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• MSBuild Validating Properties

  - by Brian Gillespie

  I'm working on a reusable MSBuild Target that will be consumed by several other tasks. This target requires that several properties be defined. What's the best way to validate that properties are defined, throwing an Error if the are not? Two attempts that I almost like: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <Project ToolsVersion="3.5" DefaultTarget="Release" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003"> <Target Name="Release"> <Error Text="Property PropA required" Condition="'$(PropA)' == ''"/> <Error Text="Property PropB required" Condition="'$(PropB)' == ''"/> <!-- The body of the task --> </Target> </Project> Here's an attempt at batching. It's ugly because of the extra "Name" parameter. Is it possible to use the Include attribute instead? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <Project ToolsVersion="3.5" DefaultTarget="Release" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003"> <Target Name="Release"> <!-- MSBuild BuildInParallel="true" Projects="@(ProjectsToBuild)"/ --> <ItemGroup> <RequiredProperty Include="PropA"><Name>PropA</Name></RequiredProperty> <RequiredProperty Include="PropB"><Name>PropB</Name></RequiredProperty> <RequiredProperty Include="PropC"><Name>PropC</Name></RequiredProperty> </ItemGroup> <Error Text="Property %(RequiredProperty.Name) required" Condition="'$(%(RequiredProperty.Name))' == ''" /> </Target> </Project>

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• Check for valid IMEI

  - by Tim

  Hi, does somebody knows how to check for a valid IMEI? I have found a function to check on this page: http://www.dotnetfunda.com/articles/article597-imeivalidator-in-vbnet-.aspx But it returns false for valid IMEI's (f.e. 352972024585360). I can validate them online on this page: http://www.numberingplans.com/?page=analysis&sub=imeinr What is the correct way(in VB.Net) to check if a given IMEI is valid? Regards, Tim PS: This function from above page must be incorrect in some way: Public Shared Function isImeiValid(ByVal IMEI As String) As Boolean Dim cnt As Integer = 0 Dim nw As String = String.Empty Try For Each c As Char In IMEI cnt += 1 If cnt Mod 2 <> 0 Then nw += c Else Dim d As Integer = Integer.Parse(c) * 2 ' Every Second Digit has to be Doubled nw += d.ToString() ' Genegrated a new number with doubled digits End If Next Dim tot As Integer = 0 For Each ch As Char In nw.Remove(nw.Length - 1, 1) tot += Integer.Parse(ch) ' Adding all digits together Next Dim chDigit As Integer = 10 - (tot Mod 10) ' Finding the Check Digit my Finding the Remainder of the sum and subtracting it from 10 If chDigit = Integer.Parse(IMEI(IMEI.Length - 1)) Then ' Checking the Check Digit with the last digit of the Given IMEI code Return True Else Return False End If Catch ex As Exception Return False End Try End Function

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• Google Map GEO Results

  - by Lee

  Hey All I'm getting really frustrated with google geo results and hope someone can advise me the best was to go. I have created a AutoSuggest feature where you can start typing the address and google will repspond with suggestions. User then selects and address to move on. But before I want them to continue on the next page I want to validate their selection. I would have thought this will be easy as we are only checking against what google has already given. But when I do my validation lookup it displays no results. Some example code: Lets say I picked from the suggestion this address: Suffield, CT 06078, USA Then on validation I do a second lookup with this address ie. $string = "Suffield, CT 06078, USA"; echo 'http://maps.google.com/maps/geo?output=json&oe=utf8&gl=us&sensor=false&key=[MyKey]&q='.urlencode($string).''; It gives me Error code 602 (G_GEO_UNKNOWN_ADDRESS) How can it not be found when its given me the address ?? Any suggestions how I can get around this. Hope you can !

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• reference from xaml to public class in .cs class file

  - by netmajor

  I have in my WPF project file RssInfo.cs in which I have public class public class DoubleRangeRule : ValidationRule { public double Min { get; set; } public double Max { get; set; } public override System.Windows.Controls.ValidationResult Validate(object value, CultureInfo cultureInfo) { ... } } and from my XAML code in WPF window class I neet to get to this DoubleRangeRule class.. //reference to my project, all my files are in the WpfCzytanieRSS namespace xmlns:valRule="clr-namespace:WpfCzytanieRSS;assembly=WpfCzytanieRSS" <TextBox Validation.ErrorTemplate="{StaticResource TextBoxErrorTemplate}" Name="tbTitle"> <TextBox.Text> <Binding Path="Nazwa" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <valRule:DoubleRangeRule Min="0.5" Max="10"/> //error place </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </TextBox.Text> </TextBox> And i get two errors: Error 1 The tag 'DoubleRangeRule' does not exist in XML namespace 'clr-namespace:WpfCzytanieRSS;assembly=WpfCzytanieRSS'. Error 2 The type 'valRule:DoubleRangeRule' was not found. Verify that you are not missing an assembly reference and that all referenced assemblies have been built. Please help to get to class DoubleRangeRule ! :)

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• Proper use of HTTP status codes in a "validation" server

  - by Romulo A. Ceccon

  Among the data my application sends to a third-party SOA server are complex XMLs. The server owner does provide the XML schemas (.xsd) and, since the server rejects invalid XMLs with a meaningless message, I need to validate them locally before sending. I could use a stand-alone XML schema validator but they are slow, mainly because of the time required to parse the schema files. So I wrote my own schema validator (in Java, if that matters) in the form of an HTTP Server which caches the already parsed schemas. The problem is: many things can go wrong in the course of the validation process. Other than unexpected exceptions and successful validation: the server may not find the schema file specified the file specified may not be a valid schema file the XML is invalid against the schema file Since it's an HTTP Server I'd like to provide the client with meaningful status codes. Should the server answer with a 400 error (Bad request) for all the above cases? Or they have nothing to do with HTTP and it should answer 200 with a message in the body? Any other suggestion? Update: the main application is written in Ruby, which doesn't have a good xml schema validation library, so a separate validation server is not over-engineering.

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• Django User M2M relationship

  - by Antonio

  When trying to syncdb with the following models: class Contact(models.Model): user_from = models.ForeignKey(User,related_name='from_user') user_to = models.ForeignKey(User, related_name='to_user') class Meta: unique_together = (('user_from', 'user_to'),) User.add_to_class('following', models.ManyToManyField('self', through=Contact, related_name='followers', symmetrical=False)) I get the following error: Error: One or more models did not validate: auth.user: Accessor for m2m field 'following' clashes with related m2m field 'User.followers'. Add a related_name argument to the definition for 'following'. auth.user: Reverse query name for m2m field 'following' clashes with related m2m field 'User.followers'. Add a related_name argument to the definition for 'following'. auth.user: The model User has two manually-defined m2m relations through the model Contact, which is not permitted. Please consider using an extra field on your intermediary model instead. auth.user: Accessor for m2m field 'following' clashes with related m2m field 'User.followers'. Add a related_name argument to the definition for 'following'. auth.user: Reverse query name for m2m field 'following' clashes with related m2m field 'User.followers'. Add a related_name argument to the definition for 'following'.

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• Problem with XML encoding of database contents with Latin characters

  - by user89691

  I have an ASP Access database that contains strings in various European languages. The database was populated prior by agents in the respective countries. It contains entries with accented etc characters as you would expect. If I open the database with MS Access these characters show up fine. For example the the German equivalent of "Open" shows as "Öffnen" (hopefully you can see an "O" with 2 dots above it!). I have ASP code that reads the database and returns records in XML. The text is passed to XMLEncode to construct the XML, but that only seems to deal with the 5 specials like "<", "&", etc. If I dump the XML the accented characters are unchanged. <English>Open</English> <German>Öffnen</German> If I look at the raw packets with Wireshark I see that the "Ö" byte is hex D6, which appears to be it's decimal Unicode and ISO 8859-1 value. The problem starts when I try to parse the XML in client-side JS. I get: "An invalid character was found in text content" from IE. FF and Chrome happily accept the XML without hiccup but the browser shows the "Ö" character as a diamond with a question mark inside. http://www.validome.org/xml/validate/ reports "encoding error." http://www.w3schools.com/dom/dom_validate.asp thinks it is fine. The XML is UTF-8 encoded. What do I need to do to have IE accept my XML without complaint? What do I need to do to have browsers display the stuff correctly?

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• scripsharp reference web service / strongly type to results model

  - by user175528

  With scriptsharp (script#) is it possible to get strong typing when calling a service defined in my web app? The only way I can see is to: 1 - use linked / shared files to shadow copy my results classes / domain models across into my script# lib 2 - replicate my model across in the script# lib and use automapper to validate? 3 - use some .tt to code gen? also, even if I can do this, how do I get around the auto camel-casing script# does, when my service result (asmx) wont do this? (so my JSON response will comback as UserMessage, script# will have changed that to userMessage) basically, what I am looking to use script# to achieve is better compile time support against our domain model when calling and processing services in javascript, so something like this: Scriptlet public static class MyScriptlet { public static void Main() { MyService.Service1("hello", ProcessResponse);} public static void ProcessResponse(MyService.Service1ResponseData resp) { jQuery.Select('#Message').Text(resp.UserMessage); jQuery.Select('#Detail').Text(resp.UserDetail); } Service (in our web app) public class MyService { public class Service1ResponseData { public string UserMessage {get;set;} public string UserDetail {get;set;} } public Service1ResponseData Service1(string user) { return new Service1ResponseData() { UserMessage:"hi",UserDetail:"some text"}; } }

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• Spring MVC parameter validation

  - by Don

  Hi, I've defined a controller, validator and command class for a Spring 2.5 MVC application like this: public class ResourceController extends AbstractCommandController { private MessageRetriever messageRetriever; protected ModelAndView handle(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response, Object command, BindException errors) throws Exception { ResourceCommand resourceCommand = (ResourceCommand) command; // I NEED TO CHECK HERE IF COMMAND IS VALID? } public static class ResourceCommand { private String module; private String site; private String lang; // GETTERS AND SETTERS OMITTED } public static class ResourceValidator implements Validator { public boolean supports(Class clazz) { return ResourceCommand.class.isAssignableFrom(clazz); } public void validate(Object obj, Errors errors) { ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmptyOrWhitespace(errors, "module", "MODULE_REQUIRED"); ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmptyOrWhitespace(errors, "site", "SITE_REQUIRED"); ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmptyOrWhitespace(errors, "lang", "LANG_REQUIRED"); } } } I have wired these all together in the application context: <bean id="resourceController" class="com.amadeus.jcp.ui.framework.localization.ResourceController"> <property name="commandClass" value="com.amadeus.jcp.ui.framework.localization.ResourceController.ResourceCommand"/> <property name="validator"> <bean class="com.amadeus.jcp.ui.framework.localization.ResourceController.ResourceValidator"/> </property> </bean> However, I can't figure out how to actually check whether the command is valid or not - I assume the framework calls the validator, but how do I get access to the result? Incidentally, I'm using Java 1.4, so can't use any solutions that require annotations or other Java 1.5 features. Thanks, Don

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• Windows-Mobile Directshow: Specifying bitrate/quality of a WMV video capture

  - by Landstander

  Hi- I'm stumped on this, and I'm really hoping someone could point me in the right direction. I'm currently capturing video in Windows Mobile and encoding it using the WMV 9 DMO (CLSID_CWMV9EncMediaObject). That all works well enough, but the output video's bitrate is too high, resulting in a video file that's much too large for my needs. Ultimately, my goal is to mimic the video settings that Microsoft's Camera Capture Dialog outputs in the "messaging" quality mode (64kbps) from my C++ code. Currently, my code's outputting a WMV file with a bitrate of 352kbps. The only example I could find of specifying the capture bitrate with a WMV9 DMO was this. The idea in that code was basically to use a propertybag to write a bitrate to a property of the DMO. Update: In windows mobile, the closest codec property I can find that seems to equate to the bitrate is "g_wszWMVCVBRQuality". Microsoft's documentation of this property is extremely confusing to me: It basically seems to say that a higher number equates to a higher quality, but it gives absolutely no explanation of the specifics for each number. When I attempt to set this property to value like "1" via a propertybag for the WMV9 DMO, I run into a -2147467259 (unknown) error. To summarize: What is the basic strategy to specify the bitrate/quality of a video being captured via directshow (wmv9) on a windows mobile platform? I've heard (or wondered about) the following methods: Use the propertybag to change the encoder DMO's property that corresponds to bitrate/quality (currently failing) Create your own custom transcoder/encoder to specify it. This seems unnecessary since the WMV encoder works well enough- it's just at too high a bitrate. The VIDEOINFOHEADER has a bitrate property, but I suspect that specifying new settings here will do nothing to alter the actual encoding process since I wouldn't think file attributes would come into play until after the encoding. Any suggestions? PS: I would post specific source code, but at this point it may confuse more than it helps since I'm floundering so much on how to do this. At this point, I'm just trying to validate the general strategy. THANKS!

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• Windows 7 64 Bit - ODBC32 - Legacy App Problem

  - by Arturo Caballero

  Good day StackOverFlowlers, I´m a little stuck (really stuck) with an issue with a legacy application on my organization. I have a Windows 7 Enterprise 64 Bit machine, Access 2000 Installed and the Legacy App (Is built with something like VB but older) The App uses System ODBC in order to connect to a SQL 2000 DataBase on a Remote Server. I created the ODCB using C:\Windows\SysWOW64\odbcad32.exe app in order to create a System DSN. I did not use the Windows 7 because it is not visible to the Legacy App. I tested the ODBC connection with Access and worked ok, I can access the remote database. Then I run the legacy App as Administrator and the App can see the ODBC, but I´m getting errors on credential validation and I´m getting this error: DIAG [08001] [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][Multi-Protocol]SQL Server does not exist or access denied. (17) DIAG [01000] [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][Multi-Protocol]ConnectionOpen (Connect()). (53) DIAG [IM006] [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Driver's SQLSetConnectAttr failed (0) I use Trusted Connection on the ODBC in order to validate the user by Domain Controller. I think that the credentials are not being sent by the Legacy App to the ODBC, or something like that. I don´t have the source code of the Legacy App in order to debug the connection. Also, I turned off the Firewall. Any ideas?? Thanks in advance!

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• jQuery Validation Plugin: Invoke errorPlacement function when onfocusout, keyup and click

  - by th3hamburgler

  Hi, I am using the jquery validation plugin and want to use the errorPlacement function to add error messages to the fields title attribute and display just a ? next to the field. This works great when the form is submitted with the submit button but when any of the following events are triggered: - onfocusout - click - onkeyup The validation checks are run but it skips the errorPlacement function and adds the full error message after the field, like the default behaviour. I am using the following code: $("#send-mail").validate({ debug: true, // set this class to error-labels to indicate valid fields success: function(label) { // set text as tick label.html("&#10004;").addClass("valid"); }, // the errorPlacement has to take the table layout into account errorPlacement: function(error, element) { console.log("errorPlacement called for "+element.attr("name")+" field"); // check for blank/success error if(error.text() == "") { // remove field title/error message from element element.attr("title", ""); console.log("error check passed"); } else { // get error message var message = error.text(); // set as element title element.attr("title", message); // clear error html and add cross glyph error.html("&#10008;"); console.log("error check failed: "+message); } // add error label after form element error.insertAfter(element); }, ignoreTitle: true, errorClass: "invalid" });

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• How to avoid saving a blank model which attributes can be blank

  - by auralbee

  Hello people, I have two models with a HABTM association, let´s say book and author. class Book has_and_belongs_to_many :authors end class Author has_and_belongs_to_many :books end The author has a set of attributes (e.g. first-name,last-name,age) that can all be blank (see validation). validates_length_of :first_name, :maximum => 255, :allow_blank => true, :allow_nil => false In the books_controller, I do the following to append all authors to a book in one step: @book = Book.new(params[:book]) @book.authors.build(params[:book][:authors].values) My question: What would be the easiest way to avoid the saving of authors which fields are all blank to prevent too much "noise" in the database? At the moment, I do the following: validate :must_have_some_data def must_have_some_data empty = true hash = self.attributes hash.delete("created_at") hash.delete("updated_at") hash.each_value do |value| empty = false if value.present? end if (empty) errors.add_to_base("Fields do not contain any data.") end end Maybe there is an more elegant, Rails-like way to do that. Thanks.

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• Websphere logs report {0} File not found, but application continues to work without issues

  - by Eric

  A websphere 6.1 server is running a struts application that seems to be working fine. In the logs, however, I'm seeing the following error message, which is being continually emailed to the support staff. com.ibm.ws.webcontainer.webapp.WebAppErrorReport: SRVE0190E: File not found: {0} at com.ibm.ws.webcontainer.webapp.WebAppDispatcherContext.sendError(WebAppDispatcherContext.java:536) at com.ibm.ws.webcontainer.srt.SRTServletResponse.sendError(SRTServletResponse.java:930) at com.ibm.ws.webcontainer.extension.DefaultExtensionProcessor.handleRequest(DefaultExtensionProcessor.java:524) at com.ibm.ws.wswebcontainer.extension.DefaultExtensionProcessor.handleRequest(DefaultExtensionProcessor.java:111) at com.ibm.ws.webcontainer.webapp.WebApp.handleRequest(WebApp.java:3129) at com.ibm.ws.webcontainer.webapp.WebGroup.handleRequest(WebGroup.java:238) at com.ibm.ws.webcontainer.WebContainer.handleRequest(WebContainer.java:811) at com.ibm.ws.wswebcontainer.WebContainer.handleRequest(WebContainer.java:1433) at com.ibm.ws.webcontainer.channel.WCChannelLink.ready(WCChannelLink.java:93) I can narrow down the issue to a single Action and JSP, which are too big to show here, but here's the action definition in struts-config.xml: <action path="/HappyDefaultThing" name="HappyDefaultThingActionForm" type="com.foo.webadministration.action.HappyDefaultThingAction" validate="true" input="/WaAssignDefaultHappyThing.jsp" scope="session"> <forward name="success" path="/WaAssignDefaultHappyThing.jsp"/> <forward name="failure" path="/WaAssignDefaultHappyThing.jsp"/> </action> As far as I can see, nothing is missing, and everything necessary is being found, but the logs say "File not found: {0}" What is "{0}"?? The stack trace only shows IBMs code, which I can't see the source of, and therefore can't trace. Is this a bug in the websphere code? I'd appreciate any help.

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• Error when creating JFrame from JFrame

  - by Aly

  Hi, I have an application that is works fine and the JFrame for it is launched in the constructor of a GameInitializer class which takes in some config parameters. I have tried to create a GUI in which allows the user to specify these config parameters and then click submit. When the user clicks submit a new GameInitializer object is created. The error I am getting is: Exception in thread "AWT-EventQueue-0" java.lang.Error: Cannot call invokeAndWait from the event dispatcher thread at java.awt.EventQueue.invokeAndWait(Unknown Source) at javax.swing.SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait(Unknown Source) at game.player.humanplayer.view.HumanView.update(HumanView.java:43) once submit is called this code is executed: values assigned to parames... new GameInitializer(userName, player, Constants.BLIND_STRUCTURE_FILES.get(blindStructure), handState); Then code in the GameInitializer constructor is: public GameInitializer(String playerName, AbstractPlayer opponent, String blindStructureConfig, AbstractHandState handState){ beginGame(playerName, opponent, blindStructureConfig, handState); } public static void beginGame(String playerName, AbstractPlayer opponent, String blindStructureConfig, AbstractHandState handState){ AbstractDealer dealer; BlindStructure.initialize(blindStructureConfig); AbstractPlayer humanPlayer = new HumanPlayer(playerName, handState); AbstractPlayer[] players = new AbstractPlayer[2]; players[0] = humanPlayer; players[1] = opponent; handState.setTableLayout(players); for(AbstractPlayer player : players){ player.initialize(); } dealer = new Dealer(players, handState); dealer.beginGame(); } It basically cascades down and eventually calls this piece of code in the HumanView class: public void update(final Event event, final ReadableHandState handState, final AbstractPlayer player) { try { SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait(new Runnable() { public void run() { gamePanel.update(event, handState, player); validate(); } }); } catch (InterruptedException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (InvocationTargetException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } if(event.equals(Event.HAND_ENDING)){ try { if(handState.wonByShowdown() || handState.isSplitPot()){ Thread.sleep(3500); } else{ Thread.sleep(1000); } } catch (InterruptedException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } Do you have any idea why?

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• Calling blockUI and unblockUI in combination with jQuery validator plugin

  - by Tim Stewart

  I have a very complex form with the validation working correctly. However, since it can take awhile for the validation to complete, I'd like to use blockUI to be called when I click the form's submit button to prevent confusion and double-submissions. I can't quite figure out how to do this. My code looks like this: $("#credential").validate({ rules: { EngId: { required: true } ClientAccount: { required: true } ... } and I'm calling the validation with several buttons (using their click function) depending on selections in the form, often disabling some of the rules: $("#buttonname").click(function() { $("#fieldname").rules("remove"); ... $("#credential").submit(); }); What I can't figure out is where the blockui and unblockui calls would go so that when the user clicks the button, before validation starts, blockui does its magic, and if the validation finds a problem, unblockui is called and enables the form again. I'm pretty new to Jquery and I can't find any examples that I've been able to implement successfully. I would appreciate any help anyone could give (please excuse if this has been covered before).

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• ASP.NET MVC OutputCache with POST Controller Actions

  - by Maxim Z.

  I'm fairly new to using the OutputCache attribute in ASP.NET MVC. Static Pages I've enabled it on static pages on my site with code such as the following: [OutputCache(Duration = 7200, VaryByParam = "None")] public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { //... If I understand correctly, I made the whole controller cache for 7200 seconds (2 hours). Dynamic Pages However, how does it work with dynamic pages? By dynamic, I mean where the user has to submit a form. As an example, I have a page with an email form. Here's what that code looks like: public class ContactController : Controller { // // GET: /Contact/ public ActionResult Index() { return RedirectToAction("SubmitEmail"); } public ActionResult SubmitEmail() { //In view for CAPTCHA: <%= Html.GenerateCaptcha() %> return View(); } [CaptchaValidator] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult SubmitEmail(FormCollection formValues, bool captchaValid) { //Validate form fields, send email if everything's good... if (isError) { return View(); } else { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } } public void SendEmail(string title, string name, string email, string message) { //Send an email... } } What would happen if I applied OutputCache to the whole controller here? Would the HTTP POST form submission work? Also, my form has a CAPTCHA; would that change anything in the equation? In other words, what's the best way to approach caching with dynamic pages? Thanks in advance.

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• asp.net mvc client side validation; manually calling validation via javascript for ajax posts

  - by Jopache

  Under the built in client side validation (Microsoft mvc validation in mvc 2) using data annotations, when you try to submit a form and the fields are invalid, you will get the red validation summary next to the fields and the form will not post. However, I am using jquery form plugin to intercept the submit action on that form and doing the post via ajax. This is causing it to ignore validation; the red text shows up; but the form posts anyways. Is there an easy way to manually call the validation via javascript when I'm submitting the form? I am still kind of a javascript n00b. I tried googling it with no results and looking through the js source code makes my head hurt trying to figure it out. Or would you all recommend that I look in to some other validation framework? I liked the idea of jquery validate; but would like to define my validation requirements only in my viewmodel. Any experiences with xval or anything of the sort?

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• batch file to merge .js files from subfolders into one combined file

  - by Andrew Johns

  I'm struggling to get this to work. Plenty of examples on the web, but they all do something just slightly different to what I'm aiming to do, and every time I think I can solve it, I get hit by an error that means nothing to me. After giving up on the JSLint.VS plugin, I'm attempting to create a batch file that I can call from a Visual Studio build event, or perhaps from cruise control, which will generate JSLint warnings for a project. The final goal is to get a combined js file that I can pass to jslint, using: cscript jslint.js < tmp.js which would validate that my scripts are ready to be combined into one file for use in a js minifier, or output a bunch of errors using standard output. but the js files that would make up tmp.js are likely to be in multiple subfolders in the project, e.g: D:\_projects\trunk\web\projectname\js\somefile.debug.js D:\_projects\trunk\web\projectname\js\jquery\plugins\jquery.plugin.js The ideal solution would be to be able to call a batch file along the lines of: jslint.bat %ProjectPath% and this would then combine all the js files within the project into one temp js file. This way I would have flexibility in which project was being passed to the batch file. I've been trying to make this work with copy, xcopy, type, and echo, and using a for do loop, with dir /s etc, to make it do what I want, but whatever I try I get an error.

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• jquery form validation: validation script specified externally

  - by Abu Hamzah

  i have a jquery form validation in the master page and it works fine and i got that working from this article: http://www.dotnetcurry.com/ShowArticle.aspx?ID=310 my question is: if i place the .js to external and add a reference to my page then its not working... it says object expected here is how i have done: in my content page (i am using master page, asp.net ) add in my content page: <script src="myform_validation.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { ValidateMe(this); }); </script> below is in the external .js file: function ValidateMe() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { <%=TextBox1.UniqueID %>: { maxlength:1, //minlength: 12, required: true }, <%=TextBox2.UniqueID %>: { minlength: 12, required: true }, <%=TextBox3.UniqueID %>: { minlength: 12, required: true }//, // }, messages: { <%=TextBox1.UniqueID %>: { required: "Enter your firstname", minlength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters") }, <%=TextBox2.UniqueID %>: { required: "Please enter a valid email address", minlength: "Please enter a valid email address" } , <%=TextBox3.UniqueID %>: { required: "Enter your firstname", minlength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters") } } , success: function(label) { // set &nbsp; as text for IE label.html("&nbsp;").addClass("checked"); } }); } ;

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• Custom ConfigurationSection: CallbackValidator called with empty string

  - by Paolo Tedesco

  I am writing a custom configuration section, and I would like to validate a configuration property with a callback, like in this example: using System; using System.Configuration; class CustomSection : ConfigurationSection { [ConfigurationProperty("stringValue", IsRequired = false)] [CallbackValidator(Type = typeof(CustomSection), CallbackMethodName = "ValidateString")] public string StringValue { get { return (string)this["stringValue"]; } set { this["stringValue"] = value; } } public static void ValidateString(object value) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty((string)value)) { throw new ArgumentException("string must not be empty."); } } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { CustomSection cfg = (CustomSection)ConfigurationManager.GetSection("customSection"); Console.WriteLine(cfg.StringValue); } } And my App.config file looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="customSection" type="CustomSection, config-section"/> </configSections> <customSection stringValue="lorem ipsum"/> </configuration> My problem is that when the ValidateString function is called, the value parameter is always an empty string, and therefore the validation fails. If i just remove the validator, the string value is correctly initialized to the value in the configuration file. What am I missing? EDIT I discovered that actually the validation function is being called twice: the first time with the default value of the property, which is an empty string if nothing is specified, the second time with the real value read from the configuration file. Is there a way to modify this behavior?

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• Validation without ServiceLocator

  - by Dmitriy Nagirnyak

  Hi, I am getting back again and again to it thinking about the best way to perform validation on POCO objects that need access to some context (ISession in NH, IRepository for example). The only option I still can see is to use S*ervice Locator*, so my validation would look like: public User : ICanValidate { public User() {} // We need this constructor (so no context known) public virtual string Username { get; set; } public IEnumerable<ValidationError> Validate() { if (ServiceLocator.GetService<IUserRepository>().FindUserByUsername(Username) != null) yield return new ValidationError("Username", "User already exists.") } } I already use Inversion Of control and Dependency Injection and really don't like the ServiceLocator due to number of facts: Harder to maintain implicit dependencies. Harder to test the code. Potential threading issues. Explicit dependency only on the ServiceLocator. The code becomes harder to understand. Need to register the ServiceLocator interfaces during the testing. But on the other side, with plain POCO objects, I do not see any other way of performing the validation like above without ServiceLocator and only using IoC/DI. So the question would be: is there any way to use DI/IoC for the situation described above? Thanks, Dmitriy.

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• Conditional required field validation in an ASP.net ListView

  - by Jim Dagg

  I'm having a heck of a time trying to figure out how to implement validation in a ListView. The goal is to require the user to enter text in the comments TextBox, but only if the CheckBox is checked. Downside is that these controls are in the EditTemplate of a ListView. Below is a snippet of the relevant code portion of the EditTemplate: <tr style="background-color: #00CCCC; color: #000000"> <td> Assume Risk? <asp:CheckBox ID="chkWaive" runat="server" Checked='<%# Bind("Waive") %>' /> </td> <td colspan="5"> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="RequiredFieldValidator1" runat="server" ErrorMessage="Comments required" ControlToValidate="txtComments" /> <asp:TextBox Width="95%" ID="txtComments" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("Comment") %>'></asp:TextBox> </td> <td> <asp:Button ID="btnSave" runat="server" Text="Save" CommandName="Update" Width="100px" /> </td> </tr> Is there a way to do conditional validation using this method? If not, is there a way I could validate manually in the ItemUpdating event of the Listview, or somewhere else, and on a failure, alert the user of the error via a label or popup alert?

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• Submit information to url, but also open PDF

  - by Mad Ducky Digital Branding

  I have a client whose desire is to have her Wordpress blog show a MailChimp form on her home page as a gateway to a .pdf. I need the following behavior to occur when the user clicks "Submit": execute the included MailChimp's javascript file; this ensures the form was properly filled, and then performs the sign-up to the newsletter list (don't need help with this part) then show the user an informational PDF for download or viewing EDIT: The logical order was flipped from when I originally posted this. The script should execute, and only if the script gets executed properly should the PDF show to the user Note: My experience level with HTML and PHP is 3/4, and with JS I am 2/4 EDIT: (seems more like 1/4 at this point lol). If my research is correct, PHP (server-side language) would be used to do that which the client wants. Additional validation is not necessary beyond what MailChimp's script provides (it ensures that user has submitted a completed form) is not necessary in this case (the client says it's ok if the e-mail isn't valid at all). EDIT: Reworded this sentence from original post to be more clear The .pdf URL and content is static, and simply needs to be shown, not generated. ----RESEARCH---- I know that the Mailchimp form uses the following line to actually submit the information, but I want to do the action mentioned below, as well as open the aforementioned .pdf: <form action="http://*BLAH*.us2.list-manage.com/subscribe/post?u=*BLAHBLAH*&amp;id=*BLAHBLAHBLAH*" method="post" id="mc-embedded-subscribe-form" name="mc-embedded-subscribe-form" class="validate" target="_blank"> I am reading on other sites that I can conceivably point "action" to a .php file, but if there is a way to do this with javascript - since its using the .js file that I created for that already anyways, then I would be most happy. Barring that, I'll take what I can get.. ----SOLUTION?---- ...

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• ASP.NET: aggregating validators in a user control

  - by orsogufo

  I am developing a web application where I would like to perform a set of validations on a certain field (an account name in the specific case). I need to check that the value is not empty, matches a certain pattern and is not already used. I tried to create a UserControl that aggregates a RequiredFieldValidator, a RegexValidator and a CustomValidator, then I created a ControlToValidate property like this: public partial class AccountNameValidator : System.Web.UI.UserControl { public string ControlToValidate { get { return ViewState["ControlToValidate"] as string; } set { ViewState["ControlToValidate"] = value; AccountNameRequiredFieldValidator.ControlToValidate = value; AccountNameRegexValidator.ControlToValidate = value; AccountNameUniqueValidator.ControlToValidate = value; } } } However, if I insert the control on a page and set ControlToValidate to some control ID, when the page loads I get an error that says Unable to find control id 'AccountName' referenced by the 'ControlToValidate' property of 'AccountNameRequiredFieldValidator', which makes me think that the controls inside my UserControl cannot resolve correctly the controls in the parent page. So, I have two questions: 1) Is it possible to have validator controls inside a UserControl validate a control in the parent page? 2) Is it correct and good practice to "aggregate" multiple validator controls in a UserControl? If not, what is the standard way to proceed?

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