Search Results

Search found 4238 results on 170 pages for 'lost soul'.

Page 138/170 | < Previous Page | 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145  | Next Page >

  • CSS Design question, I've got myself completely turned around.

    - by Matt Dawdy
    Okay, I have a couple of other questions out there, but I think I'd better just ask from the beginning how you CSS experts would do this. Client's page is split into 2 rows -- header has some info, some aligned to left of page, some to right, some in the middle. This is currently done using a table. I'm fine with leaving this alone or changing it. My real question is that I need a page layout to handle the following: 2 columns - column on left is 200px, but can be "close" down to to 10px (not a slider, it's either 200 or 10 px). The column on the right needs to be as big as it needs to be -- which might be larger than the width of the page. When left column is "closed" then the right column slides over of course. Again, this right column might be 300px or it might be 4000 pixels (it's a reporting interface). Now, to add another wrinkle, SOME pages have 3 columns. The first 2 columns are each exactly 200px, and both can be "closed" down to 10 px each. But, the user may not close both columns, maybe just 1. Or none. Or both. The third column needs to act just like I described above, being able to be larger than the page width, and sliding over to take advantage of any of the "closed" left columns. Whew! I'm pretty confused as to how to go about this, as either I get it right but I can't scroll over to the right at all (overflow: hidden) and information is lost, or the right column jumps down below the left 2 columns and just looks plain stupid. My minimum browser requirements are IE8, FF3.5, Chrome and Safari (latest versions of all). Any and all pointers are gladly accepted.

    Read the article

  • jQuery addClass() not running before jQuery.ajax()

    - by Josh
    I'm trying to have a button that onclick will apply a class loading (sets cursor to "wait") to the body, before making a series of ajax requests. Code is: $('#addSelected').click(function(){ $('body').addClass('loading'); var products = $(':checkbox[id^=add_]:checked'); products.each(function(){ var prodID = $(this).attr('id').replace('add_', ''); var qty = $('#qty_' + prodID).val(); if($('#prep_' + prodID).val()) { prodID += ':' + $('#prep_' + prodID).val(); } // Have to use .ajax rather than .get so we can use async:false, otherwise // product adds happen in parallel, causing data to be lost. $.ajax({ url: '<?=base_url()?>basket/update/' + prodID + '/' + qty, async: false, beforeSend: function(){ $('body').addClass('loading'); } }); }); }); I've tried doing $('body').addClass('loading'); both before the requests, and as a beforeSend callback, but there is no difference. In firebug I can see that body doesn't get the loading class until after the requests are complete. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Open the Word Application from a button on a web page

    - by Andrea
    I'm developing a proof of concept web application: A web page with a button that opens the Word Application installed on the user's PC. I'm stuck with a C# project in Visual Studio 2008 Express (Windows XP client, LAMP server). I've followed the Writing an ActiveX Control in .NET tutorial and after some tuning it worked fine. Then I added my button for opening Word. The problem is that I can reference the Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word from the project, but I'm not able to access it from the web page. The error says "That assembly does not allow partially trusted callers". I've read a lot about security in .NET, but I'm totally lost now. Disclaimer: I'm into .NET since 4 days ago. I've tried to work around this issue but I cannot see the light!! I don't even know if it will ever be possible! using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Drawing; using System.Data; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using Word = Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word; using System.IO; using System.Security.Permissions; using System.Security; [assembly: AllowPartiallyTrustedCallers] namespace OfficeAutomation { public partial class UserControl1 : UserControl { public UserControl1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void openWord_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { Word.Application Word_App = null; Word_App = new Word.Application(); Word_App.Visible = true; } catch (Exception exc) { MessageBox.Show("Can't open Word application (" + exc.ToString() + ")"); } } } }

    Read the article

  • WPF: How can I KEEP the same ItemTemplate instance once its created ??

    - by Samir Sabri
    Hello, Here is a cinario: I have a ListView, with ItemsSource = ProjectModel.Instance.PagesModelsCollection; where PagesModelsCollection is an ObservableCollection In the ListView XAML part: <ListView.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate x:Name="PagesViewDataTemplate"> <DataTemplate.Resources> <Style x:Key="PageHostStyle" TargetType="{x:Type p:KPage}"> </Style> </DataTemplate.Resources> <StackPanel x:Name="MarginStack" Margin="50,50,50,50" > <p:KPage x:Name="PageHost" > </p:KPage> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListView.ItemTemplate> The problem is the ITemTemplate is re-created each time we refresh the Items. So, if we have 100 Item in the list view, another 100 new ItemTemplate instance will be created if we refresh the items! As a result, if we add UIElements on one of the ItemTemplate intances, those added UIElements will be lost, because the old ITemTemplate is replaced with a new one! How can I KEEP the ItemTemplate instance once its created ??

    Read the article

  • Paypal Encrypted Website payments

    - by John Isaacks
    I am trying to integrate a PayPal Website Payments Standard Cart Upload payment type into my shopping cart. I integrated Google Checkout a while back and I did not find it overly confusing as I do paypal. I am getting info on how to encrypt it from here: https://cms.paypal.com/us/cgi-bin/?&cmd=_render-content&content_ID=developer/e_howto_html_encryptedwebpayments#id08A3I0P017Q Paypal says I need to generate a private key and a public certificate using OpenSSL. I went to OpenSSL and downloaded the latest release, which is just a folder containing various files but I see no application I can use, not sure what to do here. Even if I were to get OpenSSL to generate me a private key and public cert, the next step is to download either an MS or Java command line tool to create the encrypted cart ahead of time with the cart-total, tax, etc. which sounds crazy to me, like I am supposed to manually do this prior to every order?? Obviously I do not know the items in the cart the customer is going to buy before hand so I need this to be done on the fly on my website using PHP. But I am completely lost. There has to be a way to setup dynamic secure cart uploads to paypal. Can someone please point me in the right direction?

    Read the article

  • Permissions on Mac OSX

    - by Linda
    I think that this is a permissions issue but I am not sure and I am not sure how to repair the problem. I have a new MacBook. I have 2 external drives that were previously used on another MacBook. I have a lot of folders and XCode projects on the external drives. When I try to work on the projects, there is a message similar to this: "This file is not writable. You may not be able to save your changes, but you will be able to Save a Copy somewhere else. Do you want to edit this file anyway?" If I make changes and try to close the project I get this error: "The project and user files project.pbxproj and macbook.pbxuser for project “thirdtry.xcodeproj” are not writeable and cannot be saved. Your changes will be lost if you close the project. You may need to SCM edit these files to gain writability." I have tried just to rename the folder but that permission is not allowed either unless I individually change permissions for every file in an XCode project. As you can imagine, this could be time consuming for tons of files and projects. I can copy the project into internal memory and can run it then after renaming the folder that contains all of the files. This defeats the purpose of having all of the projects on an external drive. Also, in XCode, there is no "Build and Run" there is only "Build and Debug" now. I don't know if this is related or not. Suggestions for how to repair all permissions to all files and folders on my external drives? What about the "Build and Debug" and no "Build and Run" choice? Thanks, Linda

    Read the article

  • R - removing rows and replacing values using conditions from multiple columns

    - by lecodesportif
    I want to filter out all values of var3 < 5 while keeping at least one occurrence of each value of var1. > foo <- data.frame(var1= c(1, 1, 2, 3, 3, 4, 4, 5), var2=c(9, 5, 13, 9, 12, 11, 13, 9), var3=c(6, 8, 3, 6, 4, 7, 2, 9)) > foo var1 var2 var3 1 1 9 6 2 1 5 8 3 2 13 3 4 3 9 6 5 3 12 4 6 4 11 7 7 4 13 2 8 5 9 9 subset(foo, (foo$var3>=5)) would remove row 3, 5 and 7 and I would have lost var1==2. I want to remove the row if there is another value of var1 that fulfills the condition foo$var3 = 5. See row 5. I want to keep the row, assiging NA to var2 and var3 if all occurrences of a value var1 do not fulfill the condition foo$var3 = 5. This is the result I expect: var1 var2 var3 1 1 9 6 2 1 5 8 3 2 NA NA 4 3 9 6 6 4 11 7 8 5 9 9 This is the closest I got: > foo$var3[ foo$var3 < 5 ] = NA > foo$var2[ is.na(foo$var3) ] = NA > foo var1 var2 var3 1 1 9 6 2 1 5 8 3 2 NA NA 4 3 9 6 5 3 NA NA 6 4 11 7 7 4 NA NA 8 5 9 9 So I guess I just need to know how to conditionally remove the row.

    Read the article

  • Sharing storage between servers

    - by El Yobo
    I have a PHP based web application which is currently only using one webserver but will shortly be scaling up to another. In most regards this is pretty straightforward, but the application also stores a lot of files on the filesystem. It seems that there are many approaches to sharing the files between the two servers, from the very simple to the reasonably complex. These are the options that I'm aware of Simple network storage NFS SMB/CIFS Clustered filesystems Lustre GFS/GFS2 GlusterFS Hadoop DFS MogileFS What I want is for a file uploaded via one webserver be immediately available if accessed through the other. The data is extremely important and absolutely cannot be lost, so whatever is implemented needs to a) never lose data and b) have very high availability (as good as, or better, than a local filesystem). It seems like the clustered filesystems will also provide faster data access than local storage (for large files) but that isn't of vita importance at the moment. What would you recommend? Do you have any suggestions to add or anything specifically to look out for with the above options? Any suggestions on how to manage backup of data on the clustered filesystems?

    Read the article

  • "hour" int taken from NSDate not behaving as expected at midnight??

    - by Eric
    I feel like I've lost my mind. Can someone tell me what's going on here? Also, I'm sure there is a better way to do what I'm trying to do, but I'm not interested in that now. I'd just like to solve the mystery of why my ints are not responding to logic as expected. // Set "At: " field close to current time NSDateFormatter *dateFormatter = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; [dateFormatter setDateFormat:@"HH"]; int hour = [[dateFormatter stringFromDate:[NSDate date]] intValue]; [dateFormatter setDateFormat:@"mm"]; int minute = [[dateFormatter stringFromDate:[NSDate date]] intValue]; NSLog(@"currently %i:%i",hour, minute); if(hour >= 12){ // convert to AM/PM selectedMeridiem = 1; if(hour != 12){ hour = hour - 12; } } else{ selectedMeridiem = 0; } selectedHour = hour - 1; if(selectedHour <= 0){ selectedHour = 11; } When I debug the above code with my clock set to 12:XX AM, the integer "hour" returned is 0. But then any if statements with the condition if(hour == 0) are not evaluated. Likewise, this would not be evaluated either: if(hour < 1). The code above puts the hour int into another int, selectedHour (don't worry about why I'm doing this for now), but selectedHour suffers from the same weird behavior; the if(selectedHour <= 0) line is never evaluated. Am I going crazy, or am I just an idiot? Maybe there's some behavior of 0 integers that I'm not aware of. All of my code runs fine as long as it's not 12:XX AM.

    Read the article

  • Dealing with expired session for a partially filled form?

    - by aaronls
    I have a large webform, and would like to prompt the user to login if their session expires, or have them login when they submit the form. It seems that having them login when they submit the form creates alot of challenges because they get redirected to the login page and then the postback data for the original form submission is lost. So I'm thinking about how to prompt them to login asynchrounsly when the session expires. So that they stay on the original form page, have a panel appear telling them the session has expired and they need to login, it submits the login asynchronously, the login panel disapears, and the user is still on the original partially filled form and can submit it. Is this easily doable using the existing ASP.NET Membership controls? When they submit the form will I need to worry about the session key? I mean, I am wondering if the session key the form submits will be the original one from before the session expired which won't match the new one generated after logging in again asynchrounously(I still do not understand the details of how ASP.NET tracks authentication/session IDs). Edit: Yes I am actually concerned about authentication expiration. The user must be authenticated for the submitted data to be considered valid.

    Read the article

  • how to number t-rows ,when table generated using nested forloop in django templates

    - by stackover
    Hi, This part is from views.py results=[(A,[stuObj1,stuObj2,stuObj3]),(B,[stuObj4,stuObj5,stuObj6]),(C,[stuObj7,stuObj8])] for tup in results: total = tot+len(tup[1]) render_to_response(url,{'results':res , 'total':str(tot),}) this is template code: <th class="name">Name</th> <th class="id">Student ID</th> <th class="grade">Grade</th> {% for tup in results %} {% for student in tup|last %} {% with forloop.parentloop.counter as parentid%} {% with forloop.counter as centerid%} <tbody class="results-body"> <tr> <td>{{student.fname|lower|capfirst}} {{student.lname|lower|capfirst}}</td> <td>{{student.id}}</td> <td>{{tup|first}}</td> </tr> {% endfor %} {% endfor %} Now the problems am having are 1. numbering the rows. Here my problem is am not sure if i can do things like total=total-1 in the templates to get the numbered rows like <td>{{total}}</td> 2.applying css to tr:ever or odd. Whats happening in this case is everytime the loop is running the odd/even ordering is lost. these seems related problems. Any ideas would be great :)

    Read the article

  • 500 Worker Threads, what kind of thread pool?

    - by Submerged
    I am wondering if this is the best way to do this. I have about 500 threads that run indefinitely, but Thread.sleep for a minute when done one cycle of processing. ExecutorService es = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(list.size()+1); for (int i = 0; i < list.size(); i++) { es.execute(coreAppVector.elementAt(i)); //coreAppVector is a vector of extends thread objects } The code that is executing is really simple and basically just this class aThread extends Thread { public void run(){ while(true){ Thread.sleep(ONE_MINUTE); //Lots of computation every minute } } } I do need a separate threads for each running task, so changing the architecture isn't an option. I tried making my threadPool size equal to Runtime.getRuntime().availableProcessors() which attempted to run all 500 threads, but only let 8 (4xhyperthreading) of them execute. The other threads wouldn't surrender and let other threads have their turn. I tried putting in a wait() and notify(), but still no luck. If anyone has a simple example or some tips, I would be grateful! Well, the design is arguably flawed. The threads implement Genetic-Programming or GP, a type of learning algorithm. Each thread analyzes advanced trends makes predictions. If the thread ever completes, the learning is lost. That said, I was hoping that sleep() would allow me to share some of the resources while one thread isn't "learning"

    Read the article

  • How to update a property using Type.GetProperties() method?

    - by Richard77
    Hello, I've a collection of a class' properties and would like to update each one's value by iterating over the collection through the index. 1) I create the collection of properties this way private PropertyInfo[] GetPropertiesOfMyClass() { Type myType = (typeof(myClass)); PropertyInfo[] PropertyInfoArray = myType.GetProperties( BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Instance); return PropertyInfoArray; } 2)Now, I'd like to set up the value of each one depending on the index this way public void UpdateProperty(MyClass instanceOfMyClass, string valueToUpdate, int index) { //TODO: //1. Get an individual property from the GetPropertyOfMyClass() using index //2. Update the value of an individual property of the instanceOfMyClass } I'd like to be able to call UpdateProperty from a Controller like this: UpdateProperty(instanceOfMyClass, valueToUpdate, indexOfTheProperty); Honestly, I do not know how to involve the instanceOfMyClass in the game as GetProperty only plays with myClass. Since I saw that I can use Name, PropertyType, ... to get information on the property. So, I've tried also GetPropertyOfMyClass()[index].SetValue(...), but I was lost in the arguments of its constructor, so I abandoned. What I want is to be able to update the value of a property in my collection just by using the index. Thanks for helping

    Read the article

  • Setting up a domain using WAMP and NameCheap's DNS service

    - by Mike Jones
    So, I've been working on this for far longer than I should be and I'm quite thoroughly perplexed and lost. I apologize if this turns out to be a facile question, but I'm entirely befuddled and very much in need of some guidance. Earlier today I registered a cheap .info domain on NameCheap just to play around with as I learn webdev. I have WAMP installed on my computer and I've been testing my projects through localhost. I thought it would be a good idea to have a domain at my disposal in order to understand how it works and better test my work. NameCheap has a complimentary DNS service (not that I entirely understand what DNS is, although I tried), so I'm using that. I direct both the "@" and "www" host names to my IP address, as shown in the below tutorial: https://www.namecheap.com/support/knowledgebase/article.aspx/319/78/how-can-i-setup-an-a-address-record-for-my-domain However, now when I go to the URL of the domain I bought, it confronts me with a login box that seems to be coming from my wifi network. How do I set this up so that it hosts the information in my WAMP server? Thanks in advance for any help, I really appreciate it. And, as a side-note, what should read (print or online) to better understand the structure of the internet? I've been studying HTML/CSS/Javascript, but I'm not sure where to look for pragmatic and comprehensive information on how the internet works and how to utilize it as a website administrator. Thanks so much.

    Read the article

  • Diagnosing IIS Shutdowns

    - by Tom Ritter
    Symptoms: I attach a debugger, I wait a little while, it automatically detaches I watch the event log during normal operation - after a single request comes in, it waits a little bit, the shuts down Disagnosing. I've followed the following steps for logging shutdowns in IIS: http://weblogs.asp.net/scottgu/archive/2005/12/14/433194.aspx http://blogs.msdn.com/tess/archive/2006/08/02/asp-net-case-study-lost-session-variables-and-appdomain-recycles.aspx I know these are working because... What I see in the Event Logs when I change the web.config: The description for Event ID 0 from source ASP.NET 2.0.50727.0 cannot be found. Either the component that raises this event is not installed on your local computer or the installation is corrupted. You can install or repair the component on the local computer. If the event originated on another computer, the display information had to be saved with the event. The following information was included with the event: _shutdownMessage=IIS configuration change HostingEnvironment initiated shutdown CONFIG change CONFIG change HostingEnvironment caused shutdown _shutdownStack= at System.Environment.GetStackTrace(Exception e, Boolean needFileInfo) at System.Environment.get_StackTrace() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.InitiateShutdownInternal() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.InitiateShutdown() at System.Web.Hosting.PipelineRuntime.StopProcessing() the message resource is present but the message is not found in the string/message table But it doesn't help because the mysetery error doesn't tell me anything. I see the same thing as from before I added this extra logging: The description for Event ID 0 from source ASP.NET 2.0.50727.0 cannot be found. Either the component that raises this event is not installed on your local computer or the installation is corrupted. You can install or repair the component on the local computer. If the event originated on another computer, the display information had to be saved with the event. The following information was included with the event: _shutdownMessage=HostingEnvironment initiated shutdown HostingEnvironment caused shutdown _shutdownStack= at System.Environment.GetStackTrace(Exception e, Boolean needFileInfo) at System.Environment.get_StackTrace() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.InitiateShutdownInternal() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.InitiateShutdown() at System.Web.Hosting.PipelineRuntime.StopProcessing() the message resource is present but the message is not found in the string/message table Anyone have any ideas for more debugging?

    Read the article

  • How to safely transfer reference to object across window?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I'm debugging a web application. Javasript in one window create one object and use it as argument to invoke global method in another window. Pseudo code is like below. var obj = new Foo(); anotherWin.bar(obj); In anotherWin, the argument is stored in global variable. var g_obj; function bar(obj) { g_obj = obj; ... } When other function tries to reference g_obj.Id, it throws exception "Cannot evaluate expression". This happens in IE8.0.7600.16385 on Windows 7. In Visual Studio debugger, when this exception happens, the g_obj shows as {...} It looks all its properties are lost. Perhaps the root reason is the object is created in one window but only referenced in another window. The object might be garbage-collected at any time. Is there any way to work around this?

    Read the article

  • Client Web Browser Behavior When Handling 301 Redirect

    - by Jon Swanson
    The RFC seems to suggest that the client should permanently cache the response: http://www.w3.org/Protocols/rfc2616/rfc2616-sec10.html 10.3.2 301 Moved Permanently The requested resource has been assigned a new permanent URI and any future references to this resource SHOULD use one of the returned URIs. Clients with link editing capabilities ought to automatically re-link references to the Request-URI to one or more of the new references returned by the server, where possible. This response is cacheable unless indicated otherwise. The new permanent URI SHOULD be given by the Location field in the response. Unless the request method was HEAD, the entity of the response SHOULD contain a short hypertext note with a hyperlink to the new URI(s). If the 301 status code is received in response to a request other than GET or HEAD, the user agent MUST NOT automatically redirect the request unless it can be confirmed by the user, since this might change the conditions under which the request was issued. Note: When automatically redirecting a POST request after receiving a 301 status code, some existing HTTP/1.0 user agents will erroneously change it into a GET request. I'm having a hard time finding concrete browser documentation for any major browser that states how they handle these. I've started digging through the source code of firefox, but quickly got lost. Is the following scenario true for which (if any) browsers, and is there definitive documentation for either Firefox or IE that states as much?: First Time Around: 1.1: User enters link to site A, or clicks on a link directed at Site A 1.2: Browser interprets link at Site A, first time, no cache. Sends GET to Site A. 1.2: Site A responds with 301 Redirect to Site B 1.3: Browser sends GET to Site B. Any Subsequent Times Around: 2.2: User clicks on a link directed at Site A 2.2: Browser sees that, due to a past 301 redirect, Site A should now be Site B. 2.3: Without initiating any request whatsoever at Site A, browser initiates GET at Site B.

    Read the article

  • How do I use IIS6 style metabase paths in IIS7 AppCmd tool?

    - by Mike Atlas
    I'm currently in the process of upgrading old II6 automation scripts that use the IISVdir tool to create/modify/update apps and virtual directories, and replacing them with AppCmd for IIS7. The IIS6, "IISVDir" commands reference paths in that are from the metabase, eg, "/W3SVC/1/ROOT/MyApp" - where 1 is ID of the "Default Web Site" site. The command doesn't actually require the display name of the site to make changes to it. This works well, since on a different language OS, the "Default Web Site" site name could be named, for example, "??? Web ???" or anything else for that matter. But this flexibility is lost if AppCmd can only reference "Default Web Site" via its name, and not a language-neutral identifier. So, how can I script AppCmd to refer to sites, vdirs and apps using language neutral identifiers to reference the "Default App Site"? Perhaps I need to start creating my own site instead, from the start, and name it something else specific, and stop using "Default Web Site" as the root? (Disclosure: I only have a IIS7-English machine that I am working on currently, but I have both IIS6-English and IIS6-Japanese machines for testing my old scripts - so perhaps it really is just "Default Web Site" still on Win2k8-Japanese?)

    Read the article

  • x86_64 assembler: only one call per subroutine?

    - by zneak
    Hello everyone, I decided yesterday to start doing assembler. Most of it is okay (well, as okay as assembler can be), but I'm getting some problems with gas. It seems that I can call functions only once. After that, any subsequent call opcode with the same function name will fail. I must be doing something terribly wrong, though I can't see what. Take this small C function for instance: void path_free(path_t path) { if (path == NULL) return; free(((point_list_t*)path)->points); free(path); } I "translated" it to assembler like that: .globl _path_free _path_free: push rbp mov rbp, rsp cmp rdi, 0 jz byebye push rdi mov rdi, qword ptr [rdi] call _free pop rdi sub rsp, 8 call _free byebye: leave ret This triggers the following error for the second call _free: suffix or operands invalid for ``call''. And if I change it to something else, like free2, everything works (until link time, that is). Assembler code gcc -S gave me looks very similar to what I've done (except it's in AT&T syntax), so I'm kind of lost. I'm doing this on Mac OS X under the x86_64 architecture.

    Read the article

  • Ajax UpdatePanels SetFocus issue

    - by George
    I set the AutoPostback property of a textbox to True so I can process the TextChanged event on the server and, based on what they typed in the textbox, appropriately display a message in an update panel. The problem is, when the partial screen refresh is performed, no control on the screen has focus. 99% of the time, when the text in the textbox is changed, it is because the user has tabbed forward, and so, to limit the disruption in the lost of focus, I perform a "Focus" call on teh next control in the tab sequence. For the most part, this works OK, but of course, is disputive if the user is tabbing in the reverse order or has used the mouse to set the focus to another control. In these situations, the focus would be set to the next control even though the user was trying to set focus elsewhere. OK, that sucks. Now what I consider the bigger problem with calling the focus method on the server: In IE, it works OK, but in Mozilla Firefox and Chrome, setting the focus causes a repositioning of the scroll bar, even though none is necessary because the control is already in view. I realize that I could switch to doing AJAX web service calls, but these darn Updae Panels are so convenient if used in moderation. is there anyway to use updatepanels and not have these focus/scroll issues?

    Read the article

  • svnsync looses revision properties although hook installed

    - by roesslerj
    Hello all! I have a pretty weird problem. We have setup an SVN-Mirror via cronjob (because it needs to go from inside to outside of a firewall, so no post-commit-hook possible) and svnsync. We installed a pre-revprop-hook just as told. Everything seems to work fine, except that it doesn't. E.g. when manually executing the script. # svnsync --non-interactive sync file://<path-to-mirror> --source-username <usr> --source-password <pwd> Committed revision 19817. Copied properties for revision 19817. No error, no complaints. But if checking for the revision properties it says: # svnlook info <path-to-mirror> 0 # svn info -r HEAD file://<path-to-mirror> 2>&1 Path: <root-of-mirror> URL: file://<path-to-mirror> Repository Root: file://<path-to-mirror> Repository UUID: <uid> Revision: 19817 Node Kind: directory Last Changed Rev: 19817 So somehow the author and timestamp information gets lost. But we need that information for our internal processes. Since no error or warning is produced I have absolutely no idea even where to start to look. Everything is local (except for the remote master), so there are no server-logs to look at. Any ideas how I could approach that problem, or even better -- how to solve it? Any ideas appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to interrupt a thread performing a blocking socket connect?

    - by Jason R
    I have some code that spawns a pthread that attempts to maintain a socket connection to a remote host. If the connection is ever lost, it attempts to reconnect using a blocking connect() call on its socket. Since the code runs in a separate thread, I don't really care about the fact that it uses the synchronous socket API. That is, until it comes time for my application to exit. I would like to perform some semblance of an orderly shutdown, so I use thread synchronization primitives to wake up the thread and signal for it to exit, then perform a pthread_join() on the thread to wait for it to complete. This works great, unless the thread is in the middle of a connect() call when I command the shutdown. In that case, I have to wait for the connect to time out, which could be a long time. This makes the application appear to take a long time to shut down. What I would like to do is to interrupt the call to connect() in some way. After the call returns, the thread will notice my exit signal and shut down cleanly. Since connect() is a system call, I thought that I might be able to intentionally interrupt it using a signal (thus making the call return EINTR), but I'm not sure if this is a robust method in a POSIX threads environment. Does anyone have any recommendations on how to do this, either using signals or via some other method? As a note, the connect() call is down in some library code that I cannot modify, so changing to a non-blocking socket is not an option.

    Read the article

  • unique items from an observableArray of object properties

    - by Joe
    I'm trying to extract unique properties from a knockout.js observableArray of objects, to populate a drop menu. Being new to knockout, I'm really struggling with this! I want to iterate over a contacts list, and populate a drop menu with a unique value from each person object within the observableArray. So in my code example below, I wish to populate my drop menu with a list of people 'type' - family, friend etc. Looking on Google, I found a similar function, but it does not return any values, even if I console.log the results? //dummy data more rows in actual code... var people = [ { name: "Contact 1", address: "1, a street, a town, a city, AB12 3CD", tel: "0123456789", email: "[email protected]", type: "family" }, { name: "Contact 2", address: "1, a street, a town, a city, AB12 3CD", tel: "0123456789", email: "[email protected]", type: "friend" } ]; function ContactsViewModel(people) { var self = this; self.contacts = ko.observableArray(people); self.uniqueSelect = ko.dependentObservable(function() { return( ko.utils.arrayGetDistinctValues(self.contacts().type).sort()); }, self); }; ko.applyBindings(new ContactsViewModel()); And HTML template <p>Show me: <select data-bind="options: ContactsViewModel.uniqueSelect"></select></p> Any help appreciated, as a noob I'm lost! Thanks

    Read the article

  • iPhone SDK: Switching to one view then back to previous view errors

    - by Nic Hubbard
    I have a UITabBarConroller that I use to switch between 3 different views. This all works perfectly. On one of my tabs, I added a button at the to called "Add", I have added an outlet to this, as well as an IBAction method which looks like the following: // Method used to load up view where we can add a new ride - (IBAction)showAddNewRideView { MyRidesViewController *controller = [[MyRidesViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"AddNewRide" bundle:nil]; controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleCoverVertical; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; }//end showAddNewRideView This currently works fine, and loads up my AddNewRide nib file. But, once that view loads, I have a cancel button, which, when clicked, I want to return to the previous view. So, I figured I would just do the reverse of the above, using the following method which would load back my previous nib: - (IBAction)cancelAddingNewRide { MyRidesViewController *controller = [[MyRidesViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainWindow" bundle:nil]; controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleCoverVertical; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; }//end cancelAddingNewRide But, which trying to load the MainWindow nib, the program crashes, and I get the following error: 2010-05-05 20:24:37.211 Ride[6032:207] *** -[MyRidesViewController cancelAddingNewRide]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x501e450 2010-05-05 20:24:37.213 Ride[6032:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[MyRidesViewController cancelAddingNewRide]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x501e450' So, I am a little lost as to why it would work one way, but not the other.

    Read the article

  • Persistence of texture parameters

    - by fen
    I use glBindTexture() to bind a previously created texture. After the glBindTexture() call I use glTexParameteri() to set MIN and MAG filter. No problem so far. Are those parameters I set using glTexParameteri() bound to the texture itself or are they lost if I bind another texture. Do i have to set them again? glGenTexture(1, &tex1); glGenTexture(1, &tex2); /* bind tex1 and set params */ glBindtexture(GL_TEXTURE_RECTANGLE_ARB, tex1); glTexImage2D(GL_TEXTURE_RECTANGLE_ARB, ...); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_RECTANGLE_ARB, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_RECTANGLE_ARB, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); /* do something */ /* bind tex2 and set params */ glBindtexture(GL_TEXTURE_RECTANGLE_ARB, tex2); glTexImage2D(GL_TEXTURE_RECTANGLE_ARB, ...); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_RECTANGLE_ARB, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_RECTANGLE_ARB, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); /* do something */ /* bind tex1 again */ glBindtexture(GL_TEXTURE_RECTANGLE_ARB, tex1); /* do i have to set the parameters from above again or are they stored with tex1? */

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145  | Next Page >