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• jQuery: Getting value from input array

  - by betacar

  We have the following form: <form> ... <table width="100%" cellspacing="0" class="datagrid_ppal"> <tbody> <tr> <th scope="row">Area 1 <input name="config_line" type="hidden" value="0,5,50" /></th> <td class="gantt"> </td> <td class="gantt"> </td> <td class="gantt"> </td> ... </tr> </tbody> </table width="100%" cellspacing="0" class="datagrid_ppal"> ... <form> What we need is to get the first, second or third from the hidden input value. We have tried this and didn't work: var value = $('th').children('input:hidden').val(); Can anyone help us? We would really appreciate it.

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• Dropdownlist value not being set when there is a default blank option

  - by uriDium

  I am using ASP.Net MVC. I have a partial view which has a form with dropdownlists. The dropdownlists are set via ViewData. The partial view is used in a Create and Edit page. The create works fine. I get the dropdownlists and the blank option is a "Please select", like so <%= Html.DropDownList("ContactNrType", ViewData["ContactNrType"] as SelectList, "Please Select") %> But this doesn't seem to work for my edit. If I have that extra "Please select" parameter then it does not select the value for the drop down. I am setting the value of the drop down in the controller like so ViewData["ContactNrType"] = new SelectList(new List<string> { "Mobile", "Home", "Work", "Friend" }, candidate.ContactNrType); Any idea as to what I am doing wrong? I want to share the partial view which contains the form between the two pages. So I need the "Please Select" option for the Create. And I need the value set for the Edit (I don't mind that it has an option that still says "Please Select").

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• Add in integer to returned value with jQuery

  - by danferth

  I have a page with a div id="videoFrame" that holds the video tag. The videos have variable heights so I have a function to grab the height value and plug it into the css of the div id="videoFrame like so: var videoHeight = $('video').attr('height'); $('#videoFrame').css('height',videoHeight+'px'); This works great. But here's the part driving me crazy. I have a p tag with disclaimers at the bottom of the div id="videoFrame". So I would like to add an additional 26px to the returned height. I tried: var videoHeight = $('video').attr('height'); var frameHeight = videoHeight + 26; $('#videoFrame').css('height',frameHeight+'px'); But as you would expect it is adding 26 to the end of the returned value. i.e. if returned value is 337 output for var frameHeight is 33726. I can not for the life of me figure out how to do this. Thanks in advance for any help

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• Find XmlNode where attribute value is contained in string

  - by bflemi3

  I have an xml file... <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <items defaultNode="1"> <default contentPlaceholderName="pageContent" template="" genericContentItemName="" /> <item urlSearchPattern="connections-learning" contentPlaceholderName="pageContent" template="Connections Learning Content Page" genericContentItemName="" /> <item urlSearchPattern="online-high-school" contentPlaceholderName="pageContent" template="" genericContentItemName="" /> </items> I am trying to find the first node where the urlSearchPattern attribute is contained in the string urlSearchPattern. Where I'm having trouble is finding the nodes where the attribute is contained in the string value instead of the string value be contained in the attribute. Here's my attempt so far. This will find the firstOrDefault node where the string value is contained in the attribute (I need the opposite)... string urlSearchPattern = Request.QueryString["aspxerrorpath"]; MissingPageSettingsXmlDocument missingPageSettingsXmlDocument = new MissingPageSettingsXmlDocument(); XmlNode missingPageItem = missingPageSettingsXmlDocument.SelectNodes(ITEM_XML_PATH).Cast<XmlNode>().Where(item => item.Attributes["urlSearchPattern"].ToString().ToLower().Contains(urlSearchPattern)).FirstOrDefault();

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• HiddenField.Value is an empty string upon postback inside my custom control

  - by Matthew Cox

  I have a custom control that has a hidden field. Upon postback I want to obtain the value stored in it, but it's always an empty string. any thoughts? I am performing client-side manipulation of the hidden field values and have verified in firebug that the fields are correct before issue a post back Here is the setup: public class DualListPanel : SWebControl, INamingContainer { protected IList<DlpItem> UnassignedList { get; set; } protected IList<DlpItem> AssignedList { get; set; } private HiddenField assignedItemsField, unassignedItemsField; public DualListPanel() { CssClass = "DualListPanel"; EnableViewState = true; } #region ViewState protected override void LoadViewState(object savedState) { var state = savedState as object[]; UnassignedList = state[0] as List<DlpItem>; AssignedList = state[1] as List<DlpItem>; base.LoadViewState(state[2]); } protected override object SaveViewState() { object[] state = new object[3]; state[0] = UnassignedList; state[1] = AssignedList; state[2] = base.SaveViewState(); return state; } #endregion #region WebControl Overrides protected override void CreateChildControls() { assignedItemsField = new HiddenField(); assignedItemsField.ID = "HiddenAssignedItems"; assignedItemsField.EnableViewState = true; unassignedItemsField = new HiddenField(); unassignedItemsField.ID = "HiddenUnassignedItems"; unassignedItemsField.EnableViewState = true; Controls.Add(assignedItemsField); Controls.Add(unassignedItemsField); base.CreateChildControls(); } #endregion #region Item Lists Retrieval public string GetCommaDelimUnassignedItems() { return unassignedItemsField.Value; } public string GetCommaDelimAssignedItems() { return assignedItemsField.Value; } #endregion }

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• mutableCopyWithZone updating a property value.

  - by Jim

  I have a Class that I need to copy with the ability to make changes the value of a variable on both Classes. Simply put the classes need to remain clones of each other at all times. My understanding of the documentation is that I can do this using a shallow copy of the Class which has also been declared mutable. By shallow copying the pointer value for the variable will be cloned so that it is an exact match in both classes. So when I update the variable in the original the copy will be updated simultaneously. Is this right? As you can see below I have used mutableCopyWithZone in the class I want to copy. I have tried both NSCopyObject and allocWithZone methods to get this to work. Although I'm able to copy the class and it appears as intended, when updating the variable it is not changing value in the copied Class. - (id)mutableCopyWithZone:(NSZone *)zone { //ReviewViewer *copy = NSCopyObject(self, 0, zone); ReviewViewer *copy = [[[self class] allocWithZone:zone] init]; copy->infoTextViews = [infoTextViews copy]; return copy; } infoTextViews is a property declared as nonatomic, retain in the header file of the class being copied. I have also implemented the NSMutableCopying protocol accordingly. Any help would be great.

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• Jquery- Get the value of first td in table

  - by Jerry

  Hello. I am trying to get the value of first td in each tr when a users clicks "click". The result below will output aa ,ee or ii. I was thinking about using clesest('tr')..but it always output "Object object". Not sure what to do on this one. Thanks. My html is <table> <tr> <td>aa</td> <td>bb</td> <td>cc</td> <td>dd</td> <td><a href="#" class="hit">click</a></td> </tr> <tr> <td>ee</td> <td>ff</td> <td>gg</td> <td>hh</td> <td><a href="#" class="hit">click</a></td> </tr> <tr> <td>ii</td> <td>jj</td> <td>kk</td> <td>ll</td> <td><a href="#" class="hit">click</a></td> </tr> </table> Jquery $(".hit").click(function(){ var value=$(this).// not sure what to do here alert(value) ; });

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• Data Structure / Hash Function to link Sets of Ints to Value

  - by Gaminic

  Given n integer id's, I wish to link all possible sets of up to k id's to a constant value. What I'm looking for is a way to translate sets (e.g. {1, 5}, {1, 3, 5} and {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}) to unique values. Guarantees: n < 100 and k < 10 (again: set sizes will range in [1, k]). The order of id's doesn't matter: {1, 5} == {5, 1}. All combinations are possible, but some may be excluded. All sets and values are constant and made only once. No deletes or inserts, no value updates. Once generated, the only operations taking place will be look-ups. Look-ups will be frequent and one-directional (given set, look up value). There is no need to sort (or otherwise organize) the values. Additionally, it would be nice (but not obligatory) if "neighboring" sets (drop one id, add one id, swap one id, etc) are easy to reach, as well as "all sets that include at least this set". Any ideas?

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• Include Multiple Labels and change the value of the same in Iphone, Objective C

  - by user576569

  I m trying to insert label in each row of the cell. Displaying integer. and I m trying to increase the quantity if user click on button add or minus I able to insert button in UITableView Cell as well the function to change the value. But when I click on add button it changes value only for the last row and not on the specific row. //MY code to insert label in each cell txtQty = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(233,7,20,20)]; txtQty.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",[nos objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]]; txtQty.tag = count; txtQty.textColor =[UIColor whiteColor]; txtQty.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; [cell.contentView addSubview:txtQty]; //Button Creation UIButton *button2 = [[UIButton alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(180,5,30,30)]; [button2 addTarget:self action:@selector(subAddSubQty:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [button2 setTag:count]; [cell.contentView addSubview:button2]; now what happening is suppose there are 3 rows in table and I click on the 1st row add button the value gets change in the last label i.e at 3rd row and not of the 1st row How to solve these?? please help Thank You

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• jQuery: change a css value if a option is selected

  - by Ivan Castellanos

  I'm trying to make an option dropdown menu and I got stuck when I try to show a textbox if the option 'other' is selected. there's what I have: <span id="con-country"><label for="country">Country: </label> <select name="country" required="required"> <option value="usa">United States</option> <option value="uk">United Kingdom</option> <option id="other" value="other">Other</option> </select> </span> <span id="con-specify"> <label for="specify">Specify: </label> <input type="text" name="specify" id="c-specify" required="required"></input> </span> CSS: #con-specify{ margin-left: 50px; display: none; } Simple huh?, the problem is that I don't know how to do the code in jQuery So, if the user select other in the menu, then the textbox should appear, how can I do that?

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• Query table value aliasing in Oracle SQL

  - by Strata

  I have a homework assignment in SQL for Oracle 10g where I have to apply union to two different select statements, to return two columns. I need the values of each cell under vendor_state to indicate CA and every other value in another state to return "Outside CA", to indicate they're elsewhere. I applied the union and produced the two columns and the listings for CA, but many other state IDs were listed and I couldn't find an explanation for how to change the actual values in the query itself. Eventually, I stumbled on an answer, but I can't explain why this works. The code is as follows: SELECT vendor_name, vendor_state FROM vendors WHERE vendor_state IN 'CA' UNION SELECT vendor_name, 'Outside CA' AS vendor_state FROM vendors WHERE vendor_state NOT IN 'CA' ORDER BY vendor_name This gives me the exact answer I need, but I don't know why the aliasing in the second select statement can behave this way....no explanation is given in my textbook and nothing I've read indicates that column aliasing can be done like this. But, by switching the column name and the alias value, I have replaced the value being returned rather than the column name itself...I'm not complaining about the result, but it would help if I knew how I did it.

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• way to change value of h2 on div hover

  - by user3624298

  So basically making some concept logic for a project I am working on. Basically it's a portfolio and each box will be a picture and I want to be able to change the value of a h2 to some type of description. Right now it's just a black box so 'square1, square2, square3...etc' will work for now. I looked up some stuff on jquery and found this link from an SO answer. Basically what I need but he is only shifting through one piece of information instead of many in my case. Wondering how I can achieve that via jquery. I imagine I would need to make an array with all the descriptions I need, and (this is where I am lost) somehow attach the value of array to the square and then from there change text of h2 to the array value. Thanks for any help in advance here's what I have so far (not much just did some foundation work). Not sure if this matters but if there is no hover I want the h2 to say nothing. HTML (makes me post code if I have jsfiddle) <div class="squares"> <div class="square1"></div> <div class="square2"></div> <div class="square3"></div> <div class="square4"></div> <div class="square5"></div> <h2 class="squareIdent"> </h2> </div>

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• How can I decrypt encrypted files using a PEM private key?

  - by Phil Cole

  I have files which have either been encrypted with a public key and the Blowfish algorithm, or a public key and the AES-256 algorithm. I'm looking to put together a Perl script that would be able to use the private keys (which I do have) to decrypt the files. The public and private key files are all in PEM format, and while I can find ways of reading the PEM files, and ways of decrypting data with a key, I haven't yet found a way of going from PEM - key. Any suggestions?

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• How to check if String value is Boolean type in Java?

  - by Ragnar

  I did a little search on this but couldn't find anything useful. The point being that if String value is either "true" or "false" the return value should be true. In every other value it should be false. I tried these: String value = "false"; System.out.println("test1: " + Boolean.parseBoolean(value)); System.out.println("test2: " + Boolean.valueOf(value)); System.out.println("test3: " + Boolean.getBoolean(value)); All functions returned false :(

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• How to retrieve from two tables with same foreign key repeated more than once?

  - by Sarenya

  How to display the data of tables that are linked by a primary key and foreign key where the foreign key of the data repeats? For ex. I have two tables, ParentTable and Childtable. The primary key of ParentTable acts as the foreign key of ChildTable. There are more than one record with same ParentId in ChildTable. How to retrieve them and display in a single Grid or List or any type of view?

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• Windows 7 Activation: Can I use OEM key for retail version? [closed]

  - by Joudicek Jouda

  Possible Duplicate: Windows 7 and Vista Activation FAQ: How do language, version, 64-bit or 32-bit, and source affect ability to install and transfer Windows licenses? I have a Lenovo notebook with pre-installed Windows 7 Professional x64. I just did a clean reinstall with retail installation Win7 Professional x64 disk I got from MSDNAA programme I'm member. I wanted to install the OS as Lenovo OEM with the same key I had before, but when I tried to activate the newly installed Windows, it gave me 0xc004e003 error. So the question is, can I use my OEM key for Win7 installed as retail? If not, can I somehow change the installed OS to OEM? The other think is, the OEM key I have tried is just some key I found in my notes, because I don't have any Windows sticker on beneath my laptop as it used to be on all my previous ones. Can I somehow find out "what is the origin" of the supposed key I'm trying to use?

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• Cannot open simple script application on mac

  - by streetpc

  Mac OS X 10.6 I created a very simple app, which is only a wrapper of a shell script (so that I can select this script in application selectors, like startup apps). I try to launch it and yesterday it worked, but today I changed the executable script's content and name (with something that perfeclty works in a shell script launched in the Terminal) and it will only display a Finder-iconed dialog saying Cannot open the application because it is not supported on this kind of Mac. I restored the previous script (content/name) but I still get the error! Same when re-bundling the app from scratch, or completely changing the bundle identifier… If I try to open it in the Terminal using open My.app, I get The application cannot be opened because it has an incorrect executable format. But when I executes directly the Contents/MacOS/Script, it allways works (iwth both contents). Also, it is displayed with correct icon and meta-information in the Finder (so I guess the Info.plist is understood). The app's file tree is: Contents/ Info.plist MacOS/ Script (executable bit set, works when launched directly) PkgInfo Resources/ AppIcon.icns Here is the Info.plist content: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE plist PUBLIC "-//Apple//DTD PLIST 1.0//EN" "http://www.apple.com/DTDs/PropertyList-1.0.dtd"> <plist version="1.0"> <dict> <key>CFBundleExecutable</key> <string>Script</string> <key>CFBundleIconFile</key> <string>AppIcon</string> <key>CFBundleIdentifier</key> <string>asdf.ScriptApp</string> <key>CFBundleInfoDictionaryVersion</key> <string>6.0</string> <key>CFBundleName</key> <string>My script</string> <key>CFBundlePackageType</key> <string>APPL</string> <key>CFBundleShortVersionString</key> <string>1.0</string> <key>CFBundleSignature</key> <string>????</string> <key>CFBundleVersion</key> <string>1</string> <key>LSMinimumSystemVersion</key> <string>10.4</string> </dict> </plist> And the PkgInfo file only contains APPL????. I tested the Script with a simple echo "ok" and echo "ok" >/tmp/test (plus #!/bin/sh header). So my questions are: Is there some kind of validity caching for applications ? based on what ? how do I flush it ? Where does this message come from ? I tried to google it but all I get is a page talking about 32/64 bits Java…

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• How do you map a solo press of a modifier key to its own function or mapping on Windows?

  - by Conrad.Dean

  Today on hacker news there was a clever article on custom shortcut keys. The author talks about a technique for remapping a modifier key such as CTRL to ESC if CTRL were pressed without a modifier. This is useful in vim because of how often you need to press ESC. Another technique he describes is mapping the open parenthesis, ( to the left shift key, and ) to the right shift key. If another key is pressed when shift is held down, the shift key behaves normally. The author describes the software he uses on OSX, but is there a way to do this on Windows? I've heard of AutoHotKey but it seems to only fire macros when simple keys are pressed, rather than the conditional state switch that this would require.

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• Cannot open simplest mac application

  - by streetpc

  I created a very simple app, which is only a wrapper of a shell script (so that I can select this script in application selectors, like startup apps). I try to launch it and yesterday it worked, but today I changed the executable script's content and name (with something that perfeclty works in a shell script launched in the Terminal) and it will only display a Finder-iconed dialog saying Cannot open the application because it is not supported on this kind of Mac. I restored the previous script (content/name) but I still get the error! Same when re-bundling the app from scratch, or completely changing the bundle identifier… If I try to open it in the Terminal using open My.app, I get The application cannot be opened because it has an incorrect executable format. But when I executes directly the Contents/MacOS/Script, it allways works (iwth both contents). Also, it is displayed with correct icon and meta-information in the Finder (so I guess the Info.plist is understood). The app's file tree is: Contents/ Info.plist MacOS/ Script (executable bit set, works when launched directly) PkgInfo Resources/ AppIcon.icns Here is the Info.plist content: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE plist PUBLIC "-//Apple//DTD PLIST 1.0//EN" "http://www.apple.com/DTDs/PropertyList-1.0.dtd"> <plist version="1.0"> <dict> <key>CFBundleExecutable</key> <string>Script</string> <key>CFBundleIconFile</key> <string>AppIcon</string> <key>CFBundleIdentifier</key> <string>asdf.ScriptApp</string> <key>CFBundleInfoDictionaryVersion</key> <string>6.0</string> <key>CFBundleName</key> <string>My script</string> <key>CFBundlePackageType</key> <string>APPL</string> <key>CFBundleShortVersionString</key> <string>1.0</string> <key>CFBundleSignature</key> <string>????</string> <key>CFBundleVersion</key> <string>1</string> <key>LSMinimumSystemVersion</key> <string>10.4</string> </dict> </plist> And the PkgInfo file only contains APPL????. I tested the Script with a simple echo "ok" and echo "ok" >/tmp/test (plus #!/bin/sh header). So my questions are: * Is there some kind of validity caching for applications ? based on what ? how do I flush it ? * Where does this message come from ? I tried to google it but all I get is a page talking about 32/64 bits Java…

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• Cannot open simplest script mac application

  - by streetpc

  I created a very simple app, which is only a wrapper of a shell script (so that I can select this script in application selectors, like startup apps). I try to launch it and yesterday it worked, but today I changed the executable script's content and name (with something that perfeclty works in a shell script launched in the Terminal) and it will only display a Finder-iconed dialog saying Cannot open the application because it is not supported on this kind of Mac. I restored the previous script (content/name) but I still get the error! Same when re-bundling the app from scratch, or completely changing the bundle identifier… If I try to open it in the Terminal using open My.app, I get The application cannot be opened because it has an incorrect executable format. But when I executes directly the Contents/MacOS/Script, it allways works (iwth both contents). Also, it is displayed with correct icon and meta-information in the Finder (so I guess the Info.plist is understood). The app's file tree is: Contents/ Info.plist MacOS/ Script (executable bit set, works when launched directly) PkgInfo Resources/ AppIcon.icns Here is the Info.plist content: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE plist PUBLIC "-//Apple//DTD PLIST 1.0//EN" "http://www.apple.com/DTDs/PropertyList-1.0.dtd"> <plist version="1.0"> <dict> <key>CFBundleExecutable</key> <string>Script</string> <key>CFBundleIconFile</key> <string>AppIcon</string> <key>CFBundleIdentifier</key> <string>asdf.ScriptApp</string> <key>CFBundleInfoDictionaryVersion</key> <string>6.0</string> <key>CFBundleName</key> <string>My script</string> <key>CFBundlePackageType</key> <string>APPL</string> <key>CFBundleShortVersionString</key> <string>1.0</string> <key>CFBundleSignature</key> <string>????</string> <key>CFBundleVersion</key> <string>1</string> <key>LSMinimumSystemVersion</key> <string>10.4</string> </dict> </plist> And the PkgInfo file only contains APPL????. I tested the Script with a simple echo "ok" and echo "ok" >/tmp/test (plus #!/bin/sh header). So my questions are: Is there some kind of validity caching for applications ? based on what ? how do I flush it ? Where does this message come from ? I tried to google it but all I get is a page talking about 32/64 bits Java…

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• Can I re-attach SSH key forwarding through a disconnected Screen session?

  - by David Mackintosh

  I have a laptop on which I have pageant (the PuTTy SSH key agent) running. If I ssh to a system and launch screen, the ssh key forwarding works properly. However, if I disconnect from that screen session, log off, then later reconnect -- the key forwarding doesn't work any more. I am presuming that this is because when I reconnect the key forwarding is set up on different ports for the new ssh session than was the old one. Is there a way to teach an individual screen window to reconnect to the agent forwarding so that I can use my key to forward again?

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• How can one create a bootable linux usb key that works on Mac (Intel 64 bit CPU) hardware ?

  - by user3621

  Hi, I'm trying to create a bootable usb key with linux (debian) and that can be booted on Macintel hardware. I have read that MAC's EFI can only boot GPT GUID formatted disks. I'm desperately trying to find a good tutorial which explains how to create such a key. Here what I have done so far: create a GUID partition on te key using linux GNU parted create a HFS+ or ext3 partition on the key, with the boot flag on install a linux .iso with unetbootin While all steps were successfull and in some cases I could even boot on a PC, the step of booting on Macintel software failed (on a macbook). I need to precise that I holded the "alt" key while booting the mac and the only visible bootable disk was the hard disk. Thanks for any advice. PS: I have tried with rEFIt as well. In one case I had a "windows" icon but it then failed to boot with a message like "no system found"

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• Why does select SCOPE_IDENTITY() return a decimal instead of an integer?

  - by Earlz

  So I have a table with an identity column as the primary key, so it is an integer. So, why does SCOPE_IDENTITY() always return a decimal value instead of an int to my C# application? This is really annoying since decimal values will not implicitly convert to integers in C#, which means I now have to rewrite a bunch of stuff and have a lot of helper methods because I use SQL Server and Postgres, which Postgres does return an integer for the equivalent function.. Why does SCOPE_IDENTITY() not just return a plain integer? Are there people out there that commonly use decimal/non-identity values for primary keys?

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• Need strategy to phone home to a Pyton web app and check licensing information for a commercial Wind

  - by Cornish

  What's a good strategy for building licensing checking into a Windows desktop app using a Python web application? This is a very open ended question because I don't have the slightest clue how to start to build this feature. What I do have is a number of general concerns: I have developed a commercial Windows desktop application and I want to make money from it but I don't want to build the licensing into the app since it's inevitable that someone will create a keygen or a crack, circulate it online and then it's 'game over' for me. So my idea was to create a web application where people could purchase a license key that is generated by the web app and every time the desktop application is started up, it will 'phone home' to the web app to check whether the license is valid and whether it seems to be in use at multiple locations. I'm just not sure how to do this. Would appreciate any general technical strategies and/or pointers to libraries/modules that might be of use.

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• What one-time-password devices are compatible with mod_authn_otp?

  - by netvope

  mod_authn_otp is an Apache web server module for two-factor authentication using one-time passwords (OTP) generated via the HOTP/OATH algorithm defined in RFC 4226. The developer's has listed only one compatible device (the Authenex's A-Key 3600) on their website. If a device is fully compliant with the standard, and it allows you to recover the token ID, it should work. However, without testing, it's hard to tell whether a device is fully compliant. Have you ever tried other devices (software or hardware) with mod_authn_otp (or other open source server-side OTP program)? If yes, please share your experience :)

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