason why the last database call is made, Product Load (10.0ms) SELECT `products`.* FROM `products` WHERE (`products`.`id` = 377) LIMIT 1 Any idea why this is happening? Thanks in advance. :)

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  • ( Sql Server 2005 C#.Net ) - I want just the insert query for a temp table.

    - by John Stephen
    Hi..I am using C#.Net and Sql Server ( Windows Application ). I had created a temporary table. When a button is clicked, temporary table (#tmp_emp_details) is created. I am having another button called "insert Values" and also 5 textboxes. The values that are entered in the textbox are used and whenever com.ExecuteNonQuery(); line comes, it throws an error message called "Invalid object name '#tbl_emp_answer'.". Below is the set of code..Please give me a solution. Code for insert (in insert value button): private void btninsertvalues_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { username = txtusername.Text; examloginid = txtexamloginid.Text; question = txtquestion.Text; answer = txtanswer.Text; useranswer = txtanswer.Text; SqlConnection con = new SqlConnection("Data Source=.;Initial Catalog=tempdb;Integrated Security=True;"); SqlCommand com = new SqlCommand("Insert into #tbl_emp_answer values('"+username+"','"+examloginid+"','"+question+"','"+answer+"','"+useranswer+"')", con); con.Open(); com.ExecuteNonQuery(); con.Close(); }

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  • Anything like Heroku for PHP or .NET?

    - by Wayne M
    In my area PHP is very widespread, so is .NET. Ruby not so much; most places have never heard of it. For some personal things I am "forced" to choose Rails because I want to take advantage of Heroku - the ability to deploy and scale on the cloud very easily is the main reason. Also, they offer a small FREE plan that I can use for demo sites or, in this case, for my business' static page; as a totally bootstrapped startup I have maybe $50 or so in initial capital and cannot afford to pay monthly fees while I'm getting started. Are there any similar offerings for other languages? Specifically, I really like the small, 5MB site for free that Heroku offers - is there anything like that for PHP and/or .NET? I'm not even that concerned about the "cloud" part, but that would be a nice bonus. If there is, I might be able to kill two birds with one stone and pick up a useful skill as I'm doing my own thing instead of using something that nobody else knows or cares about. I should add I'm specifically interested in something that offers a free plan. As I said, Heroku has a 5mb plan that you can have as many as you want for free; I have yet to find anything similar for any other platform, and to be honest I'm not too thrilled about using Ruby on Rails for everything simply to take advantage of this.

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  • Multisite Enabling a Table

    - by Joe Fitzgibbons
    I am creating a table (table A) that will have a number of columns(of course) and there will be another table (table B) that holds metadata associated to rows in table A. I am working with a multi site implementation that has one database for the whole shabang. Rows in table A could belong to any number of sites but must belong to at least one. The problem I have is I am not sure what the best practice is for defining what site each row in table A belongs to. I want performance and scalability. There is no finite number of sites going forward. Rows in table A could belong to any number of sites in the future. Right now there are only 3. My initial thoughts are to have a primary site ID in Table A and then metadata in table B will have rows defining additional sites as needed. Another thought is to have a column in Table A for each site and it is a boolean as to wether it belongs to that site. Lastly I have thought about having another table to map rows in Table A to each site. What is the best way to associate rows in a table with any number of sites with performance and scalability in mind?

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  • Joomla User Login Question

    - by user277127
    I would like to enable users of my existing web app to login to Joomla with the credentials already stored in my web app's database. By using the Joomla 1.5 authentication plugin system -- http://docs.joomla.org/Tutorial:Creating_an_Authentication_Plugin_for_Joomla_1.5 -- I would like to bypass the Joomla registration process and bypass creating users in the Joomla database altogether. My thought had been that I could simply populate a User object, which would be stored in the Session, and that this would replace the need to store a user in the Joomla database. After looking through the code surrounding user management in Joomla, it seems like any time you interact with the User object, the database is being queried. It therefore seems like my initial idea won't work. Is that right? It looks like, in order to achieve the effect I want, I will have to actually register a user from within the authentication plugin at the time they first login. This is not ideal, so before I go forward with it, I wanted to check with Joomla developers whether it is possible to do what I described above. Thanks in advance -- I am new to Joomla and greatly appreciate your help!

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  • ASP.NET MVC Search

    - by Cameron
    Hi I'm building a very simple search system using ASP.NET MVC. I had it originally work by doing all the logic inside the controller but I am now moving the code piece by piece into a repository. Can anyone help me do this. Thanks. Here is the original Action Result that was in the controller. public ActionResult Index(String query) { var ArticleQuery = from m in _db.ArticleSet select m; if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(query)) { ArticleQuery = ArticleQuery.Where(m => m.headline.Contains(query) orderby m.posted descending); } return View(ArticleQuery.ToList()); } As you can see, the Index method is used for both the initial list of articles and also for the search results (they use the same view). In the new system the code in the controller is as follows: public ActionResult Index() { return View(_repository.ListAll()); } The Repository has the following code: public IList<Article> ListAll() { var ArticleQuery = (from m in _db.ArticleSet orderby m.posted descending select m); return ArticleQuery.ToList(); } and the Interface has the following code: public interface INewsRepository { IList<Article> ListAll(); } So what I need to do is now add in the search query stuff into the repository/controller methods using this new way. Can anyone help? Thanks.

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  • Write a completely fluid HTML page (using '%' instead of 'px' for EVERY element height/width)

    - by barak manos
    I am designing my HTML pages to be completely fluid: For every element in the mark-up (HTML), I am using 'style="height:%;width:%"' (instead of 'style="height:*px;width:*px"'). This approach seems to work pretty well, except for when changing the window measurements, in which case, the web page elements change their position and end up "on top of each other". I have come up with a pretty good run-time (java-script) solution to that: var elements = document.getElementsByTagName("*"); for (var i=0; i < elements.length; i++) { if (elements[i].style.height) elements[i].style.height = elements[i].offsetHeight+"px"; if (elements[i].style.width ) elements[i].style.width = elements[i].offsetWidth +"px"; } The only problem remaining is, that if the user opens up the website by entering the URL into a non-maximized window, then the page fits that portion of the window. Then, when maximizing the window, the page remains in its previous measurements. So in essence, I have solved the initial problem (when changing the window measurements), but only when the window is initially in its maximum size. Any ideas on how to tackle this problem? (given that I would like to keep my "% page-design" as is).

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  • How can I close the output stream after a jsp has been included.

    - by stu
    I have a webpage that makes an ajax call to get some data. That data takes a long time to calculate, so what I did was the first ajax server call returns "loading..." and then the thread goes on to calculate the data and store it in a cache. meanwhile the client javascript checks back every few seconds with another ajax call to see if the cache has been loaded yet. Here's my problem, and it might not be a problem. After the initial ajax to the server call, I do a ...getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher(jsppath).include(request, response); then I use that thread to do the calculations. I don't mind tying up the webserver thread with this, but I want the browser to get the response and not wait for the server to close the socket. I can't tell if the server is closing the socket after the include, but I'm guessing it's not. So how can I forcibly close the stream after I've written out my response, before starting my long calculations? I tried o = response.getOutputStream(); o.close(); but I get an illegal state exception saying that the output stream has already been gotten (presumably by the jsp I'm including) So my qestions: 1) is the webserver closing the socket (I'm guessing not, because you could always include another jsp) 2) if it is as I assume not closing the socket, how do I do that?

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  • Choose 'better' or more familiar technologies for a new project?

    - by John
    I am looking to start work on a brand-new project, something I've been thinking about for a while as my first independent sellable project. It's broadly speaking a web-based service application, and my first choice, server-language is quite easy... I know Java pretty well from working on Java web-apps in the past. However my experience doing web-apps involved JSP, Servlets and JSTL... I know the ideas behind newer technologies like Hibernate/Spring but have never used them. So we wrote our own DAOs, handled AJAX by writing special mini-JSP pages that generated XML/JSON pages, etc. I'm not hugely into the idea that Spring/Hibernate are the 'only' or 'right' way to do any Java web-project, but they are widely used. On the other hand, not only would trying to learn these increase initial development time, but I'd be using my learning attempts to build a production system. I remember one of Joel's early articles said (I'll paraphrase since I can't find it) "regardless what's cool, always use the technologies that the lead developer (or dev team?) knows best" I wondered what people thought about that? ps: should this be CW?

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  • java class that simulates a simple database table

    - by ericso
    I have a collection of heterogenous data that I pull from a database table mtable. Then, for every unique value uv in column A, I compute a function of (SELECT * FROM mtable WHERE A=uv). Then I do the same for column B, and column C. There are rather a lot of unique values, so I don't want to hit the db repeatedly - I would rather have a class that replicates some of the functionality (most importantly some version of SELECT WHERE). Additionally, I would like to abstract the column names away from the class definition, if that makes any sense - the constructor should take a list of names as a parameter, and also, I suppose, a list of types (right now this is just a String[], which seems hacky). I'm getting the initial data from a RowSet. I've more or less done this by using a hashmap that maps Strings to lists/arrays of Objects, but I keep getting bogged down in comparisons and types, and am thinking that my current implementation really isn't as clean and clear as it could be. I'm pretty new to java, also, and am not sure if I'm not going down a completely incorrect path. Does anyone have any suggestions?

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  • Show image on hover with PHP

    - by Sorosh
    I have a small problem with my PHP code and It would be very nice if someone could help me. I want to display an image when hovering over a link. This is the link with the PHP code that I have now: <a href="<?php the_permalink(); ?>"><?php if ( has_post_thumbnail() ) {the_post_thumbnail();} else if ( has_post_video() ) {the_post_video_image();}?></a> This code shows a image, but I want to execute this code when hovering over the link with the image: <?php echo print_image_function(); ?> The code also shows a image that belongs to a category. I don't want the initial image to disappear I simply want to show the second image on top off the first image when hovering over the first image. I don't know if it is helpful but I use Wordpress and I am not a PHP expert. I even don't know if this is going to work. Thats why I am asking if somebody can help me with this. Thanks in advance

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