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  • Setting objct literal property value via asynchronous callback.

    - by typeof
    I'm creating a self-contained javascript utility object that detects advanced browser features. Ideally, my object would look something like this: Support = { borderRadius : false, // values returned by functions gradient : false, // i am defining dataURI : true }; My current problem deals with some code I'm adapting from Weston Ruter's site which detects dataURI support. It attempts to use javascript to create an image with a dataURI source, and uses onload/onerror callbacks to check the width/height. Since onload is asynchronous, I lose my scope and returning true/false does not assign true/false to my object. Here is my attempt: Support = { ... dataURI : function(prop) { prop = prop; // keeps in closure for callback var data = new Image(); data.onload = data.onerror = function(){ if(this.width != 1 || this.height != 1) { that = false; } that = true; } data.src = "data:image/gif;base64,R0lGODlhAQABAIAAAAAAAP///ywAAAAAAQABAAACAUwAOw=="; return -1; }(this) }; I'm executing the anonymous function immediately, passing this (which I hoped was a reference to Support.dataURI), but unfortunately references the window object -- so the value is always -1. I can get it to work by using an externally defined function to assign the value after the Support object is created... but I don't think it's very clean that way. Is there a way for it to be self-contained? Can the object literal's function reference the property it's assigned to?

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  • Using capistrano to deploy from different git branches

    - by Toms Mikoss
    I am using capistrano to deploy a RoR application. The codebase is in a git repository, and branching is widely used in development. Capistrano uses deploy.rb file for it's settings, one of them being the branch to deploy from. My problem is this: let's say I create a new branch A from master. The deploy file will reference master branch. I edit that, so A can be deployed to test environment. I finish working on the feature, and merge branch A into master. Since the deploy.rb file from A is fresher, it gets merged in and now the deploy.rb in master branch references A. Time to edit again. That's a lot of seemingly unnecessary manual editing - the parameter should always match current branch name. On top of that, it is easy to forget to edit the settings each and every time. What would be the best way to automate this process? Edit: Turns out someone already had done exactly what I needed.

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  • Android shared library which is not JNI based

    - by Mondain
    I am developing a library for Android applications which does not use native code (JNI). I have tried suppling the library as an external jar in my Android projects but this method does not include the library contents in the apk and thus throws class not found errors when run in the emulator or device. I have also tried creating the library as an Android project in itself and this does work, but only for public static properties (not methods). With the library and application both being in separate apk's I can see that the VM notices references to the library and can read some properties, but when an attempt to instantiate a class in the library is executed I get class not found even though I can read the public static properties from it (very frustrating!!). I realize that Davlik byte code is not the same as Java byte code but I am having trouble even finding good information about how to solve what would seem to be a very simple issue in Android. I am looking into the old PlatformLibrary stuff right now but I am not convinced this will work either since the sample has been removed from the Android site :( So help me out if you can, if I find the answer before this happens I will share it. viva la Android!

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  • Hibernate does not allow an embedded object with an int field to be null?

    - by Jason Novak
    Hibernate does not allow me to persist an object that contains an null embedded object with an integer field. For example, if I have a class called Thing that looks like this @Entity public class Thing { @Id public String id; public Part part; } where Part is an embeddable class that looks like this @Embeddable public class Part { public String a; public int b; } then trying to persist a Thing object with a null Part causes Hibernate to throw an Exception. In particular, this code Thing th = new Thing(); th.id = "thing.1"; th.part = null; session.saveOrUpdate(th); causes Hibernate to throw this Exception org.hibernate.PropertyValueException: not-null property references a null or transient value: com.ace.moab.api.jobs.Thing.part My guess is that this is happening because Part is an embedded class and so Part.a and Part.b are simply columns in the Thing database table. Since the Thing.part is null Hibernate wants to set the Part.a and Part.b column values to null for the row for thing.1. However, Part.b is an integer and Hibernate will not allow integer columns in the database to be null. This is what causes the Exception, right? So I am looking for workarounds for this problem. I noticed making Part.b an Integer instead of an int seems to work, but for reasons I won't bore you with this is not a good option for us. Thanks!

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  • Checkbox alignment in Internet Explorer, Firefox and Chrome

    - by Andrej
    Checkbox alignment with its label (i.e., vertical centering) cross different web browsers makes me crazy. Pasted below is standard html code: <label for="ch"><input id="ch" type="checkbox">My Checkbox</label> I tested different CSS tricks (e.g., link 1, link 2); most solutions works fine in FF, but are completely off in Chrome or IE8. I'm looking for any references or pointers to solve this issue. Thanks in advance. EDIT According to Elq suggestion I modified the HTML <div class="row"> <input type="checkbox" id="ch1" /> <label for="ch1">Test</label> </div> and CSS .row{ display: table-row; } label{ display: table-cell; vertical-align: middle; } Works now in Firefox, Internet Explorer 8, and Chrome on Windows. Fails on Firefox and Chrome on Linux. Also works in Firefox and Safari on Mac, but fails on Chrome.

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  • SQL Server problems reading columns with a foreign key

    - by illdev
    I have a weird situation, where simple queries seem to never finish for instance SELECT top 100 ArticleID FROM Article WHERE ProductGroupID=379114 returns immediately SELECT top 1000 ArticleID FROM Article WHERE ProductGroupID=379114 never returns SELECT ArticleID FROM Article WHERE ProductGroupID=379114 never returns SELECT top 1000 ArticleID FROM Article returns immediately By 'returning' I mean 'in query analyzer the green check mark appears and it says "Query executed successfully"'. I sometimes get the rows painted to the grid in qa, but still the query goes on waiting for my client to time out - 'sometimes': SELECT ProductGroupID AS Product23_1_, ArticleID AS ArticleID1_, ArticleID AS ArticleID18_0_, Inventory_Name AS Inventory3_18_0_, Inventory_UnitOfMeasure AS Inventory4_18_0_, BusinessKey AS Business5_18_0_, Name AS Name18_0_, ServesPeople AS ServesPe7_18_0_, InStock AS InStock18_0_, Description AS Descript9_18_0_, Description2 AS Descrip10_18_0_, TechnicalData AS Technic11_18_0_, IsDiscontinued AS IsDisco12_18_0_, Release AS Release18_0_, Classifications AS Classif14_18_0_, DistributorName AS Distrib15_18_0_, DistributorProductCode AS Distrib16_18_0_, Options AS Options18_0_, IsPromoted AS IsPromoted18_0_, IsBulkyFreight AS IsBulky19_18_0_, IsBackOrderOnly AS IsBackO20_18_0_, Price AS Price18_0_, Weight AS Weight18_0_, ProductGroupID AS Product23_18_0_, ConversationID AS Convers24_18_0_, DistributorID AS Distrib25_18_0_, type AS Type18_0_ FROM Article AS articles0_ WHERE (IsDiscontinued = '0') AND (ProductGroupID = 379121) shows this behavior. I have no idea what is going on. Probably select is broken ;) I got a foreign key on ProductGroups ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Article] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_ProductGroup_Articles] FOREIGN KEY([ProductGroupID]) REFERENCES [dbo].[ProductGroup] ([ProductGroupID]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Article] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_ProductGroup_Articles] there are some 6000 rows and IsDiscontinued is a bit, not null, but leaving this condition out does not change the outcome. Anyone can tell me how to handle such a situation? More info, anyone? Additional Info: this does not seem to be restricted to this Foreign Key, but all/some referencing this entity.

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  • JavaScript window object element properties

    - by Timothy
    A coworker showed me the following code and asked me why it worked. <span id="myspan">Do you like my hat?</span> <script type="text/javascript"> var spanElement = document.getElementById("myspan"); alert("Here I am! " + spanElement.innerHTML + "\n" + myspan.innerHTML); </script> I explained that a property is attached to the window object with the name of the element's id when the browser parses the document which then contains a reference to the appropriate dom node. It's sort of as if window.myspan = document.getElementById("myspan") is called behind the scenes as the page is being rendered. The ensuing discussion we had raised a few of questions: The window object and most of the DOM are not part of the official JavaScript/ECMA standards, but is the above behavior documented in any other official literature, perhaps browser-related? The above works in a browser (at least the main contenders) because there is a window object, but fails in something like rhino. Is writing code that relys on this considered bad practice because it makes too many assumptions about the execution environment? Are there any browsers in which the above would fail, or is this considered standard behavior across the board? Does anyone here know the answers to those questions and would be willing to enlighten me? I tried a quick internet search, but I admit I'm not sure how to even properly phrase the query. Pointers to references and documentation are welcome.

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  • jQuery when div is clicked update input field issue

    - by stogdilla
    Hello, I'm rather new to jquery so this may be the issue. I have a script that outputs several divs all with different text data in them. I would like it when I click one of them that an input field's value is updated to that text currently I have: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("a.results]").click(function() { data= this.text(); $("#updateme").val(data); }); }); </script> <p> <label>Field <input type="text" name="updateme" id="updateme"> </label> </p> <a href="#" class="results">Florida</a> <a href="#" class="results">Florida 2</a> <a href="#" class="results">Florida 3</a> How can I make it so that whatever link is clicked that is the data that gets updated into the input's value? I can get it to take one or I can script out different cases of each changing the class name but I think there has to be a way where it references whatever link is being clicked instead of what it's currently doing. Thanks in advance!

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  • How can I find out if the MainActivity is being paused from my Java class?

    - by quinestor
    I am using motion sensor detection in my application. My design is this: a class gets the sensor services references from the main activity and then it implements SensorEventListener. That is, the MainActivity does not listen for sensor event changes: public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // ... code mSensorManager = (SensorManager) getSystemService(Context.SENSOR_SERVICE); mAccelerometer = mSensorManager.getDefaultSensor(Sensor.TYPE_ACCELEROMETER); // The following is my java class, it does not extends any android fragment/activty mShakeUtil = new ShakeUtil(mSensorManager,mAccelerometer,this); // ..more code.. } I can't redesign ShakeUtil so it is a fragment nor activity, unfortunately. Now to illustrate the problem consider: MainActivity is on its way to be destroyed/paused. I.e screen rotation ShakeUtil's onSensorChanged(SensorEvent event) gets called in the process.. One of the things that happen inside onSensorChanged is a dialog interaction, which gives the error: java.lang.IllegalStateException: Can not perform this action after onSaveInstanceState When the previous happens between MainActivity's onSaveInstanceState and onPause. I know this can be prevented if I successfully detect that MainActivity is being pause in ShakeUtil. How can I detect that MainActivity is being paused or onSaveInstanceState was called from ShakeUtil? Alternatively, how can I avoid this issue without making Shakeutil extend activity? So far I have tried with flag variables but that isn't good enough, I guess these are not atomic operations. I tried using Activity's isChangingConfigurations(), but I get an undocummented "NoSuchMethodFound" error.. I am unregistering the sensors by calling ShakeUtil when onPause in main ACtivity

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  • WebView and HTML5 <video>

    - by brian moore
    I'm piecing together a cheapo app that amongst other things "frames" some of our websites... Pretty simple with the WebViewClient... until I hit the video. The video is done as HTML5 elements, and these work fine and dandy on Chrome, iPhones, and now that we fixed the encoding issues it works great on Android... in the native browser. Now the rub: WebView doesn't like it. At all. I can click on the poster image, and nothing happens. Googling, I found http://www.codelark.com/2010/05/12/android-viewing-video-from-embedded-webview/ which is close, but seems to be based on a 'link' (as in a href...) instead of a video element. (onDownloadListener does not appear to get invoked on video elements...) I also see references to overriding onShowCustomView, but that seems to not get called on video elements... nor does shouldOverrideUrlLoading.. I would rather not get into "pull xml from the server, reformat it in the app".. by keeping the story layout on the server, I can control the content a bit better without forcing people to keep updating an app. So if I can convince WebView to handle tags like the native browser, that would be best. I'm clearly missing something obvious.. but I have no clue what.

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  • socket timeout and remove O_NONBLOCK option

    - by juxstapose
    Hello, I implemented a socket timeout and retry but in order to do it I had to set the socket as a non-blocking socket. However, I need the socket to block. This was my attempt at a solution to these two problems. This is not working. Subsequent send calls block but never send any data. When I connect without the select and the timeout, subsequent send calls work normally. References: C: socket connection timeout How to reset a socket back to blocking mode (after I set it to nonblocking mode)? Code: fd_set fdset; struct timeval tv; fcntl(dsock, F_SETFL, O_NONBLOCK); tv.tv_sec = theDeviceTimeout; tv.tv_usec = 0; int retries=0; logi(theLogOutput, LOG_INFO, "connecting to device socket num retrys: %i", theDeviceRetry); for(retries=0;retries<theDeviceRetry;retries++) { connect(dsock, (struct sockaddr *)&daddr, sizeof daddr); FD_ZERO(&fdset); FD_SET(dsock, &fdset); if (select(dsock + 1, NULL, &fdset, NULL, &tv) == 1) { int so_error; socklen_t slen = sizeof so_error; getsockopt(dsock, SOL_SOCKET, SO_ERROR, &so_error, &slen); if (so_error == 0) { logi(theLogOutput, LOG_INFO, "connected to socket on port %i on %s", theDevicePort, theDeviceIP); break; } else { logi(theLogOutput, LOG_WARN, "connect to %i failed on ip %s because %s retries %i", theDevicePort, theDeviceIP, strerror(errno), retries); logi(theLogOutput, LOG_WARN, "failed to connect to device %s", strerror(errno)); logi(theLogOutput, LOG_WARN, "error: %i %s", so_error, strerror(so_error)); continue; } } } int opts; opts = fcntl(dsock,F_GETFL); logi(theLogOutput, LOG_DEBUG, "clearing nonblock option %i retries %i", opts, retries); opts ^= O_NONBLOCK; fcntl(dsock, F_SETFL, opts);

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  • [CODE GENERATION] How to generate DELETE statements in PL/SQL, based on the tables FK relations?

    - by The chicken in the kitchen
    Is it possible via script/tool to generate authomatically many delete statements based on the tables fk relations, using Oracle PL/SQL? In example: I have the table: CHICKEN (CHICKEN_CODE NUMBER) and there are 30 tables with fk references to its CHICKEN_CODE that I need to delete; there are also other 150 tables foreign-key-linked to that 30 tables that I need to delete first. Is there some tool/script PL/SQL that I can run in order to generate all the necessary delete statements based on the FK relations for me? (by the way, I know about cascade delete on the relations, but please pay attention: I CAN'T USE IT IN MY PRODUCTION DATABASE, because it's dangerous!) I'm using Oracle DataBase 10G R2. This is the result I've written, but it is not recursive: This is a view I have previously written, but of course it is not recursive! CREATE OR REPLACE FORCE VIEW RUN ( OWNER_1, CONSTRAINT_NAME_1, TABLE_NAME_1, TABLE_NAME, VINCOLO ) AS SELECT OWNER_1, CONSTRAINT_NAME_1, TABLE_NAME_1, TABLE_NAME, '(' || LTRIM ( EXTRACT (XMLAGG (XMLELEMENT ("x", ',' || COLUMN_NAME)), '/x/text()'), ',') || ')' VINCOLO FROM ( SELECT CON1.OWNER OWNER_1, CON1.TABLE_NAME TABLE_NAME_1, CON1.CONSTRAINT_NAME CONSTRAINT_NAME_1, CON1.DELETE_RULE, CON1.STATUS, CON.TABLE_NAME, CON.CONSTRAINT_NAME, COL.POSITION, COL.COLUMN_NAME FROM DBA_CONSTRAINTS CON, DBA_CONS_COLUMNS COL, DBA_CONSTRAINTS CON1 WHERE CON.OWNER = 'TABLE_OWNER' AND CON.TABLE_NAME = 'TABLE_OWNED' AND ( (CON.CONSTRAINT_TYPE = 'P') OR (CON.CONSTRAINT_TYPE = 'U')) AND COL.TABLE_NAME = CON1.TABLE_NAME AND COL.CONSTRAINT_NAME = CON1.CONSTRAINT_NAME --AND CON1.OWNER = CON.OWNER AND CON1.R_CONSTRAINT_NAME = CON.CONSTRAINT_NAME AND CON1.CONSTRAINT_TYPE = 'R' GROUP BY CON1.OWNER, CON1.TABLE_NAME, CON1.CONSTRAINT_NAME, CON1.DELETE_RULE, CON1.STATUS, CON.TABLE_NAME, CON.CONSTRAINT_NAME, COL.POSITION, COL.COLUMN_NAME) GROUP BY OWNER_1, CONSTRAINT_NAME_1, TABLE_NAME_1, TABLE_NAME; ... and it contains the error of using DBA_CONSTRAINTS instead of ALL_CONSTRAINTS...

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  • Do all C compilers allow functions to return structures?

    - by Jordan S
    I am working on a program in C and using the SDCC compiler for a 8051 architecture device. I am trying to write a function called GetName that will read 8 characters from Flash Memory and return the character array in some form. I know that it is not possible to return an array in C so I am trying to do it using a struct like this: //********************FLASH.h file******************************* MyStruct GetName(int i); //Function prototype #define NAME_SIZE 8 typedef struct { char Name[NAME_SIZE]; } MyStruct; extern MyStruct GetName(int i); // *****************FLASH.c file*********************************** #include "FLASH.h" MyStruct GetName( int i) { MyStruct newNameStruct; //... // Fill the array by reading data from Flash //... return newNameStruct; } I don't have any references to this function yet but for some reason, I get a compiler error that says "Function cannot return aggregate." Does this mean that my compiler does not support functions that return structs? Or am I just doing something wrong?

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  • Magento 1.4 - how to show html on product view?

    - by Sam
    Hi All The new version of Magento, 1.4, has it's own WYSIWYG editor, which can be enabled for any product attribute. However, if it is enabled, say for the additional info attribute, if you view the product page the html will be escaped, so you see all the tags (< p , < ul etc). If you change the following in template/catalog/product/view.phtml, you can get the "Quick Overview" and "Additional Information" sections to correctly show the html: <?php echo nl2br($this->htmlEscape($_product->getShortDescription())) ?> to <?php echo $_product->getShortDescription() ?> However, the additional info section is added via template/catalog/product/view/attributes.phtml using the following line, and I can't figure out how to get it to show the html correctly: <?php echo $_helper->productAttribute($_product, $_data['value'], $_data['code']) ?> This references Mage_Catalog_Block_Product_View_Attributes, and if I go to that file and change the following, it works: $value = $this->htmlEscape($value); to $value = value; But is there anyway to do this without overiding this core file with a local version?

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  • JavaScript Module Pattern - What about using "return this"?

    - by Rob
    After doing some reading about the Module Pattern, I've seen a few ways of returning the properties which you want to be public. One of the most common ways is to declare your public properties and methods right inside of the "return" statement, apart from your private properties and methods. A similar way (the "Revealing" pattern) is to provide simply references to the properties and methods which you want to be public. Lastly, a third technique I saw was to create a new object inside your module function, to which you assign your new properties before returning said object. This was an interesting idea, but requires the creation of a new object. So I was thinking, why not just use "this.propertyName" to assign your public properties and methods, and finally use "return this" at the end? This way seems much simpler to me, as you can create private properties and methods with the usual "var" or "function" syntax, or use the "this.propertyName" syntax to declare your public methods. Here's the method I'm suggesting: (function() { var privateMethod = function () { alert('This is a private method.'); } this.publicMethod = function () { alert('This is a public method.'); } return this; })(); Are there any pros/cons to using the method above? What about the others?

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  • How do I serialise a graph in Java without getting StackOverflowException?

    - by Tim Cooper
    I have a graph structure in java, ("graph" as in "edges and nodes") and I'm attempting to serialise it. However, I get "StackOverflowException", despite significantly increasing the JVM stack size. I did some googling, and apparently this is a well known limitation of java serialisation: that it doesn't work for deeply nested object graphs such as long linked lists - it uses a stack record for each link in the chain, and it doesn't do anything clever such as a breadth-first traversal, and therefore you very quickly get a stack overflow. The recommended solution is to customise the serialisation code by overriding readObject() and writeObject(), however this seems a little complex to me. (It may or may not be relevant, but I'm storing a bunch of fields on each edge in the graph so I have a class JuNode which contains a member ArrayList<JuEdge> links;, i.e. there are 2 classes involved, rather than plain object references from one node to another. It shouldn't matter for the purposes of the question). My question is threefold: (a) why don't the implementors of Java rectify this limitation or are they already working on it? (I can't believe I'm the first person to ever want to serialise a graph in java) (b) is there a better way? Is there some drop-in alternative to the default serialisation classes that does it in a cleverer way? (c) if my best option is to get my hands dirty with low-level code, does someone have an example of graph serialisation java source-code that can use to learn how to do it?

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  • How are two-dimensional arrays formatted in memory?

    - by Chris Cooper
    In C, I know I can dynamically allocate a two-dimensional array on the heap using the following code: int** someNumbers = malloc(arrayRows*sizeof(int*)); for (i = 0; i < arrayRows; i++) { someNumbers[i] = malloc(arrayColumns*sizeof(int)); } Clearly, this actually creates a one-dimensional array of pointers to a bunch of separate one-dimensional arrays of integers, and "The System" can figure you what I mean when I ask for: someNumbers[4][2]; But when I statically declare a 2D array, as in the following line...: int someNumbers[ARRAY_ROWS][ARRAY_COLUMNS]; ...does a similar structure get created on the stack, or is it of another form completely? (i.e. is it a 1D array of pointers? If not, what is it, and how do references to it get figured out?) Also, when I said, "The System," what is actually responsible for figuring that out? The kernel? Or does the C compiler sort it out while compiling?

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  • Generating a canonical path

    - by Joel
    Does any one know of any Java libraries I could use to generate canonical paths (basically remove back-references). I need something that will do the following: Raw Path - Canonical Path /../foo/ -> /foo /foo/ -> /foo /../../../ -> / /./foo/./ -> /foo //foo//bar -> /foo/bar //foo/../bar -> /bar etc... At the moment I lazily rely on using: new File("/", path).getCanonicalPath(); But this resolves the path against the actual file system, and is synchronised. java.lang.Thread.State: BLOCKED (on object monitor) at java.io.ExpiringCache.get(ExpiringCache.java:55) - waiting to lock <0x93a0d180> (a java.io.ExpiringCache) at java.io.UnixFileSystem.canonicalize(UnixFileSystem.java:137) at java.io.File.getCanonicalPath(File.java:559) The paths that I am canonicalising do not exist on my file system, so just the logic of the method will do me fine, thus not requiring any synchronisation. I'm hoping for a well tested library rather than having to write my own.

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  • bool as object vs string as object testing equality

    - by Ray Pendergraph
    I am relatively new to C# and I noticed something interesting today that I guess I have never noticed or perhaps I am missing something. Here is an NUnit test to give an example: object boolean1 = false; object booloan2 = false; Assert.That(boolean1 == booloan2); This unit test fails, but this one passes: object string1 = "string"; object string2 = "string"; Assert.That(string1 == string2); I'm not that surprised in and of itself that the first one fails seeing as boolean1 and boolean2 are different references. But it is troubling to me that the first one fails and the second one passes. I read (on MSDN somewhere) that some magic was done to the String class to facilitate this. I think my question really is why wasn't this behavior replicated in bool? As a note... if the boolean1 and 2 are declared as "bool" then there is no problem. Does anyone know the reason for these differences or why it was implemented that way? Can anyone think of a situation where you would want to reference a bool object for anything except its value?

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  • Change Address/Port of WSDL EndPointAddress at runtime?

    - by Pretzel
    So I currently have 3 WSDLs added as Service References in my solution. They look like this in my app.config file (I removed the "bindings" field, because it's uninteresting): <system.serviceModel> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/query-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="QueryBinding" contract="QueryService.Query" name="QueryPort" /> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/platetype-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="PlateTypeBinding" contract="PlateTypeService.PlateType" name="PlateTypePort" /> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/dataimport-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="DataImportBinding" contract="DataImportService.DataImport" name="DataImportPort" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> When I utilize a WSDL, it looks something like this: using (DataService.DataClient dClient = new DataService.DataClient()) { DataService.importTask impt = new DataService.importTask(); impt.String_1 = "someData"; DataService.importResponse imptr = dClient.importTask(impt); } In the "using" statement, when instantiating the DataClient object, I have 5 constructors available to me. In this scenario, I use the default constructor: new DataService.DataClient() which uses the built-in Endpoint Address string, which is fine and good. But I want the user of the application to have the option to change this value. 1) What's the best/easiest way of programatically obtaining this string? 2) Then, once I've allowed the user to edit and test the value, where should I store it? I'd prefer having it be stored in a place (like app.config or equivalent) so that there is no need for checking whether the value exists or not and whether I should be using an alternate constructor. (Looking to keep my code tight, ya know?) Any ideas? Suggestions?

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  • Do ORMs normally allow circular relations? If so, how would they handle it?

    - by SeanJA
    I was hacking around trying to make a basic orm that has support for the one => one and one => many relationships. I think I succeeded somewhat, but I am curious about how to handle circular relationships. Say you had something like this: user::hasOne('car'); car::hasMany('wheels'); car::property('type'); wheel::hasOne('car'); You could then do this (theoretically): $u = new user(); echo $u->car->wheels[0]->car->wheels[1]->car->wheels[2]->car->wheels[3]->type; #=> "monster truck" Now, I am not sure why you would want to do this. It seems like it wastes a whole pile of memory and time just to get to something that could have been done in a much shorter way. In my small ORM, I now have 4 copies of the wheel class, and 4 copies of the car class in memory, which causes a problem if I update one of them and save it back to the database, the rest get out of date, and could overwrite the changes that were already made. How do other ORMs handle circular references? Do they even allow it? Do they go back up the tree and create a pointer to one of the parents? DO they let the coder shoot themselves in the foot if they are silly enough to go around in circles?

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  • Git and cloning

    - by jriff
    Hi all! I have done an app for a client called 'A' (not really). I have found out that it is very cool and that I want to sell it to other clients also. The directory 'A' is a Git repository. I think I have a problem with cloning it. As far as I can see I need to make a copy of the dir 'A' and call it 'Generic_A'. Then delete the dir 'A' and do a "git clone Generic_A A" Then I could start changing the 'Generic_A'-repo with a generic design and all client references removed. But that is kind of the other way around. I should have started doing the generic design and then cloned the repo to change to the client specific design. Can I: make a new branch do all the changes to make the design generic create a patch that reflects the changes between the two remove the client specific branch rename the directory to 'Generic_A' clone the repo to a new dir 'A' apply the patch to get the client specific stuff back And if yes - how do I make the patch and apply it? Regards, Jacob

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  • ASP.NET Web Application: use 1 or multiple virtual directories

    - by tster
    I am working on a (largish) internal web application which has multiple modules (security, execution, features, reports, etc.). All the pages in the app share navigation, CSS, JS, controls, etc. I want to make a single "Web Application" project, which includes all the pages for the app, then references various projects which will have the database and business logic in them. However, some of the people on the project want to have separate projects for the pages of each module. To make this more clear, this is what I'm advocating to be the projects. /WebInterface* /SecurityLib /ExecutionLib etc... And here is what they are advocating: /SecurityInterface* /SecutiryLib /ExecutionInterface* /ExecutionLib etc... *project will be published to a virtual directory of IIS Basically What I'm looking for is the advantages of both approaches. Here is what I can think of so far: Single Virtual Directory Pros Modules can share a single MasterPage Modules can share UserControls (this will be common) Links to other modules are within the same Virtual directory, and thus don't need to be fully qualified. Less chance of having incompatible module versions together. Multiple Virtual Directories Pros Can publish a new version of a single module without disrupting other modules Module is more compartmentalized. Less likely that changes will break other modules. I don't buy those arguments though. First, using load balanced servers (which we will have) we should be able to publish new versions of the project with zero downtime assuming there are no breaking database changes. Second, If something "breaks" another module, then there is either an improper dependency or the break will show up eventually in the other module, when the developers copy over the latest version of the UserControl, MasterPage or dll. As a point of reference, there are about 10 developers on the project for about 50% of their time. The initial development will be about 9 months.

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  • Deploy and Run application at beginning of WIX Install

    - by Doctor Fro
    I'm trying to deploy and run an application (C# console app) at the beginning of the MSI install with WIX but having some difficulty. The application needs to run before any of the webserver actions happen but after the files have been copied from the MSI to the target location. I can get the app to run but only if I have actually copied the application in the directory before I run the MSI. If I don't do that, I get an error relating to the app not existing in the MSI logs. So basically I think it has to do with the launch sequence I am using I need to ensure that the app exists before it is run. Wondering if one of you good folks could help me out. The requirement is that the application must run as the first thing the WIX MSI does, (well actually before any of the webservice parts happen). The relevant bits of the Wix are as follows. <CustomAction Id='LaunchUpdaterRunFirst' FileKey='serverUpdaterRunFirstExe' ExeCommand='' Return='ignore' /> ... <InstallExecuteSequence> <Custom Action='CA_BlockOlderVersionInstall' After='FindRelatedProducts'>NEWERVERSIONDETECTED</Custom> <RemoveExistingProducts After="InstallInitialize" /> <Custom Action='LaunchUpdaterRunFirst' After='InstallInitialize' /> <Custom Action='LaunchInstaller' After='InstallFinalize'><![CDATA[ REMOVE <> "ALL" and UILevel <> 2]]></Custom> </InstallExecuteSequence> ... <Component Id="ServerInstaller" DiskId="1" Guid="9662EC72-1774-4d22-9F41-AD98A5DCD729"> <File Id="serverUpdaterRunFirstExe" Name="MyCompany.Server.Updater.RunFirst.exe" Source="$(var.SOURCEPATH)\MyCompany.Server.Updater.RunFirst.exe" /> <File Id="serverUpdaterRunFirstExeConfig" Name="MyCompany.Server.Updater.RunFirst.exe.config" Source="$(var.SOURCEPATH)\MyCompany.Server.Updater.RunFirst.exe.config" /> Any help or references greatly appreciated.

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  • Moving from NHibernate to FluentNHibernate: assembly error (related to versions)?

    - by goober
    Not sure where to start, but I had gotten the most recent version of NHibernate, successfully mapped the most simple of business objects, etc. When trying to move to FluentNHibernate and do the same thing, I got this error message on build: "System.IO.FileLoadException: Could not load file or assembly 'NHibernate, Version=2.1.0.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4' or one of its dependencies. The located assembly's manifest definition does not match the assembly reference." Background: I'm new to Hibernate, NHibernate, and FluentNHibernate -- but not to .NET, C#, etc. Database I have a database table called Category: (PK) CategoryID (type: int), unique, auto-incrementing UserID (type: uniqueidentifier) -- given the value of the user Guid in ASP.NET database Title (type: varchar(50) -- the title of the category Components involved: I have a SessionProviderClass which creates the mapping to the database I have a Category class which has all the virtual methods for FluentNHibernate to override I have a CategoryMap : ClassMap class, which does the fluent mappings for the entity I have a CategoryRepository class that contains the method to add & save the category I have the TestCatAdd.aspx file which uses the CategoryRepository class. Would be happy to post code for any of those, but I'm not sure that it's necessary, as I think the issue is that somewhere there's a version conflict between what FluentNHibernate references and the NHibernate I have installed from before. Thanks in advance for any help you can give!

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