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  • Using native MySQL driver in Erlang

    - by Mickey Shine
    I am using native MySQL driver (http://code.google.com/p/erlang-mysql-driver/) with mochiweb. When I tried that MySQL driver in shell mode, all woked fine. But when I write some code with Mochiweb, it reported me the following error: =CRASH REPORT==== 4-Jul-2009::04:44:29 === crasher: initial call: mochiweb_socket_server:acceptor_loop/1 pid: <0.61.0> registered_name: [] exception error: no function clause matching mysql:fetch(p1,<<"SELECT * FROM cdb_forums LIMIT 10">>) in function perly_web:loop/2 in call from mochiweb_http:headers/5 ancestors: [perly_web,perly_sup,<0.58.0>] messages: [] links: [<0.60.0>,#Port<0.965>] dictionary: [{mochiweb_request_body,undefined}, {mochiweb_request_qs,[]}, {mochiweb_request_post,[]}, {mochiweb_request_path,"/online"}, {mochiweb_request_cookie, [{"04c_sid","hG9Oyv"}, {"04c_visitedfid","2"}, {"kQx_cookietime","2592000"}, {"kQx_loginuser","admin"}, {"kQx_activationauth", "98b3mdX86fKT9dI4WyKuL61Tqxk%2BW1r6ACpHp9y8itH2xQ"}, {"smile","1D1"}]}] trap_exit: false status: running heap_size: 1597 stack_size: 24 reductions: 5188 neighbours: The code I write in Mochiweb is start(Options) -> {DocRoot, Options1} = get_option(docroot, Options), Loop = fun (Req) -> ?MODULE:loop(Req, DocRoot) end, % we’ll set our maximum to 1 million connections. (default: 2048) mochiweb_http:start([{max, 1000000}, {name, ?MODULE}, {loop, Loop} | Options1]), mysql:start_link(p1, "10.0.0.123", "root", "root", "test"). stop() -> mochiweb_http:stop(?MODULE). loop(Req, DocRoot) -> "/" ++ Path = Req:get(path), case Req:get(method) of Method when Method =:= 'GET'; Method =:= 'HEAD' -> case Path of "online" -> Result1 = mysql:fetch(p1, <<"SELECT * FROM cdb_forums LIMIT 10">>), Body1 = io:format("Result1: ~p~n", [Result1]), Req:ok({"text/plain", Body1}); The connection looks good but when I added Result1 = mysql:fetch(p1, <<"SELECT * FROM cdb_forums LIMIT 10">>), it crashed. Can someone help me? Thanks in advance~ //================================================== updated: I noticed the follwoing information. If that is correct? =PROGRESS REPORT==== 4-Jul-2009::05:49:32 === supervisor: {local,kernel_safe_sup} started: [{pid,<0.65.0>}, {name,inet_gethost_native_sup}, {mfa,{inet_gethost_native,start_link,[]}}, {restart_type,temporary}, {shutdown,1000}, {child_type,worker}] mysql_conn: greeting version "5.1.33-log" (protocol 10) salt "ne0_m'vA" caps 63487 serverchar <<8,2,0,0, 0,0,0,0, 0,0,0,0, 0,0,0,0>> salt2 "!|o;vabJ*4bt" mysql_auth send packet 1: <<5,162,0,0,64,66,15,0,8,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0, 0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,114,111,111,116,0,20,52,235,78, 173,36,251,201,242,172,139,113,231,253,181,245,3, 91,198,111,135>> Link: {ok,<0.62.0>} =SUPERVISOR REPORT==== 4-Jul-2009::05:49:32 === Supervisor: {local,perly_sup} Context: start_error Reason: ok Offender: [{pid,undefined}, {name,perly_web}, {mfa, {perly_web,start, [[{ip,"0.0.0.0"}, {port,8000}, {docroot, "/work/mochiweb-read-only/scripts/perly/priv/www"}]]}}, {restart_type,permanent}, {shutdown,5000}, {child_type,worker}]

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  • Implementing EAV pattern with Hibernate for User -> Settings relationship

    - by Trevor
    I'm trying to setup a simple EAV pattern in my web app using Java/Spring MVC and Hibernate. I can't seem to figure out the magic behind the hibernate XML setup for this scenario. My database table "SETUP" has three columns: user_id (FK) setup_item setup_value The database composite key is made up of user_id | setup_item Here's the Setup.java class: public class Setup implements CommonFormElements, Serializable { private Map data = new HashMap(); private String saveAction; private Integer speciesNamingList; private User user; Logger log = LoggerFactory.getLogger(Setup.class); public String getSaveAction() { return saveAction; } public void setSaveAction(String action) { this.saveAction = action; } public User getUser() { return user; } public void setUser(User user) { this.user = user; } public Integer getSpeciesNamingList() { return speciesNamingList; } public void setSpeciesNamingList(Integer speciesNamingList) { this.speciesNamingList = speciesNamingList; } public Map getData() { return data; } public void setData(Map data) { this.data = data; } } My problem with the Hibernate setup, is that I can't seem to figure out how to map out the fact that a foreign key and the key of a map will construct the composite key of the table... this is due to a lack of experience using Hibernate. Here's my initial attempt at getting this to work: <composite-id> <key-many-to-one foreign-key="id" name="user" column="user_id" class="Business.User"> <meta attribute="use-in-equals">true</meta> </key-many-to-one> </composite-id> <map lazy="false" name="data" table="setup"> <key column="user_id" property-ref="user"/> <composite-map-key class="Command.Setup"> <key-property name="data" column="setup_item" type="string"/> </composite-map-key> <element column="setup_value" not-null="true" type="string"/> </map> Any insight into how to properly map this common scenario would be most appreciated!

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  • Java JMS Messaging

    - by London
    Hello, I have a working example of sending message to server and server receiving it via qpid messaging. Here is simple hello world to send to server : http://pastebin.com/M7mSECJn And here is server which receives requests and sends response(the current client doesn't receive response) : http://pastebin.com/2mEeuzrV Here is my property file : http://pastebin.com/TLEFdpXG They all work perfectly, I can see the messages in the qpid queue via Qpid JMX management console. These examples are downloaded from https://svn.apache.org/repos/asf/qpid/trunk/qpid/java/client/example (someone may need it also). I've done Jboss messaging using spring before, but I can't manage to do the same with qpid. With jboss inside applicationsContext I had beans jndiTemplate, conectionFactory, destinationQueue, and jmscontainer like this : <!-- Queue configuration --> <bean id="jndiTemplate" class="org.springframework.jndi.JndiTemplate"> <property name="environment"> <props> <prop key="java.naming.factory.initial">org.jnp.interfaces.NamingContextFactory</prop> <prop key="java.naming.provider.url">jnp://localhost:1099</prop> <prop key="java.naming.factory.url.pkgs">org.jboss.naming:org.jnp.interfaces</prop> <prop key="java.naming.security.principal">admin</prop> <prop key="java.naming.security.credentials">admin</prop> </props> </property> </bean> <bean id="connectionFactory" class="org.springframework.jndi.JndiObjectFactoryBean"> <property name="jndiTemplate" ref="jndiTemplate" /> <property name="jndiName" value="ConnectionFactory" /> </bean> <bean id="queueDestination" class="org.springframework.jndi.JndiObjectFactoryBean"> <property name="jndiTemplate" ref="jndiTemplate" /> <property name="jndiName"> <value>queue/testQueue</value> </property> </bean> <bean id="jmsContainer" class="org.springframework.jms.listener.DefaultMessageListenerContainer"> <property name="connectionFactory" ref="connectionFactory" /> <property name="destination" ref="queueDestination" /> <property name="messageListener" ref="listener" /> </bean> and of course sender and listener : Now I'd like to rewrite this qpid example using spring context logic. Can anyone help me?

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  • Enable real fixed positioning on Samsung Android browsers

    - by Mr. Shiny and New ??
    The Android browser, since 2.2, supports fixed positioning, at least under certain circumstances such as when scaling is turned off. I have a simple HTML file with no JS, but the fixed positioning on three Samsung phones I've tried is simply wrong. Instead of true fixed positioning, the header scrolls out of view then pops back into place after the scrolling is done. This doesn't happen on the Android SDK emulator for any configuration I've tested (2.2, 2.3, 2.3 x86, 4.0.4). It also doesn't happen when using the WebView in an app on the Samsung phones: in those cases the positioning works as expected. Is there a way to make the Samsung Android "stock" browser use real fixed positioning? I've tested: 1. Samsung Galaxy 551, Android 2.2 2. Samsung Galaxy S, Android 2.3 3. Samsung Galaxy S II, Android 2.3 Sample code: <html> <head> <meta name="viewport" content="initial-scale=1.0,maximum-scale=1.0,user-scalable=no,width=device-width,height=device-height"> <style> h1 { position: fixed; top: 0; left: 0; height: 32px; background-color: #CDCDCD; color: black; font-size: 32px; line-height: 32px; padding: 2px; width: 100%; margin: 0;} p { margin-top: 36px; } </style> </head> <body> <h1>Header</h1> <p>Long text goes here</p> </body> </html> The expected behaviour is that the grey header fills the top of the screen and stays put no matter how much you scroll. On Samsung Android browsers it seems to scroll out of view then pop back into place once the scrolling is done, as if the fixed-positioning is being simulated using Javascript, which it isn't. Edit Judging by the comments and "answers" it seems that maybe I wasn't clear on what I need. I am looking for a meta tag or css rule/hack or javascript toggle which turns off Samsung's broken fixed-positioning and turns on the Android browser's working fixed-positioning. I am not looking for a Javascript solution that adds broken fixed-positioning to a browser that has no support whatsoever; the Samsung fixed-positioning does that already, it just looks stupid.

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  • C# - Coding a nested stateflow diagram

    - by weberc2
    I have the following state diagram. I know how to make a simple state machine that transitions between non-nested states; however, I don't know how to transition between nested states. Could someone explain how to do this at an appropriately high level (i.e., you don't need to write the code for me--unless you're feeling particularly generous :P). State Diagram [EDIT: The bottom "A", "C", and "E" should be "B", "D", and "F" respectively; sorry!] What I know how to do public class MyState : State // State enumeration { public static MyState A = new MyState("State A"); public static MyState B = new MyState("State B"); public static MyState C = new MyState("State C"); public static MyState D = new MyState("State D"); public static MyState E = new MyState("State E"); public static MyState F = new MyState("State F"); public static MyState NEUT = new MyState("Neutral"); public static MyState P = new MyState("P"); protected MyState(string name) : base(name) { } } public class MyEvent : Event // Event enumeration { public static MyEvent X_POS = new MyEvent("X+"); public static MyEvent X_NEG = new MyEvent("X-"); public static MyEvent Y_POS = new MyEvent("Y+"); public static MyEvent Y_NEG = new MyEvent("Y-"); protected MyEvent(string name) : base(name) { } } public class MyStateMachine : StateMachine<MyState, MyEvent> // State Machine implementation { public MyStateMachine() : base(MyState.P) // MyState.P = initial state { // Set up the transition table // P this.addTransition(MYState.P, MyState.NEUT, MyEvent.Y_NEG); // NEUTRAL this.addTransition(MyState.NEUT, MyState.P, MyEvent.Y_POS); this.addTransition(MyState.NEUT, MyState.A, MyEvent.Y_NEG); this.addTransition(MyState.NEUT, MyState.B, MyEvent.Y_POS); this.addTransition(MyState.NEUT, MyState.C, MyEvent.Y_NEG); this.addTransition(MyState.NEUT, MyState.D, MyEvent.Y_POS); this.addTransition(MyState.NEUT, MyState.E, MyEvent.Y_NEG); this.addTransition(MyState.NEUT, MyState.F, MyEvent.Y_POS); // A this.addTransition(MyState.A, MyState.NEUT, MyEvent.Y_POS); // B this.addTransition(MyState.B, MyState.NEUT, MyEvent.Y_NEG); // C this.addTransition(MyState.C, MyState.NEUT, MyEvent.Y_POS); // D this.addTransition(MyState.D, MyState.NEUT, MyEvent.Y_NEG); // E this.addTransition(MyState.E, MyState.NEUT, MyEvent.Y_POS); // F this.addTransition(MyState.F, MyState.NEUT, MyEvent.Y_NEG); } public void move(MyEvent eevent) { try { this.moveNext(eevent); } catch (Exception e) { } } }

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  • Advice on displaying and allowing editing of data using ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Remnant
    I am embarking upon my first ASP.NET MVC project and I would like to get some input on possible ways to display database data and general best practice. In short, the body of my webpage will show data from my database in a table like format, with each table row showing similar data. For example: Name Age Position Date Joined Jon Smith 23 Striker 18th Mar 2005 John Doe 38 Defender 3rd Jan 1988 In terms of functionality, primarily I’d like to give the user the ability to edit the data and, after the edit, commit the edit to the database and refresh the view.The reason I want to refresh the view is because the data is date ordered and I will need to re-sort if the user edits a date field. My main question is what architecture / tools would be best suited to this fulfil my requirements at a high level? From the research I have done so far my initial conclusions were: ADO.NET for data retrieval. This is something I have used before and feel comfortable with. I like the look of LINQ to SQL but don’t want to make the learning curve any steeper for my first outing into MVC land just yet. Partial Views to create a template and then iterate through a datatable that I have pulled back from my database model. jQuery to allow the user to edit data in the table, error check edited data entries etc. Also, my intial view was that caching the data would not be a key requirement here. The only field a user will be able to update is the field and, if they do, I will need to commit that data to the database immediately and then refresh the view (as the data is date sorted). Any thoughts on this? Alternatively, I have seen some jQuery plug-ins that emulate a datagrid and provide associated functionality. My first thoughts are that I do not need all the functionality that comes with these plug-ins (e.g. zebra striping, ability to sort by column using sort glyph in column headers etc .) and I don’t really see any benefit to this over and above the solution I have outlined above. Again, is there reason to reconsider this view? Finally, when a user edits a date , I will need to refresh the view. In order to do this I had been reading about Html.RenderAction and this seemed like it may be a better option than using Partial Views as I can incorporate application logic into the action method. Am I right to consider Html.RenderAction or have I misunderstood its usage? Hope this post is clear and not too long. I did consider separate posts for each topic (e.g. Partial View vs. Html.RenderAction, when to use jQury datagrid plug-in) but it feels like these issues are so intertwined that they need to be dealt with in contect of each other. Thanks

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  • SilverLight 3 Beginner question: Scroll with mousewheel and zoom image with panning

    - by JP Hellemons
    Hello, I would like to make a small silverlight app which displays one fairly large image which can be zoomed in by scrolling the mouse and then panned with the mouse. it's similar to the function in google maps and i do not want to use deepzoom. here is what i have at the moment. please keep in mind that this is my first silverlight app: this app is just for me to see it's a good way to build in a website. so it's a demo app and therefor has bad variable names. the initial image is 1800px width. private void sc_MouseWheel(object sender, MouseWheelEventArgs e) { var st = (ScaleTransform)plaatje.RenderTransform; double zoom = e.Delta > 0 ? .1 : -.1; st.ScaleX += zoom; st.ScaleY += zoom; } this works, but could use some smoothing and it's positioned top left and not centered. the panning is like this: found it @ http://stackoverflow.com/questions/741956/wpf-pan-zoom-image and converted it to this below to work in silverlight Point start; Point origin; bool captured = false; private void plaatje_MouseLeftButtonDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { plaatje.CaptureMouse(); captured = true; var tt = (TranslateTransform)((TransformGroup)plaatje.RenderTransform) .Children.First(tr => tr is TranslateTransform); start = e.GetPosition(canvasje); origin = new Point(tt.X, tt.Y); } private void plaatje_MouseLeftButtonUp(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { plaatje.ReleaseMouseCapture(); captured = false; } private void plaatje_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (!captured) return; var tt = (TranslateTransform)((TransformGroup)plaatje.RenderTransform).Children.First(tr => tr is TranslateTransform); double xVerschuiving = start.X - e.GetPosition(canvasje).X; double yVerschuiving = start.Y - e.GetPosition(canvasje).Y; tt.X = origin.X - xVerschuiving; tt.Y = origin.Y - yVerschuiving; } so the scaling isn't smooth and the panning isn't working, because when i click it, the image disappears. thanks in advanced!

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  • Rails 3 and Bootstrap 2.1.0 - can't fix my footer

    - by ExiRe
    I have Rails application with bootstrap 2.1.0 (i use twitter-bootstrap-rails gem for that). But i can't get working footer. It is not visible unless i scroll down the page. I can't get how to fix that. Application.html.haml !!! %html %head %title MyApp = stylesheet_link_tag "application", :media => "all" = javascript_include_tag "application" = csrf_meta_tags %meta{ :name => "viewport", :content => "width=device-width, initial-scale=1.0" } %body %div{ :class => "wrapper" } = render 'layouts/navbar_template' %div{ :class => "container-fluid" } - flash.each do |key, value| = content_tag( :div, value, :class => "alert alert-#{key}" ) %div{ :class => "row-fluid" } %div{:class => "span10"} =yield %div{:class => "span2"} %h2 Test sidebar %footer{ :class => "footer" } = debug(params) if Rails.env.development? bootstrap_and_overrides.css.less @import "twitter/bootstrap/bootstrap"; body { padding-top: 60px; } @import "twitter/bootstrap/responsive"; // Set the correct sprite paths @iconSpritePath: asset-path('twitter/bootstrap/glyphicons-halflings.png'); @iconWhiteSpritePath: asset-path('twitter/bootstrap/glyphicons-halflings-white.png'); // Set the Font Awesome (Font Awesome is default. You can disable by commenting below lines) // Note: If you use asset_path() here, your compiled boostrap_and_overrides.css will not // have the proper paths. So for now we use the absolute path. @fontAwesomeEotPath: '/assets/fontawesome-webfont.eot'; @fontAwesomeWoffPath: '/assets/fontawesome-webfont.woff'; @fontAwesomeTtfPath: '/assets/fontawesome-webfont.ttf'; @fontAwesomeSvgPath: '/assets/fontawesome-webfont.svg'; // Font Awesome @import "fontawesome"; // Your custom LESS stylesheets goes here // // Since bootstrap was imported above you have access to its mixins which // you may use and inherit here // // If you'd like to override bootstrap's own variables, you can do so here as well // See http://twitter.github.com/bootstrap/less.html for their names and documentation // // Example: // @linkColor: #ff0000; //MY CSS IS HERE. html, body { height: 100%; } footer { color: #666; background: #F5F5F5; padding: 17px 0 18px 0; border-top: 1px solid #000; } footer a { color: #999; } footer a:hover { color: #efefef; } .wrapper { min-height: 100%; height: auto !important; height: 10px; margin-bottom: -10px; }

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  • make an http post from server using user credentials - integrated security

    - by opensas
    I'm trying to make a post, from an asp classic server side page, using the user credentials... I'm using msxml2.ServerXMLHTTP to programatically make the post I've tried with several configurations in the IIS 5.1 site, but there's no way I can make IIS run with a specified account... I made a little asp page that runs whoami to verify what account the iis process i using... with IIS 5.1, using integrated security the process uses: my_machine\IWAM_my_machine I disable integrated security, and leave a domain account as anonymous access, and I get the same (¿?) to test the user I do the following private function whoami() dim shell, cmd set shell = createObject("wscript.shell") set cmd = shell.exec( server.mapPath( "whoami.exe" ) ) whoami = cmd.stdOut.readAll() set shell = nothing: set cmd = nothing end function is it because I'm issuing a shell command? I'd like to make http post calls, to another site that works with integrated security... So I need some way to pass the credentials, or at least to run with a specified account, and then configure the remote site to thrust that account... I thought that just setting the site to work with integrated security would be enough... How can I achieve such a thing? ps: with IIS6,happens the same but if I change the pool canfiguration I get the following info from whoami NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE NT AUTHORITY\LOCAL SERVICE NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM if I set a domain account, I get a "service unavailable" message... edit: found this http://www.microsoft.com/technet/prodtechnol/WindowsServer2003/Library/IIS/275269ee-1b9f-4869-8d72-c9006b5bd659.mspx?mfr=true it says what I supossed, "If an authenticated user makes a request, the thread token is based on the authenticated account of the user", but somehow I doesn't seem to work like that... what could I possibly be missing? edit: well the whoami thing is obviously fooling me, I tried with the following function private function whoami_db( serverName, dbName ) dim conn, data set conn = server.createObject("adodb.connection") conn.open "Provider=SQLOLEDB.1;Integrated Security=SSPI;" & _ "Initial Catalog=" & dbName & ";Data Source=" & serverName set data = conn.execute( "select suser_sname() as user_name" ) whoami_db = data("user_name") data.close: conn.close set data = nothing: set conn = nothing end function and everything seemed to be working fine... but how can I make msxml2.ServerXMLHTTP work with the user credentials???

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  • Easiest Way To Get Started In Dot Net

    - by Avery Payne
    Ok, so the initial search in StackOverflow shows nothing related for this question. So here it goes: Let's pretend for a moment that you're just getting started in a career in computer programming. Let's say that, for whatever reason, you decide to use the .Net framework as a basis for your programming. Let's also say that you've been exposed to some programming background, but not one in .Net, so it seems foreign to you at first. And lastly, you don't have the benefit of 25 years of exposure to the Win32 API, which explains why it seems so foreign to you when you start looking at it. So the questions are: What is a comprehensive overview of what .Net is? It appears to be a combination of a runtime environment, a set of languages, a common set of libraries, and perhaps a few other things...so it's about as clear as mud. Specifically, what are the key components to .Net? What is the easiest way to understand .Net programming with regard to available APIs? Which language would best suit beginning programming out of the "stock" languages that Microsoft has to offer? (C++, C#, VB, etc.) What are some differences between .Net programming and programming in a procedural language (aka Pascal, Modula, etc.) What are some differences between .Net programming and programming in a "traditional" object-oriented language? (aka Smalltalk, Java, Python, Ruby, etc.) As I currently understand it, the CLR provides a foundation for all of the other languages to run on. What are some of the inherent limitations of the CLR? Given the enormous amount of API to cover, would it even be worth learning a .Net language (using the Microsoft APIs) given that you would not have prior exposure to Win32 programming? Let's say you write a for-profit program with .Net. Can you resell the program without running afoul of licensing issues? Let's say you write a gratis (free) program with .Net. Can you offer the program to the public under a "free" license (GPL, BSD, Artistic, etc.) without running afoul of licensing issues? Thank you in advance for your patience.

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  • Determine the 'Overtype' mode using Javascript

    - by Snorkpete
    We are creating a web app to replace an old-school green-screen application. In the green-screen app, as the user presses the Insert key to switch between overtype and insert modes, the cursor changes to indicate which input mode the user is currently in. In IE (which is the official browser of the company), overtype mode also works, but there's no visual indication as to whether overtype mode is on or not, until the user starts typing and possibly over-writes existing information unexpectedly. I'd like to put some sort of visual indicator on the screen if in overtype mode. How can you determine if the browser is in 'overtype mode' from Javascript? Is there some property or function i can query to determine if the browser is in overtype mode? Even an IE-specific solution would be helpful, since our corporate policy dictates the browser to use as IE7 (pure torture, btw). (I do know that one solution is to do check for key presses of the Insert key. However, it's a solution that I'd prefer to avoid since that method seems a bit flaky & error-prone because I can't guarantee what mode the user would be in BEFORE he/she hits my page. ) The reasoning behind this question: The functionality of this portion of the green-screen app is such that the user can select from a list of 'preformatted bodies of text'. crude eg. The excess for this policy is: $xxxxxx and max limit is:$xxxxxx Date of policy is: xx/xx/xxxx and expires : xx/xx/xxxx Some other irrelevant text After selecting this 'preformatted text', the user would then use overtype to replace the x's with actual values, without disturbing the alignment of the rest of the text. (To be clear, they can still edit any part of the 'preformatted text' if they so wished. It's just that usually, they just wish to replace specific portions of the text. Keeping the alignment is important since these sections of text can end up on printed documents.) Of course, the same effect can be achieved by just selecting the x's to replace first, but it would be helpful (with respect to easing the transition to the web app) to allow old methods of doing things to continue to work, while still allowing 'web methods' to be used by the more tech-savvy users. Essentially, we're trying to make the initial transition from the green-screen app to the web app be as seemless as possible to minimise the resistance from the long-time green-screeners.

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  • Rendering HTML in Java

    - by ferronrsmith
    I am trying to create a help panel for an application I am working on. The help file as already been created using html technology and I would like it to be rendered in a pane and shown. All the code I have seen shows how to render a site e.g. "http://google.com". I want to render a file from my pc e.g. "file://c:\tutorial.html" This is the code i have, but it doesn't seem to be working. import javax.swing.JEditorPane; import javax.swing.JFrame; import javax.swing.JLabel; import javax.swing.JScrollPane; import javax.swing.SwingUtilities; import java.awt.Color; import java.awt.Container; import java.io.IOException; import static java.lang.System.err; import static java.lang.System.out; final class TestHTMLRendering { // ------------------------------ CONSTANTS ------------------------------ /** * height of frame in pixels */ private static final int height = 1000; /** * width of frame in pixels */ private static final int width = 1000; private static final String RELEASE_DATE = "2007-10-04"; /** * title for frame */ private static final String TITLE_STRING = "HTML Rendering"; /** * URL of page we want to display */ private static final String URL = "file://C:\\print.html"; /** * program version */ private static final String VERSION_STRING = "1.0"; // --------------------------- main() method --------------------------- /** * Debugging harness for a JFrame * * @param args command line arguments are ignored. */ @SuppressWarnings( { "UnusedParameters" } ) public static void main( String args[] ) { // Invoke the run method on the Swing event dispatch thread // Sun now recommends you call ALL your GUI methods on the Swing // event thread, even the initial setup. // Could also use invokeAndWait and catch exceptions SwingUtilities.invokeLater( new Runnable() { /** * } fire up a JFrame on the Swing thread */ public void run() { out.println( "Starting" ); final JFrame jframe = new JFrame( TITLE_STRING + " " + VERSION_STRING ); Container contentPane = jframe.getContentPane(); jframe.setSize( width, height ); contentPane.setBackground( Color.YELLOW ); contentPane.setForeground( Color.BLUE ); jframe.setDefaultCloseOperation( JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE ); try { out.println( "acquiring URL" ); JEditorPane jep = new JEditorPane( URL ); out.println( "URL acquired" ); JScrollPane jsp = new JScrollPane( jep, JScrollPane.VERTICAL_SCROLLBAR_AS_NEEDED, JScrollPane.HORIZONTAL_SCROLLBAR_AS_NEEDED ); contentPane.add( jsp ); } catch ( IOException e ) { err.println( "can't find URL" ); contentPane.add( new JLabel( "can't find URL" ) ); } jframe.validate(); jframe.setVisible( true ); // Shows page, with HTML comments erroneously displayed. // The links are not clickable. } } ); }// end main }// end TestHTMLRendering

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  • VB6 app not executing as scheduled task unless user is logged on

    - by Tedd Hansen
    Hi Would greatly apprechiate some help on this one! It may be a tricky one. :) Problem I have an VB6 application which is set up as scheduled task. It starts every time, but when executing CreateObject it fails if user is not logged on to computer. I am looking for information on what could cause this. Primary suspicion is that some Windows API fails. Key points Behaviour confirmed on Windows 2000, 2003, 2008 and Vista. The application executes as user X at scheduled time, executed by Windows Task Scheduler. It executes every time. Application does start! -- If user X is logged on via RDP it runs perfectly. (Note that user doesn't need to be connected, only logged on) -- If user X is not logged on to computer the application fails. Failure point Application fails when using CreateObject() to instansiate a DCOM object which is also part of the application. The DCOM objects declare .dll-references at startup (globally/on top of .bas-file) and run a small startup function. Failure must be during startup, possibly in one of the .dll-declarations. Thoughts After some Googling my initial suspicion was directed at MAPI. From what I could see MAPI required user to be logged on. The application has MAPI references. But even with all MAPI references removed it still does not work. What is the difference if an user is logged on? Registry mapping? Environment? explorer.exe is running. Isn't the user logged on when application executes as the user? What info would help? A definitive answer would be truly great. Any information regarding any VB6 feature/Windows API that could act differently depending on wether user is logged on or not would definitively help. Similar experiences may lead me in the right direction. Tips on debuggin this. Thanks! :)

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  • Offline backup synchronization

    - by Pavan Kumar
    There is a Central Server running Windows Server 2003 and SQL Server 2005 and there are 7 client machines situated in various places and has XP Pro & SQL Server 2005 installed in all of them. They are not interconnected so they are physically seperate. One person goes to each of these centers maybe twice a month and takes the backup (Full database consisting of mdf and ldf files) with a pen drive and brings it to the Central server which contains the central database holding same schema as all the other client databases. I need to synchronize each backup database (belonging to different centers) one by one to update the existing data or inserting new data in the central database . The solution i got was Replication. The pendrive is brought to central server consisting of 7 instances of the databases and then the databases is attached to the central server one by one to the same SQL Server where the central database exists. Then my idea was to replicate the backup database one by one i.e using single subscription (Central Database) and multiple publication ( i.e 7 instances of databases in my case) toplogy by performing replication locally (i.e in the same machine). So i tried to develop a UI in C# .Net to programatically run the Transactional Replication with push subscription using RMO Programming (which is incomplete as of now because there is no point in developing when you already know it is not the solution). Transactional Replication can either be set to initialize with a snapshot or without a snapshot. If i go for the first option i.e with a snapshot , the data whatever is present in Central Database is overwritten by the new data . So the data present initially in the central database is lost. If i try to initialize without snapshot , no data (the data already has the updated and new data) will be sent from the backup database to server. The replication will work in a scenario where any incremental changes is done only after you set the replication . So the initial data whatever was present in the backup database when setting up the replication will not be replicated when running the snapshot agent for the first time to synchronize. Only changes in the backup database thereafter will be reflected to the central database .(Remember I am not going to insert new data or make any changes to the backup database after i attach it to the Central Server. ) So this solution is not feasible. I want a solution for synchronizing from one client database to central database present in the same machine using C#.NET. If you can provide me small example maybe with two databases(with same schema) DB1(Client) to DB2(Server) consisting of one or two tables it will be very helpful. The synchronization is not bidirectional.I want to only update existing data or insert new data from DB1 to DB2 (DB2 may contain some data initially). Thanks and Regards Pavan

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  • How to use AVCaptureSession to stream live preview video, then take a photo, then return to streaming

    - by Matthew
    I have an application that creates its own live preview prior to taking a still photo. The app needs to run some processing on the image data and thus is not able to rely on AVCaptureVideoPreviewLayer. Getting the initial stream to work is going quite well, using Apple's example code. The problem comes when I try to switch to the higher quality image to take the snapshot. In response to a button press I attempt to reconfigure the session for taking a full resolution photo. I've tried many variations but here is my latest example (which still does not work): - (void)sessionSetupForPhoto { [session beginConfiguration]; session.sessionPreset = AVCaptureSessionPresetPhoto; AVCaptureStillImageOutput *output = [[[AVCaptureStillImageOutput alloc] init] autorelease]; for (AVCaptureOutput *output in [session outputs]) { [session removeOutput:output]; } if ([session canAddOutput:output]){ [session addOutput:output]; } else { NSLog(@"Not able to add an AVCaptureStillImageOutput"); } [session commitConfiguration]; } I am consistently getting an error message just after the commitConfiguration line that looks like this: (that is to say, I am getting an AVCaptureSessionRuntimeErrorNotification sent to my registered observer) Received an error: NSConcreteNotification 0x19d870 {name = AVCaptureSessionRuntimeErrorNotification; object = ; userInfo = { AVCaptureSessionErrorKey = "Error Domain=AVFoundationErrorDomain Code=-11800 \"The operation couldn\U2019t be completed. (AVFoundationErrorDomain error -11800.)\" UserInfo=0x19d810 {}"; The documentation in XCode ostensibly provides more information for the error number (-11800), "AVErrorUnknown - Reason for the error is unknown."; Previously I had also tried calls to stopRunning and startRunning, but no longer do that after watching WWDC Session 409, where it is discouraged. When I was stopping and starting, I was getting a different error message -11819, which corresponds to "AVErrorMediaServicesWereReset - The operation could not be completed because media services became unavailable.", which is much nicer than simply "unknown", but not necessarily any more helpful. It successfully adds the AVCaptureStillImageOutput (i.e., does NOT emit the log message). I am testing on an iPhone 3g (w/4.1) and iPhone 4. This call is happening in the main thread, which is also where my original AVCaptureSession setup took place. How can I avoid the error? How can I switch to the higher resolution to take the photo? Thank you!

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  • velocity vector

    - by wanderer
    Hi, I am trying to simulate a collision. The collision is shown here http://www.freeimagehosting.net/image.php?c5ae01b476.jpg A particle falls down on a sphere and a collision between sphere and particle takes place. The sphere always remain stationary and the collision itself is not elastic. So if the particle falls directly n top of sphere, the velocity of particle will become zero. I was trying to set the velocity of particle to be zero after the collision. But that does not give good simulation when the collision does not occur on top of sphere but along the side of sphere. So now after the collision i need to make sure that the particle has a velocity which is orthogonal to the vector of the point of collision from the center of sphere. The velocity along the vector from center of sphere to point of collision should become zero. How do i do that? I am a bit mathematically challenged but i think it has something to do with dot product of vectors. Or maybe i am wrong :) I have the initial velocity vector and 'radiusvector' say :- 1)velocity <-1.03054, -1.56563, 1.33341e-016 2) radius vector <2.04406, 2.19587, 1.0514 Pseudo code for the problem is: foreach( particle particle in particlesCollections) { //sphere.x, sphere.y sphere.z give the center of the sphere dist = particle.pos-vector(sphere.x,sphere.y,sphere.z); //detect if a collision has taken place. if (dist.mag < sphere.radius) { rVector=dist/dist.mag*sphere.radius; particle.pos=vector(sphere.x,sphere.y,sphere.z) + rVector; //particle.Velocity gives the velocity vector of the particle at the time of collision //i need to modify particle.Velocity so that the component of velocity that runs along // with the rvector becomes zero as i have a non elsatic collision. The remaining //velocity that the particle will have is the one which runs along with tangent to the //rVector. The sphere remains stationary. //example values: particle.Velocity == <-1.03054, -1.56563, .006> //and rVector = <2.04406, 2.19587, 1.0514> } } Thanks

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  • Connecting to embedded FireBird database from C# app issue

    - by be here now
    Hi, guys. I seem to have an issue with connecting to an embedded FireBird database from a sample C# app. Here's what I've got. static void Main(string[] args) { //Some constant parameters used to form up the connection string... #region constant literals const String User = "SYSDBA"; const String Password = "masterkey"; const String DBPath = "D:\\!tmp\\1\\cafw.fdb"; const String DLLPath = @"fbembed.dll"; const String Charset = "WIN1251"; const int Dialect = 3; #endregion //I check whether we actually have a database file nearby //and fbembed.dll. If we don't - we leave if (File.Exists(DBPath) == true && File.Exists(DLLPath) == true) { //I form up a connection string out of literals I've declared above FbConnectionStringBuilder CStr = new FbConnectionStringBuilder(); CStr.ServerType = FbServerType.Embedded; CStr.UserID = User; CStr.Password = Password; CStr.Dialect = Dialect; CStr.Database = DBPath; CStr.Charset = Charset; CStr.ClientLibrary = DLLPath; //And then I finally try to connect FbConnection Conn = new FbConnection(CStr.ToString()); try { //See what we've got in the end Console.WriteLine(CStr.ToString()); //And try to connect Conn.Open(); } catch (Exception Ex) { //Show me what has gone wrong Console.WriteLine("\n" + Ex.Message.ToString()); Console.ReadKey(); } finally { Conn.Close(); } } } The problem is, it yields me a server type=Embedded;user id=SYSDBA;password=masterkey;dialect=3;initial catalog=D:!tmp\1 \cafw.fdb;character set=WIN1251;client library=fbembed.dll No message for error code 335544972 found. Invalid ESCAPE sequence as an output. I've googled around to find out about 335544972 error code, and it seems to be something about invalid connection string, but I haven't found any "official" info about that. Hase anybody encountered anything similar so one could tell me what am I doing wrong? Thanks.

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  • Help with OpenSSL request using Python

    - by Ldn
    Hi i'm creating a program that has to make a request and then obtain some info. For doing that the website had done some API that i will use. There is an how-to about these API but every example is made using PHP. But my app is done using Python so i need to convert the code. here is the how-to: The request string is sealed with OpenSSL. The steps for sealing are as follows: • Random 128-bit key is created. • Random key is used to RSA-RC4 symettrically encrypt the request string. • Random key is encrypted with the public key using OpenSSL RSA asymmetrical encryption. • The encrypted request and encrypted key are each base64 encoded and placed in the appropriate fields. In PHP a full request to our API can be accomplished like so: <?php // initial request. $request = array('object' => 'Link', 'action' => 'get', 'args' => array( 'app_id' => 303612602 ) ); // encode the request in JSON $request = json_encode($request); // when you receive your profile, you will be given a public key to seal your request in. $key_pem = "-----BEGIN PUBLIC KEY----- MFwwDQYJKoZIhvcNAQEBBQADSwAwSAJBALdu5C6d2sA1Lu71NNGBEbLD6DjwhFQO VLdFAJf2rOH63rG/L78lrQjwMLZOeHEHqjaiUwCr8NVTcVrebu6ylIECAwEAAQ== -----END PUBLIC KEY-----"; // load the public key $pkey = openssl_pkey_get_public($key_pem); // seal! $newrequest and $enc_keys are passed by reference. openssl_seal($request, $enc_request, $enc_keys, array($pkey)); // then wrap the request $wrapper = array( 'profile' => 'ProfileName', 'format' => 'RSA_RC4_Sealed', 'enc_key' => base64_encode($enc_keys[0]), 'request' => base64_encode($enc_request) ); // json encode the wrapper. urlencode it as well. $wrapper = urlencode(json_encode($wrapper)); // we can send the request wrapper via the cURL extension $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, 'http://api.site.com/'); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, "request=$wrapper"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); $data = curl_exec($ch); curl_close($ch); ?> Of all of that, i was able to convert "$request" and i'v also made the JSON encode. This is my code: import urllib import urllib2 import json url = 'http://api.site.com/' array = {'app_id' : "303612602"} values = { "object" : "Link", "action": "get", "args" : array } data = urllib.urlencode(values) json_data = json.dumps(data) What stop me is the sealing with OpenSSL and the publi key (that obviously i have) Using PHP OpenSSL it's so easy, but in Python i don't really know how to use it Please, help me!

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  • Activate a (COM Interop based) ActiveX contol using registration free com

    - by embnut
    I have a (COM Interop based) ActiveX contol that I am trying to use with registration free com. When the control loads the control is inactive (does not responds to events, control not fully rendered etc). After much search I discovered that COM objects using reg-free-com use the miscStatus attribute to set the initial state to get correctly activated. I know how to use it with a comClass which corresponds to a native COM Object. 1) What is the equivalent of the following for clrClass element which corresponds to a COM-interop object? <comClass clsid="{qqqqqqqq-wwww-eeee-rrrr-00C0F0283628}" tlbid="{xxxxxxxx-yyyy-zzzz-aaaa-0000F8754DA1}" threadingModel="Both" progid="SomeCompany.SomeOleControl" description="Some ActiveX Control" miscStatus="recomposeonresize,insideout,activatewhenvisible,nouiactivate" > 2) The COM client I am using is Visual FoxPro. If the (1) is not possible what can I do in VFP to activate the inactive ActiveX control. (I dont mind VB or C# input too if I can use it to find the equivalent foxpro) Currently I tried the following this.AddObject('OleControl1', 'oleControl', 'SomeCompany.SomeOleControl') this.OleControl1.AutoActivate = 3 this.OleControl1.Visible = .T. this.OleControl1.SetFocus But I the OleControl1 gets focus before passing events like mouse click to its subelements. So I have to click twice on it to do the necessary action, any time it does not have focus. I would like the control to act as if the "nouiactivate" of the miscStatus value is set. 3) Is there any other way of accomplishing what I want to do? Hans Passant, here is the listing of current Assembly.dll.manifest. The formatting in the comment made it unreadable. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <assembly xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1" manifestVersion="1.0"> <assemblyIdentity name="Assembly" version="1.0.0.0" type="win32" publicKeyToken="wwwwwwwwwwwwwwww"/> <clrClass name="SomeCompany.SomeOleControl" clsid="{qqqqqqqq-wwww-eeee-rrrr-00C0F0283628}" progid="SomeCompany.SomeOleControl" threadingModel="Both"/> <file name="Assembly.tlb"> <typelib tlbid="{xxxxxxxx-yyyy-zzzz-aaaa-0000F8754DA1}" version="1.0" helpdir="" flags="hasdiskimage"/> </file> </assembly>

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  • Whats happening to my HTML?

    - by user156814
    I am making changes to my website, and I just noticed that things look different. In IE, the content doesnt center, theres a margin on my content, and the font looks bigger in chrome.. I ran it through Yahoo's HTML validator and the error I get is line 1 - Error: character "" not allowed in prolog. I believe that there may be some sort of whitespace being sent before the DOC TYPE, but I cant seem to fix it. The HTML looks fine in my text editor (Notepad++) so I dont know what the problem is. Im using a strict DOC Type. Everything was fine before I made any changes, but I cant pinpoint what caused the change. If it helps, I'm using a Framework (Kohana). My initial thought was that something was being sent to the browser by an echo or something, but I couldnt find any echo statements. I dont know what could be causing this... If you want to see any code or HTML just ask. Thanks. Heres the HTML (only head and doctype) via the page source in Google Chrome There seems to be some foreign characters in the source that I've never seen before, yet dont show up anywhere else (yahoo, or otherwise) <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <title>Recent Debates - Clashing Thoughts</title> <meta http-equiv="Content-type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <meta http-equiv="Content-Language" content="en-us" /> <meta name="description" content="Clashing Thoughts is a great place to argue! Search topics you feel passionate about, pick where you stand on the issue and get your point across. The votes are tallied up for every debate so you can even see which side is most popular." /> <meta name="keywords" content="debates, arguments, topics, popular topics, popular debates, surveys, choices" /> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="http://localhost/css/master.css" media="screen" /> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="http://localhost/css/clashingthoughts.css" media="screen" /> <link rel="icon" type="image/x-icon" href="http://localhost/images/favicon.ico" /> <link rel="shortcut icon" type="image/x-icon" href="http://localhost/images/favicon.ico" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> </head>

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  • A simple Python deployment problem - a whole world of pain

    - by Evgeny
    We have several Python 2.6 applications running on Linux. Some of them are Pylons web applications, others are simply long-running processes that we run from the command line using nohup. We're also using virtualenv, both in development and in production. What is the best way to deploy these applications to a production server? In development we simply get the source tree into any directory, set up a virtualenv and run - easy enough. We could do the same in production and perhaps that really is the most practical solution, but it just feels a bit wrong to run svn update in production. We've also tried fab, but it just never works first time. For every application something else goes wrong. It strikes me that the whole process is just too hard, given that what we're trying to achieve is fundamentally very simple. Here's what we want from a deployment process. We should be able to run one simple command to deploy an updated version of an application. (If the initial deployment involves a bit of extra complexity that's fine.) When we run this command it should copy certain files, either out of a Subversion repository or out of a local working copy, to a specified "environment" on the server, which probably means a different virtualenv. We have both staging and production version of the applications on the same server, so they need to somehow be kept separate. If it installs into site-packages, that's fine too, as long as it works. We have some configuration files on the server that should be preserved (ie. not overwritten or deleted by the deployment process). Some of these applications import modules from other applications, so they need to be able to reference each other as packages somehow. This is the part we've had the most trouble with! I don't care whether it works via relative imports, site-packages or whatever, as long as it works reliably in both development and production. Ideally the deployment process should automatically install external packages that our applications depend on (eg. psycopg2). That's really it! How hard can it be?

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  • Am I Leaking ADO.NET Connections?

    - by HardCode
    Here is an example of my code in a DAL. All calls to the database's Stored Procedures are structured this way, and there is no in-line SQL. Friend Shared Function Save(ByVal s As MyClass) As Boolean Dim cn As SqlClient.SqlConnection = Dal.Connections.MyAppConnection Dim cmd As New SqlClient.SqlCommand Try cmd.Connection = cn cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure cmd.CommandText = "proc_save_my_class" cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@param1", s.Foo) cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@param2", s.Bar) Return True Finally Dal.Utility.CleanupAdoObjects(cmd, cn) End Try End Function Here is the Connection factory (if I am using the correct term): Friend Shared Function MyAppConnection() As SqlClient.SqlConnection Dim cn As New SqlClient.SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("MyConnectionString").ToString) cn.Open() If cn.State <> ConnectionState.Open Then ' CriticalException is a custom object inheriting from Exception. Throw New CriticalException("Could not connect to the database.") Else Return cn End If End Function Here is the Dal.Utility.CleaupAdoObjects() function: Friend Shared Sub CleanupAdoObjects(ByVal cmd As SqlCommand, ByVal cn As SqlConnection) If cmd IsNot Nothing Then cmd.Dispose() If cn IsNot Nothing AndAlso cn.State <> ConnectionState.Closed Then cn.Close() End Sub I am getting a lot of "Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding." error messages reported by the users. The application's DAL opens a connection, reads or saves data, and closes it. No connections are ever left open - intentionally! There is nothing obvious on the Windows 2000 Server hosting the SQL Server 2000 that would indicate a problem. Nothing in the Event Logs and nothing in the SQL Server logs. The timeouts happen randomly - I cannot reproduce. It happens early in the day with only 1 to 5 users in the system. It also happens with around 50 users in the system. The most connections to SQL Server via Performance Monitor, for all databases, has been about 74. The timeouts happen in code that both saves to, and reads from, the database in different parts of the application. The stack trace does not point to one or two offending DAL functions. It's happened in many different places. Does my ADO.NET code appear to be able to leak connections? I've goolged around a bit, and I've read that if the connection pool fills up, this can happen. However, I'm not explicitly setting any connection pooling. I've even tried to increase the Connection Timeout in the connection string, but timeouts happen long before the 300 second (5 minute) value: <add name="MyConnectionString" connectionString="Data Source=MyServer;Initial Catalog=MyDatabase;Integrated Security=SSPI;Connection Timeout=300;"/> I'm at a total loss already as to what is causing these Timeout issues. Any ideas are appreciated.

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  • Historical / auditable database

    - by Mark
    Hi all, This question is related to the schema that can be found in one of my other questions here. Basically in my database I store users, locations, sensors amongst other things. All of these things are editable in the system by users, and deletable. However - when an item is edited or deleted I need to store the old data; I need to be able to see what the data was before the change. There are also non-editable items in the database, such as "readings". They are more of a log really. Readings are logged against sensors, because its the reading for a particular sensor. If I generate a report of readings, I need to be able to see what the attributes for a location or sensor was at the time of the reading. Basically I should be able to reconstruct the data for any point in time. Now, I've done this before and got it working well by adding the following columns to each editable table: valid_from valid_to edited_by If valid_to = 9999-12-31 23:59:59 then that's the current record. If valid_to equals valid_from, then the record is deleted. However, I was never happy with the triggers I needed to use to enforce foreign key consistency. I can possibly avoid triggers by using the extension to the "PostgreSQL" database. This provides a column type called "period" which allows you to store a period of time between two dates, and then allows you to do CHECK constraints to prevent overlapping periods. That might be an answer. I am wondering though if there is another way. I've seen people mention using special historical tables, but I don't really like the thought of maintainling 2 tables for almost every 1 table (though it still might be a possibility). Maybe I could cut down my initial implementation to not bother checking the consistency of records that aren't "current" - i.e. only bother to check constraints on records where the valid_to is 9999-12-31 23:59:59. Afterall, the people who use historical tables do not seem to have constraint checks on those tables (for the same reason, you'd need triggers). Does anyone have any thoughts about this? PS - the title also mentions auditable database. In the previous system I mentioned, there is always the edited_by field. This allowed all changes to be tracked so we could always see who changed a record. Not sure how much difference that might make. Thanks.

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  • .net ViewState in page lifecycle

    - by caltrop
    I have a page containing a control called PhoneInfo.ascx. PhoneInfo is dynamically created using LoadControl() and then the initControl() function is called passing in an initialization object to set some initial textbox values within PhoneInfo. The user then changes these values and hits a submit button on the page which is wired up to the "submit_click" event. This event invokes the GetPhone() function within PhoneInfo. The returned value has all of the new user entered values except that the phoneId value (stored in ViewState and NOT edited by the user) always comes back as null. I believe that the viewstate is responsible for keeping track of user entered data across a postback, so I can't understand how the user values are coming back but not the explicitly set ViewState["PhoneId"] value! If I set the ViewState["PhoneId"] value in PhoneInfo's page_load event, it retrieves it correctly after the postback, but this isn't an option because I can only initialize that value when the page is ready to provide it. I'm sure I am just messing up the page lifecycle somehow, any suggestion or questions would really help! I have included a much simplified version of the actual code below. Containing page's codebehind protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Phone phone = controlToBind as Phone; PhoneInfo phoneInfo = (PhoneInfo)LoadControl("phoneInfo.ascx"); //Create phoneInfo control phoneInfo.InitControl(phone); //use controlToBind to initialize the new control Controls.Add(phoneInfo); } protected void submit_click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Phone phone = phoneInfo.GetPhone(); } PhoneInfo.ascx codebehind protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } public void InitControl(Phone phone) { if (phone != null) { ViewState["PhoneId"] = phone.Id; txt_areaCode.Text = SafeConvert.ToString(phone.AreaCode); txt_number.Text = SafeConvert.ToString(phone.Number); ddl_type.SelectedValue = SafeConvert.ToString((int)phone.Type); } } public Phone GetPhone() { Phone phone = new Phone(); if ((int)ViewState["PhoneId"] >= 0) phone.Id = (int)ViewState["PhoneId"]; phone.AreaCode = SafeConvert.ToInt(txt_areaCode.Text); phone.Number = SafeConvert.ToInt(txt_number.Text); phone.Type = (PhoneType)Enum.ToObject(typeof(PhoneType), SafeConvert.ToInt(ddl_type.SelectedValue)); return phone; } }

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  • Using a type parameter and a pointer to the same type parameter in a function template

    - by Darel
    Hello, I've written a template function to determine the median of any vector or array of any type that can be sorted with sort. The function and a small test program are below: #include <algorithm> #include <vector> #include <iostream> using namespace::std; template <class T, class X> void median(T vec, size_t size, X& ret) { sort(vec, vec + size); size_t mid = size/2; ret = size % 2 == 0 ? (vec[mid] + vec[mid-1]) / 2 : vec[mid]; } int main() { vector<double> v; v.push_back(2); v.push_back(8); v.push_back(7); v.push_back(4); v.push_back(9); double a[5] = {2, 8, 7, 4, 9}; double r; median(v.begin(), v.size(), r); cout << r << endl; median(a, 5, r); cout << r << endl; return 0; } As you can see, the median function takes a pointer as an argument, T vec. Also in the argument list is a reference variable X ret, which is modified by the function to store the computed median value. However I don't find this a very elegant solution. T vec will always be a pointer to the same type as X ret. My initial attempts to write median had a header like this: template<class T> T median(T *vec, size_t size) { sort(vec, vec + size); size_t mid = size/2; return size % 2 == 0 ? (vec[mid] + vec[mid-1]) / 2 : vec[mid]; } I also tried: template<class T, class X> X median(T vec, size_t size) { sort(vec, vec + size); size_t mid = size/2; return size % 2 == 0 ? (vec[mid] + vec[mid-1]) / 2 : vec[mid]; } I couldn't get either of these to work. My question is, can anyone show me a working implementation of either of my alternatives? Thanks for looking!

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