Search Results

Search found 4415 results on 177 pages for 'discussion forums'.

Page 145/177 | < Previous Page | 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152  | Next Page >

  • Modularizing web applications

    - by Matt
    Hey all, I was wondering how big companies tend to modularize components on their page. Facebook is a good example: There's a team working on Search that has its own CSS, javascript, html, etc.. There's a team working on the news feed that has its own CSS, javascript, html, etc... ... And the list goes on They cannot all be aware of what everyone is naming their div tags and whatnot, so what's the controller(?) doing to hook all these components in on the final page?? Note: This doesn't just apply to facebook - any company that has separate teams working on separate components has some logic that helps them out. EDIT: Thanks all for the responses, unfortunately I still haven't really found what I'm looking for - when you check out the source code (granted its minified), the divs have UIDs, my guess is that there is a compilation process that runs through and makes each of the components unique, renaming divs and css rules.. any ideas? EDIT 2: Thanks all for contributing your thoughts - the bounty went to the highest upvoted answer. The question was designed to be vague- I think it led to a really interesting discussion. As I improve my build process, I will contribute my own thoughts and experiences. Thanks all! Matt Mueller

    Read the article

  • jquery - array problem help pls.

    - by russp
    Sorry folks, I really need help with posting an array problem. I would imaging it's quite simple, but beyond me. I have this JQuery function (using sortables) $(function() { $("#col1, #col2, #col3, #col4").sortable({ connectWith: '.column', items: '.portlet:not(.ui-state-disabled)', stop : function () { serial_1 = $('#col1').sortable('serialize'); serial_2 = $('#col2').sortable('serialize'); serial_3 = $('#col3').sortable('serialize'); serial_4 = $('#col4').sortable('serialize'); } }); }); Now I can post it to a database like this, and I can loop this ajax through all 4 "serials" $.ajax({ url: "test.php", type: "post", data: serial_1, error: function(){ alert(testit); } }); But that is not what I want to do as it creates 4 rows in the DB table. I want/need to create a single "nested array" from the 4 serials so that it enters the DB as 1 (one) row. My "base" database data looks like this: a:4:{s:4:"col1";a:3:{i:1;s:6:"forums";i:2;s:4:"chat";i:3;s:5:"blogs";}s:4:"col2";a:2:{i:1;s:5:"pages";i:2;s:7:"members";}s:4:"col3";a:2:{i:1;s:9:"galleries";i:2;s:4:"shop";}s:4:"col4";a:1:{i:1;s:4:"news";}} Therefore the JQuery array should "replicate" and create it (obviously will change on sorting) Help please thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Jquery resizing image

    - by michele
    I'd like to start a discussion about the image resizing using jQuery. That's my contribution: But I think I'm far away from the solution. What about the cropping? Who can help me? $(document).ready(function() { $('.story-small img').each(function() { var maxWidth = 100; // Max width for the image var maxHeight = 100; // Max height for the image var ratio = 0; // Used for aspect ratio var width = $(this).width(); // Current image width var height = $(this).height(); // Current image height // Check if the current width is larger than the max if(width > maxWidth){ ratio = maxWidth / width; // get ratio for scaling image $(this).css("width", maxWidth); // Set new width $(this).css("height", height * ratio); // Scale height based on ratio height = height * ratio; // Reset height to match scaled image } // Check if current height is larger than max if(height > maxHeight){ ratio = maxHeight / height; // get ratio for scaling image $(this).css("height", maxHeight); // Set new height $(this).css("width", width * ratio); // Scale width based on ratio width = width * ratio; // Reset width to match scaled image } }); });

    Read the article

  • Is WordPress MVC compliant?

    - by kovshenin
    Some people consider WordPress a blogging platform, some think of it as a CMS, some refer to WordPress as a development framework. Whichever it is, the question still remains. Is WordPress MVC compliant? I've read the forums and somebody asked about MVC about three years ago. There were some positive answers, and some negative ones. While nobody knows exactly what MVC is and everybody thinks of it in their own way, there's still a general concept that's present in all the discussions. I have little experience with MVC frameworks and there doesn't seem to be anything about the framework itself. Most of the MVC is done by the programmer, am I right? Now, going back to WordPress, could we consider the core rewrite engine (WP_Rewrite) the controller? Queries & plugin logic as the model? And themes as the view? Or am I getting it all wrong? Thanks ;)

    Read the article

  • What would be different in Java if Enum declaration didn't have the recursive part

    - by atamur
    Please see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/211143/java-enum-definition and http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3061759/why-in-java-enum-is-declared-as-enume-extends-enume for general discussion. Here I would like to learn what exactly would be broken (not typesafe anymore, or requiring additional casts etc) if Enum class was defined as public class Enum<E extends Enum> I'm using this code for testing my ideas: interface MyComparable<T> { int myCompare(T o); } class MyEnum<E extends MyEnum> implements MyComparable<E> { public int myCompare(E o) { return -1; } } class FirstEnum extends MyEnum<FirstEnum> {} class SecondEnum extends MyEnum<SecondEnum> {} With it I wasn't able to find any benefits in this exact case. PS. the fact that I'm not allowed to do class ThirdEnum extends MyEnum<SecondEnum> {} when MyEnum is defined with recursion is a) not relevant, because with real enums you are not allowed to do that just because you can't extend enum yourself b) not true - pls try it in a compiler and see that it in fact is able to compile w/o any errors PPS. I'm more and more inclined to believe that the correct answer here would be "nothing would change if you remove the recursive part" - but I just can't believe that.

    Read the article

  • How do I make my program run with different privileges at Windows 7 startup?

    - by iira
    Hi, I am trying to add my program run in Windows 7 startup, but it doesn't work. My program has an embedded UAC manifest. My current way is by adding a string value at HKCU..\Run. I found a manual solution for Vista from http://social.technet.microsoft.com/Forums/en/w7itprosecurity/thread/81c3c1f2-0169-493a-8f87-d300ea708ecf Click Start, right click on Computer and choose “Manage”. Click “Task Scheduler” on the left panel. Click “Create Task” on the right panel. Type a name for the task. Check “Run with highest privileges”. Click Actions tab. Click “New…”. Browse to the program in the “Program/script” box. Click OK. On desktop, right click, choose New and click “Shortcut”. In the box type: schtasks.exe /run /tn TaskName where TaskName is the name of task you put in on the basics tab and click next. Type a name for the shortcut and click Finish. Additionally, you need to run the saved scheduled task shortcut to run the program instead of running the application shortcut to ignore the IAC prompt. When startup the system will run the program via the original shortcut. Therefore you need to change the location to run the saved task. Please: Open Regedit. Find the entry of the startup item in Registry. It will be stored in one of the following branches. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run HKEY_USERS.DEFAULT\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run Double-click on the correct key, change the path to the saved scheduled task you created. Is there any free code to add item with privileges option in scheduled task? I haven't found the free one in torry.net. Thanks a lot.

    Read the article

  • XBAP Browser Control - Invoking Click event of the html Input type button

    - by maharaj
    Hi, Here is what I have. 1.XBAP application with WPF Browser control, hosted on Page1.xaml 2.XBAP in Full Trust, certificate installed in client browser 3.Once the XBAP loaded, the browser control is navigated to some third party site. 4.We are using MVVM for XAML stuff So, when a certain page is loaded, I attach click event handler to the input button with id="submit" on the html page displayed in the browser control (used the code similar to whats in this URL http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/wpf/thread/a4f0e4d0-78bf-44c5-a3fe-8faf2e7a0568/). It works just fine as long as I dont make a wcf web service call in my ViewModel, before or after I attach this event hander. Idea is to invoke the click event for the html button and grab the data from the html page before calling the webservice to save data from the page. Here is the issue: When I make the wcf webservice call (sync or async, it doesnt matter) the click event doesnt happen but if I comment out the the code for wcf service call the click event of the html input of type button gets invoked. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, Salil

    Read the article

  • VB.NET Update Access Database with DataTable

    - by sinDizzy
    I've been perusing some hep forums and some help books but cant seem to get my head wrapped around this. My task is to read data from two text files and then load that data into an existing MS Access 2007 database. So here is what i'm trying to do: Read data from first text file and for every line of data add data to a DataTable using CarID as my unique field. Read data from second text file and look for existing CarID in DataTable if exists update that row. If it doesnt exist add a new row. once im done push the contents of the DataTable to the database. What i have so far: Dim sSQL As String = "SELECT * FROM tblCars" Dim da As New OleDb.OleDbDataAdapter(sSQL, conn) Dim ds As New DataSet da.Fill(ds, "CarData") Dim cb As New OleDb.OleDbCommandBuilder(da) 'loop read a line of text and parse it out. gets dd, dc, and carId 'create a new empty row Dim dsNewRow As DataRow = ds.Tables("CarData").NewRow() 'update the new row with fresh data dsNewRow.Item("DriveDate") = dd dsNewRow.Item("DCode") = dc dsNewRow.Item("CarNum") = carID 'about 15 more fields 'add the filled row to the DataSet table ds.Tables("CarData").Rows.Add(dsNewRow) 'end loop 'update the database with the new rows da.Update(ds, "CarData") Questions: In constructing my table i use "SELECT * FROM tblCars" but what if that table has millions of records already. Is that not a waste of resources? Should i be trying something different if i want to update with new records? Once Im done with the first text file i then go to my next text file. Whats the best approach here: To First look for an existing record based on CarNum or to create a second table and then merge the two at the end? Finally when the DataTable is done being populated and im pushing it to the database i want to make sure that if records already exist with three primary fields (DriveDate, DCode, and CarNum) that they get updated with new fields and if it doesn't exist then those records get appended. Is that possible with my process? tia AGP

    Read the article

  • eclipse show errors but compiles when external makefile

    - by Anthony
    I have some c++ code using CImg and Eigen libraries. At the c++ code I define a plugin like this #define cimg_plugin1 "my_plugin.h" #include "CImg.h" The plugin contains many method definitions that are used at the c++ code. I also have a makefile that when called from the command line (./make), allows me to compile everything, and generates an executable. I want to import this code into a new Eclipse project, and I do it so: NewProjectC++ projectmakefile projectempty project unmark "Use default location", and select the folder containing my code at the filesystem ProjectpropertiesC/C++ Buildunmark "Use default build command" and set it to use my makefile Also in project propertiesC/C++ GeneralPaths and SymbolsAdd paths to folders containing Eigen and CImg Rebuild index Clean project Restart eclipse When I build the project, eclipse tells me I have more than 1000 errors in "my_plugin.h", but it is capable to generate the executable. Even though, I would like to get rid of this errors, because they are annoying. Also, if I want to open the declaration of CImg methods used at the plugin, I can't. I know it has been asked before, but any of the solutions I found were satisfactory for me (most of them enumerated at the previous list). The sources I visited are the following, and I would be really happy if you find and tell me others I didn't see. Eclipse shows errors but project compile fine eclipse C project shows errors (Symbol could not be resolved) but it compiles Eclipse CDT shows some errors, but the project is successfully built http://www.eclipse.org/forums/index.php/t/247954/

    Read the article

  • Why can't decimal numbers be represented exactly in binary?

    - by Barry Brown
    There have been several questions posted to SO about floating-point representation. For example, the decimal number 0.1 doesn't have an exact binary representation, so it's dangerous to use the == operator to compare it to another floating-point number. I understand the principles behind floating-point representation. What I don't understand is why, from a mathematical perspective, are the numbers to the right of the decimal point any more "special" that the ones to the left? For example, the number 61.0 has an exact binary representation because the integral portion of any number is always exact. But the number 6.10 is not exact. All I did was move the decimal one place and suddenly I've gone from Exactopia to Inexactville. Mathematically, there should be no intrinsic difference between the two numbers -- they're just numbers. By contrast, if I move the decimal one place in the other direction to produce the number 610, I'm still in Exactopia. I can keep going in that direction (6100, 610000000, 610000000000000) and they're still exact, exact, exact. But as soon as the decimal crosses some threshold, the numbers are no longer exact. What's going on? Edit: to clarify, I want to stay away from discussion about industry-standard representations, such as IEEE, and stick with what I believe is the mathematically "pure" way. In base 10, the positional values are: ... 1000 100 10 1 1/10 1/100 ... In binary, they would be: ... 8 4 2 1 1/2 1/4 1/8 ... There are also no arbitrary limits placed on these numbers. The positions increase indefinitely to the left and to the right.

    Read the article

  • Pairs from single list

    - by Apalala
    Often enough, I've found the need to process a list by pairs. I was wondering which would be the pythonic and efficient way to do it, and found this on Google: pairs = zip(t[::2], t[1::2]) I thought that was pythonic enough, but after a recent discussion involving idioms versus efficiency, I decided to do some tests: import time from itertools import islice, izip def pairs_1(t): return zip(t[::2], t[1::2]) def pairs_2(t): return izip(t[::2], t[1::2]) def pairs_3(t): return izip(islice(t,None,None,2), islice(t,1,None,2)) A = range(10000) B = xrange(len(A)) def pairs_4(t): # ignore value of t! t = B return izip(islice(t,None,None,2), islice(t,1,None,2)) for f in pairs_1, pairs_2, pairs_3, pairs_4: # time the pairing s = time.time() for i in range(1000): p = f(A) t1 = time.time() - s # time using the pairs s = time.time() for i in range(1000): p = f(A) for a, b in p: pass t2 = time.time() - s print t1, t2, t2-t1 These were the results on my computer: 1.48668909073 2.63187503815 1.14518594742 0.105381965637 1.35109519958 1.24571323395 0.00257992744446 1.46182489395 1.45924496651 0.00251388549805 1.70076990128 1.69825601578 If I'm interpreting them correctly, that should mean that the implementation of lists, list indexing, and list slicing in Python is very efficient. It's a result both comforting and unexpected. Is there another, "better" way of traversing a list in pairs? Note that if the list has an odd number of elements then the last one will not be in any of the pairs. Which would be the right way to ensure that all elements are included? I added these two suggestions from the answers to the tests: def pairwise(t): it = iter(t) return izip(it, it) def chunkwise(t, size=2): it = iter(t) return izip(*[it]*size) These are the results: 0.00159502029419 1.25745987892 1.25586485863 0.00222492218018 1.23795199394 1.23572707176 Results so far Most pythonic and very efficient: pairs = izip(t[::2], t[1::2]) Most efficient and very pythonic: pairs = izip(*[iter(t)]*2) It took me a moment to grok that the first answer uses two iterators while the second uses a single one. To deal with sequences with an odd number of elements, the suggestion has been to augment the original sequence adding one element (None) that gets paired with the previous last element, something that can be achieved with itertools.izip_longest().

    Read the article

  • What makes deployment successful for some users and unsuccessful for others?

    - by Julien
    I am trying to deploy a Visual C++ application (developed with Microsoft Visual Studio 2008) using a Setup and Deployment Project. After installation, users on some target computers get the following error message after launching the application executable: “This application has failed to start because the application configuration is incorrect. Reinstalling the application may fix the problem.” Another user after installation could run the application properly. I cannot find the root cause of this problem, despite spending several hours on the Visual Studio help files and online forums (most postings date back to 2006). Does anyone at Stack Overflow have a suggestion? Thanks in advance. Additional details appear below. The application uses FLTK 1.1.9 for a GUI library, as well as some Boost 1.39 libraries (regex, lexical_cast, date_time, math). I made sure I am trying to deploy the release version (not the debug version) of the application. The Runtime library in the Code Generation settings is Multi-threaded DLL (/MD). The dependency walker of myapp.exe lists the following DLLs: wsock32.dll, comctl32.dll, kernel32.dll, user32.dll, gdi32.dll, shell32.dll, ole32.dll, mvcp90.dll, msvcr90.dll. In the Setup and Deployment Project, I add the following DLLs to the File System on Target Machine: fltkdlld.dll, and a folder named Microsoft.VC90.CRT with msvcm90.dll, msvcp90.dll, mcvcr90.dll and Microsoft.VC90.CRT.manifest. The installation process on the target computers getting the error message requires having the .Net Framework 3.5 installed first. Any suggestion? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Building a ctypes-"based" C library with distutils

    - by Robie Basak
    Following this recommendation, I have written a native C extension library to optimise part of a Python module via ctypes. I chose ctypes over writing a CPython-native library because it was quicker and easier (just a few functions with all tight loops inside). I've now hit a snag. If I want my work to be easily installable using distutils using python setup.py install, then distutils needs to be able to build my shared library and install it (presumably into /usr/lib/myproject). However, this not a Python extension module, and so as far as I can tell, distutils cannot do this. I've found a few references to people other people with this problem: Someone on numpy-discussion with a hack back in 2006. Somebody asking on distutils-sig and not getting an answer. Somebody asking on the main python list and being pointed to the innards of an existing project. I am aware that I can do something native and not use distutils for the shared library, or indeed use my distribution's packaging system. My concern is that this will limit usability as not everyone will be able to install it easily. So my question is: what is the current best way of distributing a shared library with distutils that will be used by ctypes but otherwise is OS-native and not a Python extension module? Feel free to answer with one of the hacks linked to above if you can expand on it and justify why that is the best way. If there is nothing better, at least all the information will be in one place.

    Read the article

  • ps: Clean way to only get parent processes?

    - by shkschneider
    I use ps ef and ps rf a lot. Here is a sample output for ps rf: PID TTY STAT TIME COMMAND 3476 pts/0 S 0:00 su ... 3477 pts/0 S 0:02 \_ bash 8062 pts/0 T 1:16 \_ emacs -nw ... 15733 pts/0 R+ 0:00 \_ ps xf 15237 ? S 0:00 uwsgi ... 15293 ? S 0:00 \_ uwsgi ... 15294 ? S 0:00 \_ uwsgi ... And today I needed to retrieve only the master process of uwsgi in a script (so I want only 15237 but not 15293 nor 15294). As of today, I tried some ps rf | grep -v ' \\_ '... but I would like a cleaner way. I also came accross another solution from unix.com's forums: ps xf | sed '1d' | while read pid tty stat time command ; do [ -n "$(echo $command | egrep '^uwsgi')" ] && echo $pid ; done But still a lot of pipes and ugly tricks. Is there really no ps option or cleaner tricks (maybe using awk) to accomplish that?

    Read the article

  • Advice needed: cold backup for SQL Server 2008 Express?

    - by Mikey Cee
    What are my options for achieving a cold backup server for SQL Server Express instance running a single database? I have an SQL Server 2008 Express instance in production that currently represents a single point of failure for my application. I have a second physical box sitting at the installation that is currently doing nothing. I want to somehow replicate my database in near real time (a little bit of data loss is acceptable) to the second box. The database is very small and resources are utilized very lightly. In the case that the production server dies, I would manually reconfigure my application to point to the backup server instead. Although Express doesn't support log shipping, I am thinking that I could manually script a poor man's version of it, where I use batch files to take the logs and copy them across the network and apply them to the second server at 5 minute intervals. Does anyone have any advice on whether this is technically achievable, or if there is a better way to do what I am trying to do? Note that I want to avoid having to pay for the full version of SQL Server and configure mirroring as I think it is an overkill for this application. I understand that other DB platforms may present suitable options (eg. a MySQL Cluster), but for the purposes of this discussion, let's assume we have to stick to SQL Server.

    Read the article

  • cURL gets Internal Server Error when posting to aspx page

    - by Mihai
    I have a big problem. I have some applications made on an unix based system, and I use PHP with cURL to post an XML question to an IIS server with asp.net. Every time I ask the server something I get error: HTTP/1.1 500 Internal Server Error Date: Tue, 04 May 2010 07:36:08 GMT Server: Microsoft-IIS/6.0 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET X-AspNet-Version: 2.0.50727 Cache-Control: private Content-Type: text/html; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: 3032 But if I ask same question on another server, almost identically to this one (BOTH configured by me) I get results like it should and the headers: HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Tue, 04 May 2010 07:39:37 GMT Server: Microsoft-IIS/6.0 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET X-AspNet-Version: 2.0.50727 Cache-Control: private Content-Type: text/html; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: 9169 I tried everything, searched hundreds of forums, but i don't find anything. In IIS logs I only get: 2010-05-04 07:36:08 W3SVC1657587027 80.xx.xx.xx POST /XML_SERV/XmlAPI.aspx - 80 - 80.xx.xx.xx Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+6.0;+Windows+NT+5.1 500 0 0 any ideas where to look what is going on? I forgot to mention! If I use an XML request software, and ask same question, it works.

    Read the article

  • Cocoa document-based app: Notification not always received by observer

    - by roysolay
    Hi, I hope somebody can help with my notification problem. I have a notification which looks to be set up correctly but it isn’t delivered as expected. I am developing a document based app. The delegate/ document class posts the notification when it reads from a saved file: [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] postNotificationName:notifyBsplinePolyOpened object:self]; Logging tells me that this line is reached whenever I open a saved document. In the DrawView class, I have observers for the windowOpen notification and the bsplinePoly file open notification: [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(mainWindowOpen:) name:NSWindowDidBecomeMainNotification object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(savedBspline:) name:notifyBsplinePolyOpened object:nil]; - (void) mainWindowOpen:(NSNotification*) note { NSLog(@"Window opened"); _mainWindow = [note object]; } - (void) savedBspline:(NSNotification*) note { NSLog(@"savedBspline called"); NSLog(@"note is %@", [note name]); } The behavior is odd. When I save and close the main window and reopen it, I get the “Window opened” message but not the “savedBspline called” message. If I leave a main window open and open a previously saved session, I get the “Window opened” message and the “savedBspline called” message. I have searched online discussion and Apple DevCenter documentation but I have not seen this problem.

    Read the article

  • Any diff/merge tool that provides a report (metrics) of conflicts?

    - by cad
    CONTEXT: I am preparing a big C# merge using visual studio 2008 and TFS. I need to create a report with the files and the number of collisions (total changes and conflicts) for each file (and in total of course) PROBLEM: I cannot do it for two reasons (first one is solved): 1- Using TFS merge I can have access to the file comparison but I cannot export the list of conflicting files... I can only try to resolve the conflicts. (I have solved problem 1 using beyond compare. It allows me to export the file list) 2- Using TFS merge I can only access manually for each file to get the number of conflicts... but I have more than 800 files (and probably will have to repeat it in the close future so is not an option doing it manually) There are dozens of file comparison tools (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Comparison_of_file_comparison_tools ) but I am not sure which one could (if any) give me these metrics. I have also read several forums and questions here but are more general questions (which diff tool is better) and I am looking for a very specific report. So my questions are: Is Visual Studio 2010 (using still TFS2008) capable of doing such reports/exportation? Is there any tool that provide this kind of metrics (Now I am trying Beyond Compare)

    Read the article

  • Is the REST support in Spring 3's MVC Framework production quality yet?

    - by glenjohnson
    Hi all, Since Spring 3 was released in December last year, I have been trying out the new REST features in the MVC framework for a small commercial project involving implementing a few RESTful Web Services which consume XML and return XML views using JiBX. I plan to use either Hibernate or JDBC Templates for the data persistence. As a Spring 2.0 developer, I have found Spring 3's (and 2.5's) new annotations way of doing things quite a paradigm shift and have personally found some of the new MVC annotation features difficult to get up to speed with for non-trivial applications - as such, I am often having to dig for information in forums and blogs that is not apparent from going through the reference guide or from the various Spring 3 REST examples on the web. For deadline-driven production quality and mission critical applications implementing a RESTful architecture, should I be holding off from Spring 3 and rather be using mature JSR 311 (JAX-RS) compliant frameworks like RESTlet or Jersey for the REST layer of my code (together with Spring 2 / 2.5 to tie things together)? I had no problems using RESTlet 1.x in a previous project and it was quite easy to get up to speed with (no magic tricks behind the scenes), but when starting my current project it initially looked like the new REST stuff in Spring 3's MVC Framework would make life easier. Do any of you out there have any advice to give on this? Does anyone know of any commercial / production-quality projects using, or having successfully delivered with, the new REST stuff in Spring 3's MVC Framework. Many thanks Glen

    Read the article

  • Identity.Name is disposed in a IIS7 Asp.NET MVC application Thread

    - by vIceBerg
    I have made the smallest demo project to illustrate my problem. You can download the sources Here Visual Studio 2008, .NET 3.5, IIS7, Windows 7 Ultimate 32 bits. The IIS Website is configured ONLY for Windows Authentication in an Integreated pipeline app pool (DefaultAppPool). Here's the problem. I have an Asp.NET MVC 2 application. In an action, I start a thread. The View returns. The thread is doing it's job... but it needs to access Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name BANG The worker process of IIS7 stops. I have a window that says: "Visual Studio Just-In-Time Debugger An unhandled exception ('System.Object.DisposedException') occured in w3wp.exe [5524]" I checked with the debugger and the Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity is valid, but the Name property is disposed. If I put a long wait in the action before it returns the view, then the Thread can do it's job and the Identity.Name is not disposed. So I think the Name gets disposed when the view is returned. For the sake of the discussion, here's the code that the thread runs (but you can also download the demo project. The link is on top of this post): private void Run() { const int SECTOWAIT = 3; //wait SECTOWAIT seconds long end = DateTime.Now.Ticks + (TimeSpan.TicksPerSecond * SECTOWAIT); while (DateTime.Now.Ticks <= end) continue; //Check the currentprincipal. BANG!!!!!!!!!!!!! var userName = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; } Here's the code that starts the thread public void Start() { Thread thread = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(ThreadProc)); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.MTA); thread.Name = "TestThread"; thread.Start(this); } static void ThreadProc(object o) { try { Builder builder = (Builder)o; builder.Run(); } catch (Exception ex) { throw; } } So... what am i doing wrong? Thanks

    Read the article

  • How To Deal With Exceptions In Large Code Bases

    - by peter
    Hi All, I have a large C# code base. It seems quite buggy at times, and I was wondering if there is a quick way to improve finding and diagnosing issues that are occuring on client PCs. The most pressing issue is that exceptions occur in the software, are caught, and even reported through to me. The problem is that by the time they are caught the original cause of the exception is lost. I.e. If an exception was caught in a specific method, but that method calls 20 other methods, and those methods each call 20 other methods. You get the picture, a null reference exception is impossible to figure out, especially if it occured on a client machine. I have currently found some places where I think errors are more likely to occur and wrapped these directly in their own try catch blocks. Is that the only solution? I could be here a long time. I don't care that the exception will bring down the current process (it is just a thread anyway - not the main application), but I care that the exceptions come back and don't help with troubleshooting. Any ideas? I am well aware that I am probably asking a question which sounds silly, and may not have a straightforward answer. All the same some discussion would be good.

    Read the article

  • Pro ASP.Net MVC 3 Entity Framework Sports Store tutorial

    - by gary7
    Following the tutorial in the book "Pro ASP.Net MVC 3 Entity Framework" in Chapter 9 - Image Uploads section; asks that the Product class be updated with two new columns - public byte ImageData, and public string ImageType. It also directs that the database be updated with these two columns via the server explorer. After these updates, the discussion directs that the Entity Framework Conceptual Model be updated via the SportsStore.EDMX file. This file does not exist in the source code for the project, and was not used in the project to begin with. Obvious errata for the book. Adding the ADO.NET Entity Data Model to the Project then overrides the EFProduct reposistory (conceptual model used throughout the project) which inherits from the interface IProductsRepository; and results in errors within the mapping. If the project is debugged after the columns are added, an error is thrown related to the new added columns. Has anyone resolved this issue in the project? I haven't found any solutions so far. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Gathering entropy in web apps to create (more) secure random numbers

    - by H M
    after several days of research and discussion i came up with this method to gather entropy from visitors (u can see the history of my research here) when a user visits i run this code: $entropy=sha1(microtime().$pepper.$_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR'].$_SERVER['REMOTE_PORT']. $_SERVER['HTTP_USER_AGENT'].serialize($_POST).serialize($_GET).serialize($_COOKIE)); note: pepper is a per site/setup random string set by hand. then i execute the following (My)SQL query: $query="update `crypto` set `value`=sha1(concat(`value`, '$entropy')) where name='entropy'"; that means we combine the entropy of the visitor's request with the others' gathered already. that's all. then when we want to generate random numbers we combine the gathered entropy with the output: $query="select `value` from `crypto` where `name`='entropy'"; //... extract(unpack('Nrandom', pack('H*', sha1(mt_rand(0, 0x7FFFFFFF).$entropy.microtime())))); note: the last line is a part of a modified version of the crypt_rand function of the phpseclib. please tell me your opinion about the scheme and other ideas/info regarding entropy gathering/random number generation. ps: i know about randomness sources like /dev/urandom. this system is just an auxiliary system or (when we don't have (access to) these sources) a fallback scheme.

    Read the article

  • memcmp,strcmp,strncmp in C

    - by el10780
    I wrote this small piece of code in C to test memcmp() strncmp() strcmp() functions in C. Here is the code that I wrote: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <string.h> int main(int argc, char** argv) { char *word1="apple",*word2="atoms"; if (strncmp(word1,word2,5)==0) printf("strncmp result.\n"); if (memcmp(word1,word2,5)==0) printf("memcmp result.\n"); if (strcmp(word1,word2)==0) printf("strcmp result.\n"); } Can somebody explain me the differences because I am confused with these three functions?My main problem is that I have a file in which I tokenize its line of it,the problem is that when I tokenize the word "atoms" in the file I have to stop the process of tokenizing.I first tried strcmp() but unfortunately when it reached to the point where the word "atoms" were placed in the file it didn't stop and it continued,but when I used either the memcmp() or the strncmp() it stopped and I was happy.But then I thought,what if there will be a case in which there is one string in which the first 5 letters are a,t,o,m,s and these are being followed by other letters.Unfortunately,my thoughts were right as I tested it using the above code by initializing word1 to "atomsaaaaa" and word2 to atoms and memcmp() and strncmp() in the if statements returned 0.On the other hand strcmp() it didn't.It seems that I must use strcmp(). I have done google searches but I got more confused as I have seen sites and other forums to define these three differently.If it is possible for someone to give me correct explanations/definitions so I can use them correctly in my source code,I would be really grateful.

    Read the article

  • JavaScript window object element properties

    - by Timothy
    A coworker showed me the following code and asked me why it worked. <span id="myspan">Do you like my hat?</span> <script type="text/javascript"> var spanElement = document.getElementById("myspan"); alert("Here I am! " + spanElement.innerHTML + "\n" + myspan.innerHTML); </script> I explained that a property is attached to the window object with the name of the element's id when the browser parses the document which then contains a reference to the appropriate dom node. It's sort of as if window.myspan = document.getElementById("myspan") is called behind the scenes as the page is being rendered. The ensuing discussion we had raised a few of questions: The window object and most of the DOM are not part of the official JavaScript/ECMA standards, but is the above behavior documented in any other official literature, perhaps browser-related? The above works in a browser (at least the main contenders) because there is a window object, but fails in something like rhino. Is writing code that relys on this considered bad practice because it makes too many assumptions about the execution environment? Are there any browsers in which the above would fail, or is this considered standard behavior across the board? Does anyone here know the answers to those questions and would be willing to enlighten me? I tried a quick internet search, but I admit I'm not sure how to even properly phrase the query. Pointers to references and documentation are welcome.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152  | Next Page >