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  • Get content of a div

    - by Sergiu
    <select> <div class="options"> <option value="nothing">Nothing</option> <option value="snothing">Second Nothing</option> </div> </select> I want to get the content of the DIV and print it inside javascript in a selector. $(document).ready(function () { var options = $('.options').html(); . . . var content = '<select>' + options + '</select>'; . . . }); I need to take options from the HTML. I've created a div indise <select></select> tags, because I had no other idea. But it's not working! I tried to put the options var inside <p></p> tags so i can print it, it sais 'undefined'.

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  • sending the data from form to db in django

    - by BharatKrishna
    I have a form in which I can input text through text boxes. How do I make these data go into the db on clicking submit. this is the code of the form in the template. <form method="post" action="app/save_page"> <p> Title:<input type="text" name="title"/> </p> <p> Name:<input type="text" name="name"/> </p> <p> Phone:<input type="text" name="phone"/> </p> <p> Email:<input type="text" name="email"/> </p> <p> <textarea name="description" rows=20 cols=60> </textarea><br> </p> <input type="submit" value="Submit"/> </form> I have a function in the views.py for saving the data in the page. But I dont know how to impliment it properly: def save_page(request): title = request.POST["title"] name = request.POST["name"] phone = request.POST["phone"] email = request.POST["email"] description = request.POST["description"] Now how do I send these into the db? And what do I put in views.py so that those data goes into the db? so how do I open a database connection and put those into the db and save it? should I do something like : connection=sqlite3.connect('app.db') cursor= connection.cursor() ..... ..... connection.commit() connection.close() Thank you.

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  • Complicated API issue with calling assemblies dynamically?

    - by Stefanos Tses
    I have an interesting challenge that I'm wondering if anyone here can give me some direction. I'm writing a .Net windows forms application that runs on a network and uses an SQL Server to save and pull data. I want to offer a mini "plugin" API, where developers can build their own assemblies and implement a specific interface (IDataManipulate). These assemblies then can be used by my application to call the interface functions and do something. I can create assemblies using my API, copy the file to a folder in my local hard drive and configure my application to use Reflection to call a specific function from the implemented interface (IDataManipulate.Execute). The problem: Since the application will be installed in multiple workstations in the network, is impossible to copy the plugin dlls the users will create to each machine. Solutions I tried: Solution 1 Copy the API dll to a network share. Problem: Requires AllowPartiallyTrustedCallersAttribute, which requires .Net singing, which I can't force from my users. Solution 2 (preferred) Serialize the dll object, save it to the database, deserialize it and call IDataManipulate.Execute. Problem: After deserialization, I try cast it to a IDataManipulate object but returns an error looking for the actual dll file. Solution 3 Save the dll bytes as byte[] to the database and recreate the dll at the local PC every time the user starts my application. Problem: Dll may have dependencies, which I don't know if I can detect. Any suggestions will be greatly appreciated. Thanks

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  • Generic Func<> as parameter to base method

    - by WestDiscGolf
    I might be losing the plot, but I hope someone can point me in the right direction. What am I trying to do? I'm trying to write some base methods which take Func< and Action so that these methods handle all of the exception handling etc. so its not repeated all over the place but allow the derived classes to specify what actions it wants to execute. So far this is the base class. public abstract class ServiceBase<T> { protected T Settings { get; set; } protected ServiceBase(T setting) { Settings = setting; } public void ExecAction(Action action) { try { action(); } catch (Exception exception) { throw new Exception(exception.Message); } } public TResult ExecFunc<T1, T2, T3, TResult>(Func<T1, T2, T3, TResult> function) { try { /* what goes here?! */ } catch (Exception exception) { throw new Exception(exception.Message); } } } I want to execute an Action in the following way in the derived class (this seems to work): public void Delete(string application, string key) { ExecAction(() => Settings.Delete(application, key)); } And I want to execute a Func in a similar way in the derived class but for the life of me I can't seem to workout what to put in the base class. I want to be able to call it in the following way (if possible): public object Get(string application, string key, int? expiration) { return ExecFunc(() => Settings.Get(application, key, expiration)); } Am I thinking too crazy or is this possible? Thanks in advance for all the help.

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  • Need some help understanding a weird C behavior

    - by mike
    This part of my code works fine: #include <stdio.h> int main(){ //char somestring[3] = "abc"; int i, j; int count = 5; for((i=0) && (j=0); count > 0; i++ && j++){ printf("i = %d and j = %d\n", i, j); count--; } return 0; } The output as expected: i : 0 and j : 0 i : 1 and j : 1 i : 2 and j : 2 i : 3 and j : 3 i : 4 and j : 4 Things get weird when I uncomment the char string declaration on the first line of the function body. #include <stdio.h> int main(){ char somestring[3] = "abc"; ... } The output: i : 0 and j : 4195392 i : 1 and j : 4195393 i : 2 and j : 4195394 i : 3 and j : 4195395 i : 4 and j : 4195396 What's the logic behind this? I'm using gcc 4.4.1 on Ubuntu 9.10.

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  • PHP PDO changes remote host to local hostname

    - by Wade Urry
    I'm trying to connect to a remote mysql server using PDO. However, regardless of the hostname or ip address i supply in the dsn, when the script is run it always reverts the address to the hostname of the local server where the webserver is running. Google suggests this could be something to do with SELinux and apaches ability to connect to remote databases, however i have SELinux disabled. Distro: Ubuntu 11.04 x64 Apache version: 2.2.17 PHP Version: PHP 5.3.5-1ubuntu7.11 with Suhosin-Patch (cli) Edit: Added code as requested. Though i dont believe this is an issue with my coding as it works fine on the local server, but doesnt allow remote connection. public function db_connect($driver, $dbhost, $dbname, $user, $pass) { $dsn = $driver . ':host=' . $dbhost . ';dbname=' . $dbname; try { $this->DB = new PDO($dsn, $user, $pass); } catch (PDOException $err) { print 'Database Connection Failed: ' . $err->getMessage(); die(); } } $remote_db = new DB('mysql', 'remote_server.domain.tld', 'database_name', 'user_name', 'password'); This is the error message i am receiving. Database Connection Failed: SQLSTATE[28000] [1045] Access denied for user 'user_name'@'local_server.domain.tld' (using password: YES)

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  • sending address of a variable declared on the stack?

    - by kobac
    I have a doubt concerning declaring variables, their scope, and if their address could be sent to other functions even if they are declared on the stack? class A{ AA a; void f1(){ B b; aa.f2(&b); } }; class AA{ B* mb; f2(B* b){ mb = b; //... } }; Afterwards, I use my AA::mb pointer in the code. So things I would like to know are following. When the program exits A::f1() function, b variable since declared as a local variable and placed on the stack, can't be used anymore afterwards. What happens with the validity of the AA::mb pointer? It contains the address of the local variable which could not be available anymore, so the pointer isn't valid anymore? If B class is a std::<vector>, and AA::mb is not a pointer anymore to that vector, but a vector collection itself for example. I would like to avoid copying all of it's contents in AA::f2() to a member AA::mb in line mb = b. Which solution would you recommend since I can't assign a pointer to it, because it'll be destroyed when the program exits AA::f2()

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  • Need help in javascript

    - by raja
    Hi: I am getting the error for the below code. Please help me out. <html><head> <title>(Type a title for your page here)</title> <script language=JavaScript> function check_length(my_formm,fieldName) { alert(fieldName); alert(document.my_formm.fieldName.value); } </script> </head> <body> <form name=my_form method=post> <input type="text" onKeyPress=checkCompanyName(); onChange=check_length("my_form","my_text"); name=my_text rows=4 cols=30 value=""> <br> <input size=1 value=50 name=text_num> Characters Left </form> </body> </html>

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  • Redirect after refreshing update panel

    - by teebot.be
    Hello, Do you think it's possible to refresh an update panel and immediately after redirecting the response (for instance a download) ? I tried this: an invisible button - as an asyncpostbacktrigger a download button - when it is clicked the onclientclick clicks the invisible button the click event on the invisible button refreshes the update panel then the download button click event launches the download (normal postback which launches the download) However for some reason when the invisible button is clicked by the download button client script, it doesn't refresh the update panel.. Do you have an idea why it doesn't work? Or do you have other and cleaner techniques? Here's how the elements are declared: <asp:Button runat="server" ID="ButtonInvisible" Text="" Click="RefreshDisplay" /> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="ButtonDownload" Text="Download" OnClientClick="clickInvisible(this.id)" Click="Download" /><Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="ButtonInvisible" /></Triggers> //the javascript <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function clickInvisible(idButton) { document.getElementById('ButtonInvisible').click(); }</script> ' //the methods Download(object source, EventArgs e){Response.Redirect("test.txt")} RefreshDisplay(object source, EventArgs e){ ButtonCancel.Enabled = false;}

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  • Repeater not working fine when passed a dataprovider (array) having a single element

    - by baltusaj
    I am using a Repeater in an Accordian which does not appear to see a single element in userArray. If I add another entry to userArray then the Repeater works fine. Thoughts?? private function currUsersServiceHandler(event:ResultEvent):void{ if (event.result.currentUsers != null) { if (event.result.currentUsers.user is ArrayCollection) // if more than one elements are present { usersArray = event.result.currentUsers.user; } else if (event.result.currentUsers is ObjectProxy) { //FIXIT usersArray populate by following line has some issue usersArray = new ArrayCollection(ArrayUtil.toArray(event.result.currentUsers)); } } } <mx:HTTPService id="currUsersService" url="currUsers.xml" result="currUsersServiceHandler(event)"/> <mx:Accordion includeIn="UserList" x="10" y="10" width="554" height="242" > <mx:Repeater id="rep" dataProvider="{usersArray}"> <mx:Canvas width="100%" height="100%" label="{rep.currentItem.firstName}" > <mx:HBox> <s:Label text="{rep.currentItem.firstName}"/> <s:Label text="{rep.currentItem.lastName}"/> <mx:/HBox> </mx:Canvas> </mx:Repeater> </mx:Accordian> Edit: There is another thing I have just noticed i.e. that the accordian does show a single tab (when Array has a single element) but it's not labeled with the first name which I am setting. If I enter another user, two tabs appear and both are labeled with names I am setting. The first tab appears labeled too then.

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  • assigning values to variables within foreach loop

    - by Patrick
    Im working on a script to tear into a csv file and ive got the rows separated, but im not sure how to assign variables to the fields within the row, so that i can perform functions with them. my code: <? ini_set('auto_detect_line_endings', true); $csvraw = file_get_contents("file.csv"); $csv = explode("\n", $csvraw); $i=0; foreach($csv AS $key=>$value){ $rowsplit = explode(",", $value); // This is where i get my headers if($i == 0){ $col0 = $rowsplit[0]; $col1 = $rowsplit[1]; $col2 = $rowsplit[2]; $col3 = $rowsplit[3]; $col4 = $rowsplit[4]; $col5 = $rowsplit[5]; $col6 = $rowsplit[6]; $col7 = $rowsplit[7]; } $i++; //This is where i loop through each row's fields foreach($rowsplit AS $key2=>$value2){ if(empty($value2)){ echo ""; }else{ echo "$value2 <br>"; } // This is where i need to assign $variable0 through $variable7 so i can perform a function with the field values. } echo "<br><br><br>"; } ?>

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  • Return HTML from a user selection

    - by Cruinh
    I have the following, very simple html page... <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function alertSelection() { var selection = window.getSelection(); var txt = selection.toString(); alert(txt); } </script> </head> <body> This is <span style="background-color:black;color:white">the</span> text. <div style="background-color:green;width:30px;height:30px;margin:30px" onmouseover="alertSelection()"> </body> </html> When I select the entire first line and mouseover the square, I get an alert with "This is the text.". How would I fix this so the the span tag or any other selected HTML isn't stripped out of the alert message?

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  • Operator+ for a subtype of a template class.

    - by baol
    I have a template class that defines a subtype. I'm trying to define the binary operator+ as a template function, but the compiler cannot resolve the template version of the operator+. #include <iostream> template<typename other_type> struct c { c(other_type v) : cs(v) {} struct subtype { subtype(other_type v) : val(v) {} other_type val; } cs; }; template<typename other_type> typename c<other_type>::subtype operator+(const typename c<other_type>::subtype& left, const typename c<other_type>::subtype& right) { return typename c<other_type>::subtype(left.val + right.val); } // This one works // c<int>::subtype operator+(const c<int>::subtype& left, // const c<int>::subtype& right) // { return c<int>::subtype(left.val + right.val); } int main() { c<int> c1 = 1; c<int> c2 = 2; c<int>::subtype cs3 = c1.cs + c2.cs; std::cerr << cs3.val << std::endl; } I think the reason is because the compiler (g++4.3) cannot guess the template type so it's searching for operator+<int> instead of operator+. What's the reason for that? What elegant solution can you suggest?

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  • jquery to create array from form data

    - by AndrewStevens
    I've been wrestling with this problem for a couple hours now. Essentially, what I need to do is take the following or similar HTML: <div id="excpdivs"> <div class="excpdiv" id="excpdiv0"> Date: <input name="excp[0][date]"> Open: <input name="excp[0][open]"> Close: <input name="excp[0][close]"> </div> <div class="excpdiv" id="expdiv1"> Date: <input name="excp[1][date]"> Open: <input name="excp[1][open]"> Close: <input name="excp[1][close]"> </div> and get an array similar to the following to a php script: Array ( [0] => Array ( [date] => 2012-09-15 [open] => 3:00 [close] => 5:00 ) [1] => Array ( [date] => 2012-09-16 [open] => 2:00 [close] => 5:00 ) ) My main problem is getting the values from the input elements. My latest attempt is the following: var results = []; $(".excpdiv").each(function(){ var item = {}; var inpts = $(this).find("input"); item.date = $(inpts.get(0)).val(); item.open = $(inpts.get(1)).val(); item.close = $(inpts.get(2)).val(); results.push(item); }); Am I on the right track or am I hopelessly lost?

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  • ASP disable button during postback

    - by user667430
    I have a button which i am trying to add a css class to appear disabled once the user has clicked it. protected void Button_Continue_OnClick(object sender, EventArgs e) { Panel_Error.Visible = false; Literal_Error.Text = ""; if (RadioButton_Yes.Checked) { ...//if radio checked get text and process etc. } } My button onlick is above which simply processes a textbox filled on the page. My button looks like this: <asp:Button runat="server" ID="Button_Continue" CssClass="button dis small" Text="Continue" OnClick="Button_Continue_OnClick" ClientIDMode="Static" OnClientClick="return preventMult();" /> And my javscript is as follows: <script type="text/javascript"> var isSubmitted = false; function preventMult() { if (isSubmitted == false) { $('#Button_Continue').removeClass('ready'); $('#Button_Continue').addClass('disabled'); isSubmitted = true; return true; } else { return false; } } </script> The problem I am having is that the css class added works fine on the first postback, but after which my button onclick doesnt work and the button cant be clicked again if the user needs to resubmit the data if it is wrong Another problem I am having is that with a breakpoint in my method i notice that the method is fired twice on the click.

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  • How can I filter using the current value of a text box in a jQuery selector?

    - by spudly
    I have a validation script that checks for data-* attributes to determine which fields are required. If an element has the 'data-required-if' attribute (which has a jQuery selector as it's value), it checks to see if any elements are found that match that selector. If any are found, the field is required. It does something similar to the following: $('[data-required-if]').each(function () { var selector = $(this).attr('data-required-if'), required = false; if ( !$(selector).length ) { required = true; // do something if this element is empty } }); This works great, but there's a problem. When you use the attribute selector to filter based on the current value of a text field, it really filters on the initial value of the text field. <input type='text' id='myinput' value='initial text' /> <input type='text' id='dependent_input' value='' data-required-if="#myinput[value='']" /> // Step 1: type "foobar" in #myinput // Step 2: run these lines of code: <script> $('#myinput').val() //=> returns "foobar" $('#myinput[value="foobar"]').length //=> returns 0 </script> I understand why it's doing that. jQuery probably uses getAttribute() in the background. Is there any other way to filter based on the current value of an input box using purely jQuery selectors?

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  • What is a good RPC model for building a AJAX web app using PHP & JS?

    - by user366152
    I'm new to writing AJAX applications. I plan on using jQuery on the client side while PHP on the server side. I want to use something like XML-RPC to simplify my effort in calling server-side code. Ideally, I wouldn't care whether the transport layer uses XML or JSON or a format more optimized for the wire. If I was writing a console app I'd use some tool to generate function stubs which I would then implement on the RPC server while the client would natively call into those stubs. This provides a clean separation. Is there something similar available in the AJAX world? While on this topic, how would I proceed with session management? I would want it to be as transparent as possible. For example, if I try to hit an RPC end-point which needs a valid session, it should reject the request if the client doesn't pass a valid session cookie. This would really ease my application development. I'd then have to simply handle the frontend using native JS functions. While on the backend, I can simply implement the RPC functions. BTW I dont wish to use Google Web Toolkit. My app wont be extremely heavy on AJAX.

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  • visibility false, XML, as3

    - by pixelGreaser
    Hey, I'm using external XML to set flash vars. Alpha works, but not Visibility. How do I get my swf to respond to visibility? Thanks. XML <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <SESSION> <BGv TITLE="visible true">false</BGv> <BGa TITLE="alpha 50 percent">.5</BGa> </SESSION> SWF //LISTEN AND LOAD XML var myXML:*; var myLoad:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); myLoad.load(new URLRequest("visible.xml")); myLoad.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, parseXML); //PARSE XML function parseXML(e:Event):void { myXML = new XML(e.target.data); //MY TEST var bgA:*; var bgV:*; trace(myXML.BGa.text()); trace(myXML.BGv.text()); bgA =(myXML.BGa.text()); bgV =(myXML.BGv.text()); //MY OBJECT bg.alpha = bgA;//This works great bg.visible = bgV;//This has no effect } OUTPUT .5 false

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  • OpenLayers eraseFeatures doesn't erase features from map screen.

    - by Jenny
    I'm using OpenLayers, and have a layer for my Map, and a single Vector Layer. In this vector layer, I am using the DrawFeature control to draw a square. I have a listener waiting for a feature to be added, and then deleting any existing features (I only want one square at a time), like so: polygonLayer.events.register("beforefeatureadded", feature, function(evt){ console.log("Clearing existing polygons"); console.log(polygonLayer.features.length); polygonLayer.destroyFeatures(); polygonLayer.redraw(); });//end attempt at events registration When I check my layer.features.size, I can see that it's always 1, just like I expect, but the squares on the screen are still displayed. Even when I call .redraw() on the layer, the squares are still there. Is there some extra step I'm missing? Edit: You can find my code here: http://pastie.org/909644 Edit: Just realized: If I draw a square from previously existing coordinates, I can clear it just fine. It seems to be just the squares drawn from the controller that are an issue?

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  • Image resizing efficiency in C# and .NET 3.5

    - by Matthew Nichols
    I have written a web service to resize user uploaded images and all works correctly from a functional point of view, but it causes CPU usage to spike every time it is used. It is running on Windows Server 2008 64 bit. I have tried compiling to 32 and 64 bit and get about the same results. The heart of the service is this function: private Image CreateReducedImage(Image imgOrig, Size NewSize) { var newBM = new Bitmap(NewSize.Width, NewSize.Height); using (var newGrapics = Graphics.FromImage(newBM)) { newGrapics.CompositingQuality = CompositingQuality.HighSpeed; newGrapics.SmoothingMode = SmoothingMode.HighSpeed; newGrapics.InterpolationMode = InterpolationMode.HighQualityBicubic; newGrapics.DrawImage(imgOrig, new Rectangle(0, 0, NewSize.Width, NewSize.Height)); } return newBM; } I put a profiler on the service and it seemed to indicate the vast majority of the time is spent in the GDI+ library itself and there is not much to be gained in my code. Questions: Am I doing something glaringly inefficient in my code here? It seems to conform to the example I have seen. Are there gains to be had in using libraries other than GDI+? The benchmarks I have seen seem to indicate that GDI+ does well compare to other libraries but I didn't find enough of these to be confident. Are there gains to be had by using "unsafe code" blocks? Please let me know if I have not included enough of the code...I am happy to put as much up as requested but don't want to be obnoxious in the post.

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  • Can't call an object method. PHP reports variable undefined

    - by user1285697
    This is the weirdest bug! It is probably something silly, but I have no idea how to fix it. If anyone could help, I would be most grateful! I have three files, one is called items.php, another is called tableFunctions.php, and the third is called mysql.php. I use two global objects called 'mysql' and 'tableFunctions'. They are stored in the files 'mysql.php', and 'tableFunctions.php', respectively. In each file, I create an instance of its object, assigning it to the global variable $_mysql, or $_table. like this: In the file mysql.php: global $_mysql; $_mysql = new mysql(); In the file tableFunctions.php: global $_table; $_table = new tableFunctions(); Here's how it is supposed to work: The items.php file includes the tableFunctions.php file... Which in turn, needs the mysql.php file, so it includes it too. In the items.php file, I call the method getTable(), which is contained in the object tableFunctions.(and in the variable $_table.) Like this: $t = $_table->getTable('items'); The getTable function calls the method, arrayFromResult(), which is contained within in the object mysql.(and in the variable $_mysql.) Like this: $result = $_mysql->arrayFromResult($r); That's where I get the error. PHP says that the variable '$_mysql' is undefined, but I defined it in the 'mysql.php' file.(see above) I also included mysql.php with the following code: include_once 'mysql.php'; I have no idea what is wrong! If anyone can help that would be much appreciated. The source files can be downloaded with the following link: https://www.dropbox.com/sh/bjj2gyjsybym89r/YLxqyNvQdn

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  • free( ) pointers

    - by user1043625
    I'm required to use a special library to keep track of my memory leaks where malloc()= allocate( ) and free( ) = unallocate( ). I'm trying to complete free a linked-list but it seems like the "root" value isn't being freed. typedef struct _node { struct _node *child; char *command; } Command_list; void delete_commands(Command_list **root) { Command_list *temp; while( *root != NULL ){ temp = (*root)->child; //printf("STRING: %s\n", *root->command ); unallocate( *root ); *root = temp; } } The function that's calling it void file_processing( .... ){ Command_list *root = allocate(sizeof (Command_list)); root = NULL; .... delete_commands( &root ); } } I believe that Command_list *root = allocate(sizeof (Command_list)) isn't being properly de-allocated for some reason. Anyone can give me some hints? UPDATE: I found out that instead of Command_list *root = allocate(sizeof (Command_list)); root = NULL; this works: Command_list *root = NULL;

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  • Printing distinct integers in an array

    - by ???
    I'm trying to write a small program that prints out distinct numbers in an array. For example if a user enters 1,1,3,5,7,4,3 the program will only print out 1,3,5,7,4. I'm getting an error on the else if line in the function checkDuplicate. Here's my code so far: import javax.swing.JOptionPane; public static void main(String[] args) { int[] array = new int[10]; for (int i=0; i<array.length;i++) { array[i] = Integer.parseInt(JOptionPane.showInputDialog("Please enter" + "an integer:")); } checkDuplicate (array); } public static int checkDuplicate(int array []) { for (int i = 0; i < array.length; i++) { boolean found = false; for (int j = 0; j < i; j++) if (array[i] == array[j]) { found = true; break; } if (!found) System.out.println(array[i]); } return 1; } }

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  • Background loading javascript into iframe with using jQuery/Ajax?

    - by user210099
    I'm working on an offline only help system which requires loading a large amount of search-related data into an iframe before the search functionality can be used. Due to the folder structure of the project, I am unable to use Ajax-related background load methods, since the files I need are loaded a few directories "up and over." I have written some code which delays the loading of the help data until the rest of the webpage is loaded. The help data consists of a bunch of javascript files which have information about the terms, ect that exist in the help books which are installed on the system. The webpage works fine, until I start to load this help data into a hidden iframe. While the javascript files are loading, I can not use any of the webpage. Links that require a small files be downloaded for hover over effects don't show up, javascript (switching tabs on the page) has no effect. I'm wondering if this is just a limitation of the way javascript works, or if there's something else going on here. Once all the files are loaded for the help system, the webpage works as expected. function test(){ var MGCFrame = eval("parent.parent"); if((ALLFRAMESLOADED == true)){ t2 = MGCFrame.setTimeout("this.IHHeader.frames[0].loadData()",1); } else{ t1 = MGCFrame.setTimeout("this.IHHeader.frames[0].test()",1000); } } Load data simply starts the data loading process. Thanks for any help you can provide.

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  • Sliding div in jquery

    - by Sean
    I am trying to make a toolbar type section on the top of my site. I just need one div that will be hidden by default, and a button that will be hanging off the bottom of that div. When it is clicked, the div should slide down (with the button still on bottom). And upon clicking, it should slide back up. Here is what I currently have: <div id="account_toolbar" style="background-color:#fff;"> <div id="toolbar_contents" style="display:none;"> This is the account toolbar so far </div> <div id="button" style="background-color: #ff0000;"><%= image_tag "templates/_global/my_account.png", :id => "my_account_btn", :style => "float: right; margin-right: 100px;" %></div> </div> The image tag is using ruby/rails syntax, so pay no attention to that. It will render like any other image tag. Here is the jquery i'm using: $('#my_account_btn').click(function () { $('#toolbar_contents').slideToggle(); }); So, this is actually working for the most part. My problem however is that the spacing where the toolbar content div goes, pushes the account button down. When it slides up or down it temporarily attaches itself to the bottom of the div, then jumps back down once it is finished sliding (leaving a gap between the bottom of the hidden div and the top of the account button). I hope that makes sense. thanks

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