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• Context path routing in Tomcat ( service swapping )

  - by jojovilco

  Here is what I would like to achieve: I have a web service A which I want to be able to deploy side by side with other web services of type A - different version(s). For now I assume 2 instances side by side. I need it because the service has a warm up stage, which takes some time to build up stuff from DB and only after it is ready it can start serving requests ... I was thinking to deploy to Tomcat context paths like: "/ServiceA-1.0", "/ServiceA-2.0" and then have a "virtual" context like "/ServiceA" which will point to the desired physical service e.g. "/ServiceA-1.0". So external world will know about ServiceA, but internally, my ServiceA related stack would know about versioned ServiceA url ( there are more components involved but only ServiceA is serving outer world ). When new service is ready, I would just reconfigure the "virtual" context to point to a new service. So far, I was not able to find out how to do this with Tomcat and starting to tkink it is not possible. I found suggestions to place Apache Server in front of Tomcat and do the routing there, but I do not want to enroll another piece of software unless necessary. My questions are: - is this kind of a "virtual" context and routing possible to do with Tomcat? - any other options, wisdom and lessons learned how to achieve this kind of service swapping scenario? Best, Jozef

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• How to automatically extend the tab control as items are added to it without creating a scroll bar?

  - by MICHELINE

  I am using a WPF user control (tab control) to add tab items dynamically in the simplified code below: .... foreach (string id in ids) { TabControl.Items.Add(CreateTabItem(id)); } private TabItem CreateTabItem(string name) { StackPanel txtBlock = new TextBlock(); txtblock.Text = name; txtBlock.HorizontalAlignment = Horizontalalignment.Center; panel.Children.Add(txtBlock); TabItem item = new TabItem(); item.Header = panel; <SomeControl> control = new <SomeControl>(); item.Content = control; return item; } In the xaml file I specified the following to stack all my tab items to the left column: MinWidth="100" MinHeight="300" TabStripPlacement="Left" How do I make my tab control automatically extending (ie. stretching) its height to show all the tab items as I add them in? For now, I have to manually extend the height of the display window to see all the tab items. Your insights/tips are greatly appreciated. PS: if you know how to make the vertical scroll bar appears (without adding scroll bar to my control) as soon as the tab items exceed the window height, I can settle for that if there are no answers for my original intent.

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• Can't see anything wrong with simple code

  - by melee

  Here is my implementation file: using namespace std; #include <iostream> #include <iomanip> #include <string> #include <stack> //line 5 #include "proj05.canvas.h" //----------------Constructor----------------// Canvas::Canvas() //line 10 { Title = ""; Nrow = 0; Ncol = 0; image[][]; // line 15 PixelCoordinates.r = 0; PixelCoordinates.c = 0; } //-------------------Paint------------------// line 20 void Canvas::Paint(int R, int C, char Color) { cout << "Paint to be implemented" << endl; } The errors I'm getting are these: proj05.canvas.cpp: In function 'std::istream& operator>>(std::istream&, Canvas&)': proj05.canvas.cpp:11: error: expected `;' before '{' token proj05.canvas.cpp:22: error: a function-definition is not allowed here before '{' token proj05.canvas.cpp:24: error: expected `}' at end of input proj05.canvas.cpp:24: error: expected `}' at end of input These seem like simple syntax errors, but I am not sure what's wrong. Could someone decode these for me? I'd really appreciate it, thanks for your time!

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• Parsing a Multi-Index Excel File in Pandas

  - by rhaskett

  I have a time series excel file with a tri-level column MultiIndex that I would like to successfully parse if possible. There are some results on how to do this for an index on stack overflow but not the columns and the parse function has a header that does not seem to take a list of rows. The ExcelFile looks like is like the following: Column A is all the time series dates starting on A4 Column B has top_level1 (B1) mid_level1 (B2) low_level1 (B3) data (B4-B100+) Column C has null (C1) null (C2) low_level2 (C3) data (C4-C100+) Column D has null (D1) mid_level2 (D2) low_level1 (D3) data (D4-D100+) Column E has null (E1) null (E2) low_level2 (E3) data (E4-E100+) ... So there are two low_level values many mid_level values and a few top_level values but the trick is the top and mid level values are null and are assumed to be the values to the left. So, for instance all the columns above would have top_level1 as the top multi-index value. My best idea so far is to use transpose, but the it fills Unnamed: # everywhere and doesn't seem to work. In Pandas 0.13 read_csv seems to have a header parameter that can take a list, but this doesn't seem to work with parse.

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• Placing and removing element on array trough object

  - by Chris

  Hello, Lets assume i have 2 methods 1 that places a element on the array and one that removes it. const int Max = 10; int[] table= new int[Max]; I would like to call it up like this: s1.Place(5); // 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 s1.Place(9); // 5 9 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 s1.Remove(9); // 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 I would only like to use : using system for this. The result i get right now when i run the program is s1 = "nameofprogram" "name of class object" Normally i should get 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 to begin with. Any ideas how i can exactly add or remove those elements on the array? public void Place(int g) { if (top == Max) { throw new Exception("Stack overflow..."); } else { table[top] = g; top++; } .... Best Regards.

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• New to J2EE; architecture suggestions for a service/daemon?

  - by Kate

  I am brand new to the J2EE world. As an exercise to try and familiarize myself with J2EE, I'm trying to create a tiered web-app, but I'm getting a little stuck on what the best way is to spin up a service in the background that does work. Paramters of the service: It must open and hold a socket connection and receive information from the connected server. There is a 1-to-1 correlation between a user and a new socket connection. So the idea is the user presses a button on the web-page, and somewhere on the server a socket connection is opened. For the remainder of the users session (or until the user presses some sort of disconnect button) the socket remains open and pushes received information to some sort of centralized store that servlets can query and return to the user via AJAX. Is there a J2EE type way to handle this situation? Naturally what I would think to do is to just write a Java application that listens on a port that the servlets can connect to and spawns new threads that open these sockets, but that seems very ad-hoc to me. (PS: I am also new to Stack Overflow, so forgive me if it takes me some time to figure the site out!)

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• !gcroot output leads nowhere

  - by Jeff Costa

  I am troubleshooting memory fragmentation in an app pool, as evidenced by a small number of Free objects consuming the most space on the heap: 0x000007ff00256728 6,543 3,890,208 System.Collections.Hashtable+bucket[] 0x000007ff002649a8 7,297 22,979,560 System.Byte[] 0x000007ff001e0d90 251,347 30,374,304 System.String 0x0000000001d0c830 373 48,036,816 Free Running the !dumpgen 3 command reveals the fragmentation; There is a repeating pattern of Free and System.Object objects of the same size: 000000017feb7350 24 **** FREE **** 000000017feb7368 8192 System.Object[] 000000017feb9368 24 **** FREE **** 000000017feb9380 8192 System.Object[] 000000017febb380 24 **** FREE **** 000000017febb398 8192 System.Object[] 000000017febd398 24 **** FREE **** 000000017febd3b0 8192 System.Object[] 000000017febf3b0 24 **** FREE **** 000000017febf3c8 8192 System.Object[] 000000017fec13c8 24 **** FREE **** 000000017fec13e0 8192 System.Object[] 000000017fec33e0 24 **** FREE **** 000000017fec33f8 8192 System.Object[] 000000017fec53f8 24 **** FREE **** 000000017fec5410 14024 System.Object[] 000000017fec8ad8 24 **** FREE **** 000000017fec8af0 8192 System.Object[] 000000017fecaaf0 24 **** FREE **** 000000017fecab08 8192 System.Object[] 000000017feccb08 24 **** FREE **** 000000017feccb20 8192 System.Object[] 000000017feceb20 24 **** FREE **** 000000017feceb38 8192 System.Object[] 000000017fed0b38 24 **** FREE **** 000000017fed0b50 8192 System.Object[] 000000017fed2b50 24 **** FREE **** 000000017fed2b68 8192 System.Object[] When I try to obtain the root of one of the System.Objects with !gcroot, I get a pinned handle, but no additional stack data: Scan Thread 41 OSThread 1044 DOMAIN(0000000001D51330):HANDLE(Pinned):15217e8:Root: 000000017fe60fe8(System.Object[]) As you can see, there is no additional data to go on. Running a !handle command also yields nothing: 0:041> !handle 000000017fe7a068 ff Handle 000000017fe7a068 Type <Error retrieving type> unable to query object information unable to query object information No object specific information available How can I trace out this memory leak when I cannot find what is rooting System.Object?

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• C# properties: How are they instantiated?

  - by Pedery

  Hi! This might be a pretty straightforward question, but I'm trying to understand some of the internal workings of the compilation. Very simply put, imagine an arbitrary object being instantiated. This object is then allocated on the heap. The object has a property of type PointF (which is value type), with a get and a set method. Imagine the get and the set method containing a few calculations for doing their work. How and where (stack/heap) and when is this code instantiated? This is the background for this question: I'm writing get and set methods for an object and these methods need to be accessed very frequently. The get and set code in itself is rather massive so I feared that in a worst case scenario the methods would be instantiated as an object or a value type with all internal code for every access of the property. On the other hand the code is probably instantiated when the main object is created and the CPU is simply told to jmp to the property code start. Anyway, this is what I want to have clarified.

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• Memory fragmentation @ boost::asio ?

  - by Poni

  I'm pretty much stuck with a question I never got an answer for, a question which addresses an extremely important issue; memory fragmentation at boost::asio. Found nothing at the documentation nor here at SO. The functions at boost::asio, for example async_write() & async_read_some() always allocate something. (in my case it's 144 & 96 bytes respectively, in VC9 Debug build). How do I know about it? I connect a client to the "echo server" example provided with this library. I put a breakpoint at "new.cpp" at the code of "operator new(size_t size)". Then I send "123". Breakpoint is hit! Now using the stack trace I can clearly see that the root to the "new" call is coming from the async_write() & async_read_some() calls I make in the function handlers. So memory fragmentation will come sooner or later, thus I can't use ASIO, and I wish I could! Any idea? Any helpful code example?

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• How to select "child" entities in subview?

  - by Andy

  I am trying to manage a drill-down list of data. I've got an entity, Contact, that has a to-many relationship with another entity, Rule. In my root view controller, I use a fetched results controller to manage and display the list of Contacts. When a Contact is tapped, I push a new view controller onto the stack with a list of the Contact's Rules. I have not been able to figure out how to use a second fetched results controller to display the Rules, so I'm using the following: // create a set of the contact's rules rules = [NSMutableSet set]; rules = [self.contact mutableSetValueForKey:@"rule"]; // create an array of rules from the set arrayOfRules = [NSMutableArray arrayWithCapacity:[rules count]]; for (id oneObject in rules) [arrayOfRules addObject:oneObject]; // sort the array of rules NSSortDescriptor *descriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"phoneLabel" ascending:YES]; [arrayOfRules sortUsingDescriptors:[NSArray arrayWithObject:descriptor]]; [descriptor release]; I create a set of Rules, then use that to create an array of Rules for sorting. I then use these two collections to populate the grouped table view. All of this appears to be working correctly. Here's my problem: There are several different actions a user can take in this view, and most of them require that I know which Rule was tapped. But I can't figure out how to get that. For instance, say a user wants to delete a Rule. It seems to me the proper approach is something like... [rules removeObject:ruleObjectToBeRemoved] ...but I can't figure out how to specifiy ruleObjectToBeRemoved. I hope all of this makes sense. As usual, thanks in advance for any advice you can offer.

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• JavaScript: Is there a better way to retain your array but efficiently concat or replace items?

  - by Michael Mikowski

  I am looking for the best way to replace or add to elements of an array without deleting the original reference. Here is the set up: var a = [], b = [], c, i, obj; for ( i = 0; i < 100000; i++ ) { a[ i ] = i; b[ i ] = 10000 - i; } obj.data_list = a; Now we want to concatenate b INTO a without changing the reference to a, since it is used in obj.data_list. Here is one method: for ( i = 0; i < b.length; i++ ) { a.push( b[ i ] ); } This seems to be a somewhat terser and 8x (on V8) faster method: a.splice.apply( a, [ a.length, 0 ].concat( b ) ); I have found this useful when iterating over an "in-place" array and don't want to touch the elements as I go (a good practice). I start a new array (let's call it keep_list) with the initial arguments and then add the elements I wish to retain. Finally I use this apply method to quickly replace the truncated array: var keep_list = [ 0, 0 ]; for ( i = 0; i < a.length; i++ ){ if ( some_condition ){ keep_list.push( a[ i ] ); } // truncate array a.length = 0; // And replace contents a.splice.apply( a, keep_list ); There are a few problems with this solution: there is a max call stack size limit of around 50k on V8 I have not tested on other JS engines yet. This solution is a bit cryptic Has anyone found a better way?

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• Nested modal view controller gives strange message under iOS6?

  - by user1840362

  I am presenting a modal view controller from another modal view controller, and this worked fine under all iOS versions prior to iOS6. But under iOS6 I am getting the following warning message in the emulator: Warning: Attempt to present <UINavigationController: 0x14e93680> on <UINavigationController: 0x9fc6b70> while a presentation is in progress! The modal view controller is not shown if this warning appears. Basically I am using code like this to show the modal view controller: WebAuthViewController *authController = [[WebAuthViewController alloc] initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; authController.challenge = challenge; authController.delegate = self; UINavigationController *aNavController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:authController]; [self presentModalViewController:aNavController animated:YES]; [aNavController release]; [authController release]; The view that is already shown is a UIWebView also shown in a modal view, like this: WebViewController *addController = [[WebViewController alloc] initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; addController.urlToLoad = [NSURL URLWithString:urlString]; addController.delegate = self; UINavigationController *navigationController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:addController]; navigationController.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:navigationController animated:YES]; [navigationController release]; [addController release]; The apple docs still suggest that one is supposed to be able to stack navigation controllers like this, so I am at a loss to explain why this happens. Any hints?

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• Why am I unable to prevent the animation queue from stacking without breaking my code?

  - by user1888886

  I am attempting to use jquery and CSS to animate the buttons of a navigation sidebar I am using to signify which button is selected when the mouse is hovered over each. Currently, my code for the CSS appears as such: #navbutton {position:relative; width:178px; height:35px; border:1px #FFF solid; z-index:+3; font-family:'Capriola', sans-serif; font-size:18px; text-align:center;} #navbutton.button {color:#77D; background-color: #F0B0D0;} #navbutton.button_hover {color:#66C; background-color: #FCF; padding:10px;} And my jquery: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#sidebar div").mouseenter(buttonHover) function buttonHover(){ $(this).stop().switchClass('button','button_hover',500); } $("#sidebar div").mouseleave(button) function button(){ $(this).stop().switchClass('button_hover','button',500); } }); </script> Before I added the .stop() to each part of the animation, the animation queue would stack up for each time the mouse was moved over each button and then removed. Now that the .stop() has been applied, however, if the mouse is moved away from a button during its animation, the button will freeze and remain in its mid-animation state, unable to be fixed by being hovered over until the page is reloaded, rather than reverting to its original mouseleave state. From everything I've read, this should not be the case. Might anyone be able to tell why my animation queue becomes broken once the .stop() is applied?

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• Can't get horizontal scroll to work.

  - by kylex

  Here's my code in first-scene.html: <div id="main" class="palm-hasheader"> <div class="palm-header">Header</div> <div id="scrollerId" style="width:500px; height:500px" x-mojo-element="Scroller"> <div> My Text that goes on... and on... and on... horizontally... </div> </div> </div> Here my code in first-assistant.js: function FirstAssistant() { /* this is the creator function for your scene assistant object. */ } FirstAssistant.prototype.setup = function() { /* this function is for setup tasks that have to happen when the scene is created */ this.controller.setupWidget("scrollerId", this.attributes = { mode: 'horizontal' } ); }; FirstAssistant.prototype.activate = function(event) { /* put in event handlers here that should only be in effect when this scene is active. */ }; FirstAssistant.prototype.deactivate = function(event) { /* remove any event handlers you added in activate and do any other cleanup */ }; FirstAssistant.prototype.cleanup = function(event) { /* this function should do any cleanup needed before the scene is destroyed as a result of being popped off the scene stack */ }; Can't get it to scroll horizontally. What am I missing?

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• Which of the following Java coding fragments is better?

  - by Simon

  This isn't meant to be subjective, I am looking for reasons based on resource utilisation, compiler performance, GC performance etc. rather than elegance. Oh, and the position of brackets doesn't count, so no stylistic comments please. Take the following loop; Integer total = new Integer(0); Integer i; for (String str : string_list) { i = Integer.parse(str); total += i; } versus... Integer total = 0; for (String str : string_list) { Integer i = Integer.parse(str); total += i; } In the first one i is function scoped whereas in the second it is scoped in the loop. I have always thought (believed) that the first one would be more efficient because it just references an existing variable already allocated on the stack, whereas the second one would be pushing and popping i each iteration of the loop. There are quite a lot of other cases where I tend to scope variables more broadly than perhaps necessary so I thought I would ask here to clear up a gap in my knowledge. Also notice that assignment of the variable on initialisation either involving the new operator or not. Do any of these sorts of semi-stylistic semi-optimisations make any difference at all?

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• Server side method not getting called

  - by Rangel Fernandes

  From the below javascript code i am trying to call a serverside method, but serververside method is not getting called. I am using jquery, ajax <script type="text/javascript" src="JquryLib.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function fnPopulateCities() { debugger; var State = $("#ddlState").val(); GetCities(State); return false; } function GetCities(StateId) { debugger; var v1 = 'StateId: ' + StateId; $.ajax( { type: "POST", url: 'DropDownList_Cascade.aspx/PopulateCities', data: '{' + v1 + '}', contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (result) { if (result.status === "OK") { alert('Success!!'); } else { fnDisplayCities(result); } }, error: function (req, status, error) { alert("Sorry! Not able to retrieve cities"); } }); } </script> This is my serverside method which i need to call. private static ArrayList PopulateCities(int StateId) { //this code returns Cities ArrayList from database. } It is giving me the following error: 500 (Internal Server Error) I cannot figure out what is wrong. please help! Stack Trace: [ArgumentException: Unknown web method PopulateCities.Parameter name: methodName]

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• VB.NET Program Locks Up with Internet Explorer Opened

  - by aaronsj

  I'm using Visual Studio 2008 and developing a VB.NET application. I'm having strange lockup problems with my program, but only when Internet explorer 8 is opened. When I cover my form with another window and then uncover it, I find that it has locked up. My program has no references to IE and the only thing it even has to do with IE is using Process.Start with a web address. My program works fine and exactly as it should, but only when IE is not opened. Does anyone know why a program would lock up only while IE is running? Edit: I've done some digging and I've found the offending thread in my program. I don't know what starts this thread or what it does, but when I kill it, my program no longer freezes. The thread is one of the CreateApplicationContext threads, here is the last few items in the stack trace of that thread. 6 ntkrnlpa.exe+0x897bc 7 ntdll.dll!KiFastSystemCallRet 8 mscorwrks.dll!LogHelp_TerminateOnAssert+0x61 9 mscorwrks.dll!DllUnregisterServerInternal+0x10523 10 mscorwrks.dll!DllUnregisterServerInternal+0x10542 11 mscorwrks.dll!StrongNameErrorInfo+0x34387 12 mscorwrks.dll!StrongNameErrorInfo+0x34815 13 mscorwrks.dll!CreateApplicationContext+0xbc35 14 KERNEL32.dll!GetModuleHandleA+0xdf Process explorer says my program is using no CPU nor throwing any exceptions while it is hung.

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• Should I re-use UI elements across view controllers?

  - by Endemic

  In the iPhone app I'm currently working on, I'd like two navigation controllers (I'll call them A and B) to have toolbars that are identical in appearance and function. The toolbar in question will look like this: [(button) (flexible-space) (label)] For posterity's sake, the label is actually a UIBarButtonItem with a custom view. My design requires that A always appear directly before B on the navigation stack, so B will never be loaded without A having been loaded. Given this layout, I started wondering, "Is it worth it to re-use A's toolbar items in B's toolbar?" As I see it, my options are: 1. Don't worry about re-use, create the toolbar items twice 2. Create the toolbar items in A and pass them to B in a custom initializer 3. Use some more obscure method that I haven't thought of to hold the toolbar constant when pushing a view controller As far as I can see, option 1 may violate DRY, but guarantees that there won't be any confusion on the off chance that (for example) the button may be required to perform two different (no matter how similar) functions for either view controller in future versions of the app. Were that to happen, options 2 or 3 would require the target-action of the button to change when B is loaded and unloaded. Even if the button were never required to perform different functions, I'm not sure what its proper target would be under option 2. All in all, it's not a huge problem, even if I have to go with option 1. I'm probably overthinking this anyway, trying to apply the dependency injection pattern where it's not appropriate. I just want to know the best practice should this situation arise in a more extreme form, like if a long chain of view controllers need to use identical (in appearance and function) UI elements.

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• jQuery trigger custom event synchronously?

  - by Miguel Angelo

  I am using the jQuery trigger method to call an event... but it behaves inconsistently. Sometimes it call the event, sometimes it does not. <a href="#" onclick=" $(this).trigger('custom-event'); window.location.href = 'url'; return false; ">text</a> The custom-event has lots of listeners added to it. It is as if the trigger method is not synchronous, allowing the window.location.href be changed before executing the events. And when window.location.href is changed a navigation occurs, interrupting everything. How can I trigger events synchronously? Using jQuery 1.8.1. Thanks! EDIT I have found that the event, when called has a stack trace like this: jQuery.fx.tick (jquery-1.8.1.js:9021) tick (jquery-1.8.1.js:8499) jQuery.Callbacks.self.fireWith (jquery-1.8.1.js:1082) jQuery.Callbacks.fire (jquery-1.8.1.js:974) jQuery.speed.opt.complete (jquery-1.8.1.js:8991) $.customEvent (myfile.js:28) This proves that jQuery trigger method is asynchronous. Oohhh my... =\

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• Cryptography for P2P card game

  - by zephyr

  I'm considering writing a computer adaptation of a semi-popular card game. I'd like to make it function without a central server, and I'm trying to come up with a scheme that will make cheating impossible without having to trust the client. The basic problem as I see it is that each player has a several piles of cards (draw deck, current hand and discard deck). It must be impossible for either player to alter the composition of these piles except when allowed by the game rules (ie drawing or discarding cards), nor should players be able to know what is in their or their oppponent's piles. I feel like there should be some way to use something like public-key cryptography to accomplish this, but I keep finding holes in my schemes. Can anyone suggest a protocol or point me to some resources on this topic? [Edit] Ok, so I've been thinking about this a bit more, and here's an idea I've come up with. If you can poke any holes in it please let me know. At shuffle time, a player has a stack of cards whose value is known to them. They take these values, concatenate a random salt to each, then hash them. They record the salts, and pass the hashes to their opponent. The opponent concatenates a salt of their own, hashes again, then shuffles the hashes and passes the deck back to the original player. I believe at this point, the deck has been randomized and neither player can have any knowledge of the values. However, when a card is drawn, the opponent can reveal their salt, allowing the first player to determine what the original value is, and when the card is played the player reveals their own salt, allowing the opponent to verify the card value.

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• undefined method `model_name' for NilClass:Class - Rails application

  - by user1270259

  So I have seen other articles here on stack about this and a lot of the time people are not doing @post = post.new. I read some where to use the plural...?? any ways I am getting this error on my discussion code: Discussion Controller class DiscussionsController < ApplicationController def index @discussion = Discussion.new @discussions = Discussion.all end def create @discussion = Discussion.create(params[:discussion]) if @discussion.save redirect_to tasks_path, :flash => {:success => 'Created a new discussion'} else redirect_to tasks_path, :flash => {:error => 'Failed to create a discussion'} end end end Discussion Form <%= form_for @discussion do |f| %> <p><%= f.label :title %> <%= f.text_field :title %></p> <p><%= f.label :content %> <%= f.text_area :content %></p> <% end %> Discussion Routes resources :discussions do resources :comments end Now as far as I know I am doing this right, because I have a task form set up essentially the same way - but I have looked at my code for hours and have googled and tried other examples and now i see this: undefined method `model_name' for NilClass:Class Extracted source (around line #1): 1: <%= form_for @discussion do |f| %> 2: 3: <p><%= f.label :title %> 4: <%= f.text_field :title %></p> Which should mean that I am missing something from my controller.....is it as asilly as a spelling mistake? .

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• (php) regexto remove comments but ignore occurances within strings

  - by David

  Hi there, I am writing a comment-stripper and trying to accommodate for all needs here. I have the below stack of code which removes pretty much all comments, but it actually goes too far. A lot of time was spent trying and testing and researching the regex patterns to match, but I don't claim that they are the best at each. My problem is that I also have situation where I have 'PHP comments' (that aren't really comments' in standard code, or even in PHP strings, that I don't actually want to have removed. Example: <?php $Var = "Blah blah //this must not comment"; // this must comment. ?> What ends up happening is that it strips out religiously, which is fine, but it leaves certain problems: <?php $Var = "Blah blah ?> Also: will also cause problems, as the comment removes the rest of the line, including the ending ? See the problem? So this is what I need... Comment characters within '' or "" need to be ignored PHP Comments on the same line, that use double-slashes, should remove perhaps only the comment itself, or should remove the entire php codeblock. Here's the patterns I use at the moment, feel free to tell me if there's improvement I can make in my existing patterns? :) $CompressedData = $OriginalData; $CompressedData = preg_replace('!/\*.*?\*/!s', '', $CompressedData); // removes /* comments */ $CompressedData = preg_replace('!//.*?\n!', '', $CompressedData); // removes //comments $CompressedData = preg_replace('!#.*?\n!', '', $CompressedData); // removes # comments $CompressedData = preg_replace('/<!--(.*?)-->/', '', $CompressedData); // removes HTML comments Any help that you can give me would be greatly appreciated! :)

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• License key pattern detection?

  - by Ricket

  This is not a real situation; please ignore legal issues that you might think apply, because they don't. Let's say I have a set of 200 known valid license keys for a hypothetical piece of software's licensing algorithm, and a license key consists of 5 sets of 5 alphanumeric case-insensitive (all uppercase) characters. Example: HXDY6-R3DD7-Y8FRT-UNPVT-JSKON Is it possible (or likely) to extrapolate other possible keys for the system? What if the set was known to be consecutive; how do the methods change for this situation, and what kind of advantage does this give? I have heard of "keygens" before, but I believe they are probably made by decompiling the licensing software rather than examining known valid keys. In this case, I am only given the set of keys and I must determine the algorithm. I'm also told it is an industry standard algorithm, so it's probably not something basic, though the chance is always there I suppose. If you think this doesn't belong in Stack Overflow, please at least suggest an alternate place for me to look or ask the question. I honestly don't know where to begin with a problem like this. I don't even know the terminology for this kind of problem.

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• ObjectDataSource firing twice, or on its own

  - by LoveMeSomeCode

  Can someone explain exactly how/when an ObjectDataSource fires? I have an ASP.NET page, with a GridView, which is referencing an ODS. I put a breakpoint in the method the ODS is using, and noticed it was firing twice. I looked into the code and the answer seemed obvious at first. I had Page_Load() { if(!Page.IsPostBack) { MethodA(); MethodB(); } } where MethodA and MethodB were both eventually calling gv.DataBind(). This made sense because I assume that each call to GridView.DataBind() would result in asking the ODS for data, and therefore running my data access method. The weird thing is that when comment out the call to MethodA, it still fires twice. Checking the call stack shows the method being run first as a result of MethodB, and then again, with no trail except [External Code]. This mystery load does not happen when I let MethodA and MethodB both execute. Any idea what's going on here? Any idea what other code I might have that is asking the ODS for data? I'm starting to think all these 'no code' data controls are more obfuscation and BS than they're worth.

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• Analyzing BSOD without a dump

  - by eeoo2555

  One of the drivers I'm developing has caused a BSOD. Unfortunately a dump file was not created since it was not configured / low resources. I was trying to reproduce this crash but no luck so far. Is there any way to get some info using WinDbg or any other tool? I have this information: A screenshot of the BSOD The .sys file. Its pdb The source code The machine it was crashed on I have everything except the dump itself. Your help will be much appreciated. As I said above, no dump (/minidump) exists. This is the actual problem. For this specific crash, I know I won't be able to get the stack. Just getting the specific line of code will be good enough. Because the BSOD contains the module's address, it seems like there should be a way to detect which line exactly is it. As I mentioned above, I do have the .sys file, the pdb and the source code. This is the specific code taken from MSDN: SYSTEM_SERVICE_EXCEPTION. How can I know from there what was the specific line? and/or the specific exception raised?

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