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  • vb.net documentation and exception question

    - by dcp
    Let's say I have this sub in vb.net: ''' <summary> ''' Validates that <paramref name="value"/> is not <c>null</c>. ''' </summary> ''' ''' <param name="value">The object to validate.</param> ''' ''' <param name="name">The variable name of the object.</param> ''' ''' <exception cref="ArgumentNullException">If <paramref name="value"/> is <c>null</c>.</exception> Sub ValidateNotNull(ByVal value As Object, ByVal name As String) If value Is Nothing Then Throw New ArgumentNullException(name, String.Format("{0} cannot be null.", name)) End If End Sub My question is, is it proper to call this ValidateNotNull (which is what I would call it in C#) or should I stick with VB terminology and call it ValidateNotNothing instead? Also, in my exception, is it proper to say "cannot be null", or would it be better to say "cannot be Nothing"? I sort of like the way I have it, but since this is VB, maybe I should use Nothing. But since the exception itself is called ArgumentNullException, it feels weird to make the message say "cannot be Nothing". Anyway, I guess it's pretty nitkpicky, just wondered what you folks thought.

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  • CallbackValidator called with empty string

    - by Paolo Tedesco
    I am writing a custom configuration section, and I would like to validate a configuration property with a callback, like in this example: using System; using System.Configuration; class CustomSection : ConfigurationSection { [ConfigurationProperty("stringValue", IsRequired = false)] [CallbackValidator(Type = typeof(CustomSection), CallbackMethodName = "ValidateString")] public string StringValue { get { return (string)this["stringValue"]; } set { this["stringValue"] = value; } } public static void ValidateString(object value) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty((string)value)) { throw new ArgumentException("string must not be empty."); } } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { CustomSection cfg = (CustomSection)ConfigurationManager.GetSection("customSection"); Console.WriteLine(cfg.StringValue); } } And my App.config file looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="customSection" type="CustomSection, config-section"/> </configSections> <customSection stringValue="lorem ipsum"/> </configuration> My problem is that when the ValidateString function is called, the value parameter is always an empty string, and therefore the validation fails. If i just remove the validator, the string value is correctly initialized to the value in the configuration file. What am I missing?

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  • Java performance issue

    - by Colby77
    Hi, I've got a question related to java performance and method execution. In my app there are a lot of place where I have to validate some parameter, so I've written a Validator class and put all the validation methods into it. Here is an example: public class NumberValidator { public static short shortValidator(String s) throws ValidationException{ try{ short sh = Short.parseShort(s); if(sh < 1){ throw new ValidationException(); } return sh; }catch (Exception e) { throw new ValidationException("The parameter is wrong!"); } } ... But I'm thinking about that. Is this OK? It's OO and modularized, but - considering performance - is it a good idea? What if I had awful lot of invocation at the same time? The snippet above is short and fast, but there are some methods that take more time. What happens when there are a lot of calling to a static method or an instance method in the same class and the method is not synchronized? All the calling methods have to fall in line and the JVM executes them sequentially? Is it a good idea to have some class that are identical to the above-mentioned and randomly call their identical methods? I think it is not, because "Don't repeat yourself " and "Duplication is Evil" etc. But what about performance? Thanks is advance.

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  • jQuery Validation plugin results in empty AJAX POST

    - by user305412
    Hi, I have tried to solve this issue for at couple of days with no luck. I have a form, where I use the validation plugin, and when I try to submit it, it submits empty vars. Now, if I remove the validation, everything works fine. Here is my implementation: $(document).ready(function(){ $("#myForm").validate({ rules: { field1: { required: true, minlength: 5 }, field2: { required: true, minlength: 10 } }, messages: { field1: "this is required", field2: "this is required", }, errorLabelContainer: $("#validate_msg"), invalidHandler: function(e, validator) { var errors = validator.numberOfInvalids(); if (errors) { $("#validate_div").show(); } }, onkeyup: false, success: false, submitHandler: function(form) { doAjaxPost(form); } }); }); function doAjaxPost(form) { // do some stuff $(form).ajaxSubmit(); return false; } As I wrote this does not work when I have my validation, BUT if I remove that, and just add an onsubmit="doAjaxPost(this.form); return false"; to my HTML form, it works - any clue??? Now here is the funny thing, everything works as it should in Safari, but not in firefox 3.6.2 (Mac OS X)!

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  • restrict script inside iframe to run only within pages of same top-level domain?

    - by Justin Grant
    I'd like to enforce a requirement that client script inside a page (which in turn is loaded inside an iframe of another page) will only run when the parent page is on the same top-level domain as the framed page (although it may be on another hostname in that domain). Is this do-able? I assume that the easy solution of looking at top.location.host won't be available due to cross-site scripting limitations, but I'm wondering if other javascript hackery could suffice. Constraints on any potential solution inculde: I need to be able to run XmlHttpRequest calls inside the child page, and I need to validate that the hostname is in the same domain before I make those calls. (this makes a document.domain solution challenging because AFAIK setting document.domain disables the ability to make XmlHttpRequest calls. I can control client-side script and HTML on both parent or child (and I can create new pages if needed), but I can't make any server-side code changes. I can't simulate the above via server-side calls or proxies, because the child page's hostname uses a forms auth system with hostname-scoped cookies that I can't get access to from the parent page since it's on a different hostname. I don't have enough control over the child-frame site to be able to put both sites behind the same reverse-proxy or load-balancer (which would enable me to put both sites on the same hostname). I don't actually need to access any UI inside the IFrame-- the iframe is invisible and I'm only using it to run javascript within the security context of a site on a different hostname from the parent page. So at this point I'm stumped. Got any ideas? I want to make sure I'm not overlooking an easy solution before giving up.

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  • [iphone,twitter] Accessing the Twitter API through a proxy using NSURLConnectionsm, OAuth problem

    - by akaii
    I'm having no problems with sending an update directly via hxxps://api.twitter.com/, but the app (for the Iphone, I'm using NSURLConnections) I'm working is supposed to allow the user to select a preferred proxy (e.g. hxxps://twitter-proxy.appspot.com/api/ or hxxps://nest.onedd.net/api/), and I keep getting a 401 error (Failed to validate oauth signature and token) whenever I try to get an access token via these proxies. Even though I send my POST request to the proxy, I am still using the direct url for the api (https:// api.twitter.com/[rest api path]) in the base string. Despite the 401 error message above, the status code I'm actually getting from connection:didReceiveResponse: is 200, probably because it was able to successfully contact the proxy... Is there anything else that I need to consider when using a proxy to access the API? Should anything in the authorization header change, for example? Or the base string? I can manage to connect via Basic Auth without issue, but support for that will be dropped in a month. On a somewhat unrelated note... What are the possible causes of Twitter's error 403, and how do you distinguish between them? Is the only way to differentiate an error due to exceeding the status update limit for an hour (150 per hour) vs for a day (1000 per day) by checking the string reply returned in the response? Is there any way for me to simulate a status update limit error without going through the motions of actually sending 150/1000 tweets?

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  • rails: has_many :through validation?

    - by ramonrails
    Rails 2.1.0 (Cannot upgrade for now due to several constraints) I am trying to achieve this. Any hints? A project has many users through join model A user has many projects through join model Admin class inherits User class. It also has some Admin specific stuff. Admin like inheritance for Supervisor and Operator Project has one Admin, One supervisor and many operators. Now I want to 1. submit data for project, admin, supervisor and operator in a single project form 2. validate all and show errors on the project form. Project has_many :projects_users ; has_many :users, :through => :projects_users User has_many :projects_users ; has_many :projects, :through => :projects_users ProjectsUser = :id integer, :user_id :integer, :project_id :integer, :user_type :string ProjectUser belongs_to :project, belongs_to :user Admin < User # User has 'type:string' column for STI Supervisor < User Operator < User Is the approach correct? Any and all suggestions are welcome.

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  • JSF how to temporary disable validators to save draft

    - by Swiety
    I have a pretty complex form with lots of inputs and validators. For the user it takes pretty long time (even over an hour) to complete that, so they would like to be able to save the draft data, even if it violates rules like mandatory fields being not typed in. I believe this problem is common to many web applications, but can't find any well recognised pattern how this should be implemented. Can you please advise how to achieve that? For now I can see the following options: use of immediate=true on "Save draft" button doesn't work, as the UI data would not be stored on the bean, so I wouldn't be able to access it. Technically I could find the data in UI component tree, but traversing that doesn't seem to be a good idea. remove all the fields validation from the page and validate the data programmaticaly in the action listener defined for the form. Again, not a good idea, form is really complex, there are plenty of fields so validation implemented this way would be very messy. implement my own validators, that would be controlled by some request attribute, which would be set for standard form submission (with full validation expected) and would be unset for "save as draft" submission (when validation should be skipped). Again, not a good solution, I would need to provide my own wrappers for all validators I am using. But as you see no one is really reasonable. Is there really no simple solution to the problem?

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  • Login with Kohana auth module - what am I doing wrong?

    - by keithjgrant
    I'm trying to login with the following controller action, but my login attempt keeps failing (I get the 'invalid username and/or password' message). What am I doing wrong? I also tried the other method given in the examples in the auth documentation, Auth::instance()->login($user->username, $form->password);, but I get the same result. Kohana version is 2.3.4. public function login() { $auth = Auth::instance(); if ($auth->logged_in()) { url::redirect('/account/summary'); } $view = new View('login'); $view->username = ''; $view->password = ''; $post = $this->input->post(); $form = new Validation($post); $form->pre_filter('trim', 'username') ->pre_filter('trim', 'password') ->add_rules('username', 'required'); $failed = false; if (!empty($post) && $form->validate()) { $login = array( 'username' => $form->username, 'password' => $form->password, ); if (ORM::factory('user')->login($login)) { url::redirect('/accounts/summary'); } else { $view->username = $form->username; $view->message = in_array('required', $form->errors()) ? 'Username and password are required.' : 'Invalid username and/or password.'; } } $view->render(true); }

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  • Help a Beginner with a PHP based Login System

    - by Brian Lang
    I'm a bit embarrassed to say, but I've run into issue with creating a PHP based login system. I'm using a site template to handle the looks of the the login process, so I will spare you the code. Here is my thought process on how to handle the login: Create a simple login.php file. On there will be a form whose action is set to itself. It will check to see if the submit has been clicked, and if so validate to make sure the user entered a valid password / username. If they do, set a session variable save some login info (username, NOT password), and redirect them to a restricted area. If the login info isn't valid, save an error message in a session variable, display error message giving further instruction, and wait for the user to resubmit. Here is a chunk of what I have - hopefully one of you experts can see where I've gone wrong, and give me some insight: if(isset($_POST['submit'])) { if(!empty($_POST['username']) AND !empty(!$_POST['password'])) { header("Location: http://www.google.com"); } else { $err = 'All the fields must be filled in!'; } } if($err) { $_SESSION['msg']['login-err'] = $err; } ? Now the above is just an example - the intent of the above code is to process user input, with the script validating simply that the user has given input for username and password. If they have, I would like them, in this case, to be redirected to google.com (for the sake of this example). If not, save an error message. Given my current code, the error message will display perfectly, however if the user submits and has something entered for the username and password, the page simply doesn't redirect. I'm sure this is a silly question, but I am a beginner, and well, to be honest, a bit buzzed right now. Thanks so much!

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  • Why do mozilla and webkit prepend -moz- and -webkit- to CSS3 rules?

    - by egarcia
    CSS3 rules bring lots of interesting features. Take border-radius, for example. The standard says that if you write this rule: div.rounded-corners { border-radius: 5px; } I should get a 5px border radius. But neither mozilla nor webkit implement this. However, they implement the same thing, with the same parameters, with a different name (-moz-border-radius and -webkit-border-radius, respectively). In order to satisfy as many browsers as possible, you end up with this: div.rounded-corners { border-radius: 5px; -moz-border-radius: 5px; -webkit-border-radius: 5px; } I can see two obvious disadvantages: Copy-paste code. This has obvious risks that I will not discuss here. The W3C CSS validator will not validate these rules. At the same time, I don't see any obvious advantages. I believe that the people behind mozilla and webkit are more intelligent than myself. There must be some good reasons to have things structured this way. It's just that I can't see them. So, I must ask you people: why is this?

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  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Group

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, Customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.) In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on their account. When calling something like ValidateUser, I have access to their affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to which to compare it. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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  • Apps with lable XYZ could not be found

    - by HWM-Rocker
    Hello folks, today I ran into an error and have no clue how to fix it. Error: App with label XYZ could not be found. Are you sure your INSTALLED_APPS setting is correct? Where XYZ stands for the app-name that I am trying to reset. This error shows up every time I try to reset it (manage.py reset XYZ). Show all the sql code works. Even manage.py validate shows no error. I already commented out every single line of code in the models.py that I touched the last three monts. (function by function, model by model) And even if there are no models left I get this error. Here http://code.djangoproject.com/ticket/10706 I found a bugreport about this error. I also applied one the patches to allocate the error, it raises an exception so you have a trace back, but even there is no sign in what of my files the error occurred. I don't want to paste my code right now, because it is nearly 1000 lines of code in the file I edited the most. If someone of you had the same error please tell me were I can look for the problem. In that case I can post the important part of the source. Otherwise it would be too much at once. Thank you for helping!!!

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  • Help with Struts Action mapping

    - by nicotine
    I am having a problem with my struts application it is a class enrollment app and when the user clicks on a "show enrolled courses" button it is supposed to show the courses they are enrolled in but it shows nothing at the moment. Struts/Apache does not return any errors, it Just shows a blank page and I cannot figure out why. My action mapping in my struts-config: <action path="/showEnrolled" type="actions.ShowEnrolledAction" name="UserFormEnrolled" scope="request" validate="true" input="/students/StudentMenu.jsp"> <forward name="success" path="/students/enrolled.jsp"/> </action> My link to the jsp enrolled.jsp page: <li><html:form action="/showEnrolled"> <html:hidden property="id" value= "<%=request.getRemoteUser()%>"/> <html:submit value = "View Enrolled Classes"/> </html:form> </li> When I click the link I get nothing but my menu on the page. The text headings for the page are not even displayed.

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  • How to pass a value from the Jquery validation

    - by user2963960
    How can i pass a value from the jquery validation. I have an input box named clubCardNumber it should validate the length of the inputted value. If the length is equal to 10 the value passes to the hidden field named else validated it if its null or empty if all validations are true then its a clubCard. Here is how i implemented it on Javascript function validateClubCardNumber() { var varClubCardNumber = $('#clubCardNumber').val(); $('#phoneNumber').val(""); var returnVal = true; if ((null == varClubCardNumber || '' == trim(varClubCardNumber)){ return false; } if( varClubCardNumber.length < 10 ){ return false; }else if( varClubCardNumber.length == 10 ) { //The Phone Number field should contains numbers only var pattern = /^[0-9 -]*$/ ; var flag = pattern.test(trim(varClubCardNumber)); if(flag == false){ return false; }else{ $('#phoneNumber').val(varClubCardNumber); returnVal = true; } } } return returnVal; } HTML <div > <label for="clubCardNumber" >Card or Phone Number:</label> <input id="clubCardNumber" name="clubCardNumber" type="text" placeholder="Card or Phone Number" value="" maxlength="20"/> </div> <input type="hidden" id="phoneNumber" name="phoneNumber" value=""/>

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  • Why are Managed Beans not loaded in Tomcat?

    - by c0d3x
    Hi, I created a JSF 2 web application with facelets. The libs for JSF where stored at tomcat/lib, to share it between several applications. I thought maybe it would be better to store the libs inside the WEB-INF/lib folder of the application, to get the application more independent from server configurations. Now when I start tomcat via eclipse, the managed beans are loaded and working. But when I start tomcat directly / standalone the managed beans are not loaded automatically. I used @ManagedBean @SessionScoped / @RequestScoped annotations to declare classes as managed beans. Why is this? What can I do to fix it? I don't use any faces-config.xml file yet. Thanks in advance. edited: Maybe this helps to see whats going on: javax.el.PropertyNotFoundException: /Artikel.xhtml @12,108 value="#{artikelBackingBean.nameFilterPattern}": Target Unreachable, identifier 'artikelBackingBean' resolved to null at com.sun.faces.facelets.el.TagValueExpression.getType(TagValueExpression.java:93) at com.sun.faces.renderkit.html_basic.HtmlBasicInputRenderer.getConvertedValue(HtmlBasicInputRenderer.java:95) at javax.faces.component.UIInput.getConvertedValue(UIInput.java:1008) at javax.faces.component.UIInput.validate(UIInput.java:934) at javax.faces.component.UIInput.executeValidate(UIInput.java:1189) at javax.faces.component.UIInput.processValidators(UIInput.java:691) at javax.faces.component.UIForm.processValidators(UIForm.java:243) at javax.faces.component.UIComponentBase.processValidators(UIComponentBase.java:1080) at javax.faces.component.UIViewRoot.processValidators(UIViewRoot.java:1180) at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.ProcessValidationsPhase.execute(ProcessValidationsPhase.java:76) at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.Phase.doPhase(Phase.java:101) at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.LifecycleImpl.execute(LifecycleImpl.java:118) at javax.faces.webapp.FacesServlet.service(FacesServlet.java:312) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:290) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapperValve.invoke(StandardWrapperValve.java:233) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContextValve.invoke(StandardContextValve.java:191) at org.apache.catalina.authenticator.AuthenticatorBase.invoke(AuthenticatorBase.java:433) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardHostValve.invoke(StandardHostValve.java:128) at org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java:102) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardEngineValve.invoke(StandardEngineValve.java:109) at org.apache.catalina.connector.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java:293) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Processor.process(Http11Processor.java:849) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol$Http11ConnectionHandler.process(Http11Protocol.java:583) at org.apache.tomcat.util.net.JIoEndpoint$Worker.run(JIoEndpoint.java:454) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:619)

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  • Grails , how do I get an object NOT to save

    - by user350325
    Hello I am new to grails and trying to create a form which allows a user to change the email address associated with his/her account for a site I am creating. It asks for the user for their current password and also for the new email address they want to use. If the user enters the wrong password or an invalid email address then it should reject them with an appropriate error message. Now the email validation can be done through constraints in grails, but the password change has to match their current password. I have implemented this check as a method on a service class. See code below: def saveEmail = { def client = ClientUser.get(session.clientUserID) client.email = params.email if(clientUserService.checkPassword(session.clientUserID , params.password) ==false) { flash.message = "Incorrect Password" client.discard() redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else if(!client.validate()) { flash.message = "Invalid Email Address" redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else { client.save(); session.clientUserID = null; flash.message = "Your email address has been changed, please login again" redirect(controller: 'clientLogin' , action:'index') } } Now what I noticed that was odd was that if I entered an invalid email then it would not save the changes (as expected) BUT if I entered the wrong password and a valid email then it would save the changes and even write them back into the database even though it would give the correct "invalid password" error message. I was puzzled so set break points in all the if/else if/else blocks and found that it was hitting the first if statement as expected and not hitting the others , so it would never come accross a call to the save() method, yet it was saved anyway. After a little research I came accross documentation for the discard() method which you can see used in the code above. So I added this but still no avail. I even tried using discard then reloading the client object from the DB again but still no dice. This is very frustrating and I would be grateful for any help, since I think that this should surely not be a complicated requirement!

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  • How to use the same element name in different purposes ( in XML and DTD ) ?

    - by BugKiller
    Hi, I Want to create a DTD schema for this xml document: <root> <student> <name> <firstname>S1</firstname> <lastname>S2</lastname> </name> </student> <course> <name>CS101</name> </course> </root> as you can see , the element name in the course contains plain text ,but the element name in the student is complex type ( first-name, last-name ). The following is the DTD: <!ELEMENT root (course|student)*> <!ELEMENT student (name)> <!ELEMENT name (lastname|firstname)> <!ELEMENT firstname (#PCDATA)> <!ELEMENT lastname (#PCDATA)> <!ELEMENT course (name)> When I want to validate it , I get an error because the course's name has different structure then the student's name . My Question: how can I make a work-around solution for this situation without changing the name of element name using DTD not xml schema . Thanks.

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  • Windows SQL wildcards and ASP.net parameters

    - by Vinzcent
    Hey In my SQL statement I use wildcards. But when I try to select something, it never select something. While when I execute the querry in Microsoft SQL Studio, it works fine. What am I doing wrong? Click handler protected void btnTitelAuteur_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { cvalTitelAuteur.Enabled = true; cvalTitelAuteur.Validate(); if (Page.IsValid) { objdsSelectedBooks.SelectMethod = "getBooksByTitleAuthor"; objdsSelectedBooks.SelectParameters.Clear(); objdsSelectedBooks.SelectParameters.Add(new Parameter("title", DbType.String)); objdsSelectedBooks.SelectParameters.Add(new Parameter("author", DbType.String)); objdsSelectedBooks.Select(); gvSelectedBooks.DataBind(); pnlZoeken.Visible = false; pnlKiezen.Visible = true; } } In my Data Acces Layer public static DataTable getBooksByTitleAuthor(string title, string author) { string sql = "SELECT 'AUTHOR' = tblAuthors.FIRSTNAME + ' ' + tblAuthors.LASTNAME, tblBooks.*, tblGenres.GENRE " + "FROM tblAuthors INNER JOIN tblBooks ON tblAuthors.AUTHOR_ID = tblBooks.AUTHOR_ID INNER JOIN tblGenres ON tblBooks.GENRE_ID = tblGenres.GENRE_ID " +"WHERE (tblBooks.TITLE LIKE '%@title%');"; SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(sql, GetConnectionString()); da.SelectCommand.Parameters.Add("@title", SqlDbType.Text); da.SelectCommand.Parameters["@title"].Value = title; DataSet ds = new DataSet(); da.Fill(ds, "Books"); return ds.Tables["Books"]; } Thanks, Vincent

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  • How to return value using ajax

    - by Priyanka
    Hello. I have Ajax file in which code has written to accept values form user and then these values are taken in a Ajax function as follows: $(document).ready(function(){ $("#newsletterform").validate(); $('#Submit').click(function(){ var name = $('#newsletter_name').val(); var email = $('#newsletter_email').val(); sendValue(email,name); }); }); The function for paasing values and getting values from other file: function sendValue(str,name){ $.post( "newsletter/subscribe.php", //Ajax file { sendValue: str, sendVal: name }, function(data2){ $('#display').html(data2.returnValue); }, //How you want the data formated when it is returned from the server. "json" ); } and these values are passed to another file called "subscribe.php" in which insertion code to database is written and again I return the value to my first ajax function as follows: echo json_encode(array("returnValue"=$msg)); The msg is ging to contain my message to be displayed. But now, this works fine on localhost, I get the return values nad message properly but when I upload it on server this gives me an error as: data2 is null [Break on this error] $('#display').html(data2.returnValue); This only gives error for return value but insertion, sending mail functionality works fine. Please provide me with a good solution wherein I can be able to get back the return values without any error. Thanks in advance.

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  • Login page shows blank

    - by user481913
    The login page on a project i'm currently fixing up shows blank. i tried echoing some words to find out where the fault lied. I found out that commenting out the below piece of code made it to display. elseif( isset($_POST['do_login'] ) ){//Login user $email = (isset($_POST['login']) && is_string($_POST['login']) && strlen($_POST['login'])<100)?$_POST['login'] : null; $password = (isset($_POST['password']) && is_string($_POST['password']) && strlen($_POST['password'])<100)?$_POST['password'] : null; $remember = isset($_POST['chkremember']) ? true : false; $result = $auth->login($email, $password, $remember); switch($result){ case 1: $msg = 'You have successfully logged in.' break; case 2: $msg = 'Your account has not yet been confirmed. <br/> Please check the e-mail message sent by us and click the confirmation code to validate this account. <a href="user_login.php?view=resend&resend_email='.$email.'">resend activation e-mail</a>'; break; case 3: $msg = 'Your account is not enabled!'; break; case 4: $msg = 'Account with given login credentials does not exist!'; break; } } Can anyone help me figiure out what's wrong with this piece of code?

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  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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  • XSD validation on the sequence of attributes.

    - by infant programmer
    How to validate the sequence of attributes? In my sample XML: <root id1="1" id2="2" id3="3" id4=""> <node/> </root> the appearance of attributes of root must come in same order as written above, however the xsd what I have written accepts the attributes in any order, here is the XSD: <xs:element name="root"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="node" /> </xs:sequence> <xs:attributeGroup ref="attt"/> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> <xs:attributeGroup name="attt"> <xs:attribute name="id1" type="xs:string" use="required" form="qualified"/> <xs:attribute name="id2" type="xs:string" use="required" form="qualified"/> <xs:attribute name="id3" type="xs:string" use="required" form="qualified"/> <xs:attribute name="id4" type="xs:string" use="required" form="qualified"/> </xs:attributeGroup> Is it possible to put restriction on the sequence of attribute?

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  • Shall this Regex do what I expect from it, that is, matching against "A1:B10,C3,D4:E1000"?

    - by Will Marcouiller
    I'm currently writing a library where I wish to allow the user to be able to specify spreadsheet cell(s) under four possible alternatives: A single cell: "A1"; Multiple contiguous cells: "A1:B10" Multiple separate cells: "A1,B6,I60,AA2" A mix of 2 and 3: "B2:B12,C13:C18,D4,E11000" Then, to validate whether the input respects these formats, I intended to use a regular expression to match against. I have consulted this article on Wikipedia: Regular Expression (Wikipedia) And I also found this related SO question: regex matching alpha character followed by 4 alphanumerics. Based on the information provided within the above-linked articles, I would try with this Regex: Default Readonly Property Cells(ByVal cellsAddresses As String) As ReadOnlyDictionary(Of String, ICell) Get Dim validAddresses As Regex = New Regex("A-Za-z0-9:,A-Za-z0-9") If (Not validAddresses.IsMatch(cellsAddresses)) then _ Throw New FormatException("cellsAddresses") // Proceed with getting the cells from the Interop here... End Get End Property Questions 1. Is my regular expression correct? If not, please help me understand what expression I could use. 2. What exception is more likely to be the more meaningful between a FormatException and an InvalidExpressionException? I hesitate here, since it is related to the format under which the property expect the cells to be input, aside, I'm using an (regular) expression to match against. Thank you kindly for your help and support! =)

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  • Should I be worried about a ReDOS attack?

    - by PeeHaa
    Can the following code be use to ReDOS attack my site? Or will it just be ended when the max_execution_time is exceeded or is it a problem of the past? I use the following code to validate emailaddresses on my sites (by Douglas Lovell): function validate_email($email) { $isValid = true; $atIndex = strrpos($email, "@"); if (is_bool($atIndex) && !$atIndex) { $isValid = false; } else { $domain = substr($email, $atIndex+1); $local = substr($email, 0, $atIndex); $localLen = strlen($local); $domainLen = strlen($domain); if ($localLen < 1 || $localLen > 64) { // local part length exceeded $isValid = false; } else if ($domainLen < 1 || $domainLen > 255) { // domain part length exceeded $isValid = false; } else if ($local[0] == '.' || $local[$localLen-1] == '.') { // local part starts or ends with '.' $isValid = false; } else if (preg_match('/\\.\\./', $local)) { // local part has two consecutive dots $isValid = false; } else if (!preg_match('/^[A-Za-z0-9\\-\\.]+$/', $domain)) { // character not valid in domain part $isValid = false; } else if (preg_match('/\\.\\./', $domain)) { // domain part has two consecutive dots $isValid = false; } else if(!preg_match('/^(\\\\.|[A-Za-z0-9!#%&`_=\\/$\'*+?^{}|~.-])+$/', str_replace("\\\\","",$local))) { // character not valid in local part unless // local part is quoted if (!preg_match('/^"(\\\\"|[^"])+"$/', str_replace("\\\\","",$local))) { $isValid = false; } } if ($isValid && !(checkdnsrr($domain,"MX") || checkdnsrr($domain,"A"))) { // domain not found in DNS $isValid = false; } } return $isValid; }

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