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• MacBook Pro (OSX Lion) - shutdown automatically before reaching login screen

  - by mkk

  When I try to lunch my MacBook Pro I can see a progress bar on loading screen. It goes to 1/15 or something like this and then it shut downs - I cannot reach even login screen. It happened to me 2 months ago, I have 'fixed' this by formatting my hard drive and installing OSX (Lion) again. This time I think that situation is a little bit different - I am able to enter single-user mode by pressing cmd + s. I then type /sbin/fsck -yf, I get the error: ** Checking Journaled HFS Plus volume. The volume name is Macintosh HD ** Checking extents overflow file. ** Checking catalog file. Invalid node structure (4, 24704) ** The volume Macintosh HD could not be verified completely. /dev/rdisk0s2 (hfs) EXITED WITH SIGNAL 8 but when I type exit, I can the login screen and I can log in. I tried a lot of things, booting from recovery partition and choosing disk utility to repair the disc, but I get error that it cannot be repaired. I have googled for hours and the only real solution I have found was to buy Disc warrior that might fix the issue. Any other suggestions? Secondary question is what causes this issue? I thought the reason are bad sectors, but Smart Utility haven't found any. I found suggestion that RAM could cause this kind of issue as well, so I downloaded rember and made memory test - all tests passed. Right now I have used my solution of entering single-mode user and then typing exit, however I am not sure how long it will 'work'. Of course I have back-uped what I considered important. Thanks for the help in advance! UPDATE: I guess Smart Utility was not very useful, I mnaged to get input/output error, which I believe is equivalent to bad sector.

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• Representing server state with a metric

  - by Sal

  I'm using Microsoft's Performance Monitor to dump logs of RAM, CPU, network, and disk usage from multiple servers. I'd like to get a single metric that captures the state of a given variable to a good extent. For instance, disk usage is pretty stable, so if I take a single reading that says I have 50% remaining disk space, that reading will give me an accurate measure for the day. (The servers aren't doing heavy IO writing.) However, the tricky part here is monitoring CPU and network usage. The logs currently dump the % CPU usage every ten seconds. If I take a straight average of the numbers, it may not represent reality, as % CPU will be much lower during the night than day. (We host websites that sell appliance items.) I'd like to get an average over a span during peak hours (about 5 hours in the day) and present a daily peak hour metric. Of course, there are most likely some readings that will come in as overly spiked (if multiple users pinged the server at once) or no use (a momentary idle state). Is there a standard distribution/test industries use in these situation?

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• Poor SSL performance with vsftpd

  - by petrus

  I'm trying to tweak vsftpd to achieve maximum performance for my usage: I have only one or two clients that connect to the server. File size is between ~15MB and 1GB. Typical transfer batch represent between 1 and 2GB of data. For testing purposes, I'm using a tmpfs on both sides (thus eliminating any disks bottleneck) with a single 1GB file. When SSL is disabled, performance is good, with a transfer rate at ~120MB/s (reaching the limits of gigabit networking). With SSL enabled only for control traffic (and not data traffic), performance drops at about 112MB/s, which is still within the acceptable limits. However, when SSL is enabled for data flows, the transfer speed drops dramatically: 6.7MB/s using 3DES & SHA (ssl_ciphers=DES-CBC3-SHA in vsftpd.conf) 16MB/s using DES & SHA (ssl_ciphers=DES-CBC-SHA) I didn't tested other ciphers, but from what I can see from the CPU usage during the transfer, it seems that vsftpd is only using a single cpu/core per client. While this can fit for large ftp sites with hundreds of clients, I'd like to avoid this behavior and use more ressources on the server. On a side note, if you have any ideas regarding other openssl ciphers...

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• GRE Tunnel over IPsec with Loopback

  - by Alek

  Hello, I'm having a really hard time trying to estabilish a VPN connection using a GRE over IPsec tunnel. The problem is that it involves some sort of "loopback" connection which I don't understand -- let alone be able to configure --, and the only help I could find is related to configuring Cisco routers. My network is composed of a router and a single host running Debian Linux. My task is to create a GRE tunnel over an IPsec infrastructure, which is particularly intended to route multicast traffic between my network, which I am allowed to configure, and a remote network, for which I only bear a form containing some setup information (IP addresses and phase information for IPsec). For now it suffices to estabilish a communication between this single host and the remote network, but in the future it will be desirable for the traffic to be routed to other machines on my network. As I said this GRE tunnel involves a "loopback" connection which I have no idea of how to configure. From my previous understanding, a loopback connection is simply a local pseudo-device used mostly for testing purposes, but in this context it might be something more specific that I do not have the knowledge of. I have managed to properly estabilish the IPsec communication using racoon and ipsec-tools, and I believe I'm familiar with the creation of tunnels and addition of addresses to interfaces using ip, so the focus is on the GRE step. The worst part is that the remote peers do not respond to ping requests and the debugging of the general setup is very difficult due to the encrypted nature of the traffic. There are two pairs of IP addresses involved: one pair for the GRE tunnel peer-to-peer connection and one pair for the "loopback" part. There is also an IP range involved, which is supposed to be the final IP addresses for the hosts inside the VPN. My question is: how (or if) can this setup be done? Do I need some special software or another daemon, or does the Linux kernel handle every aspect of the GRE/IPsec tunneling? Please inform me if any extra information could be useful. Any help is greatly appreciated.

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• AMD 700, 800 series chipset. I'm lost.

  - by Shiki

  I've been an Intel / NVidia user ever since I started using computers. Intel really gone up with the prices, and they won't get cheaper. So I decided to get an AMD. But WHICH one? I mean.. not shopping question but.. what are the differences? Like: 880GMA comes only with a single PCI ex and it looks like a chinese replica (no offense). While 890FX comes with 5PCI-ex for QuadCrossfire. Also.. what's the deal with 7xx series? I mean.. its the same price. Yet its older? Or why is it 7xx? Isn't there a single chipset between? Not chinese YET it's durable/fine for long-term usage? What it should know (desktop stuff): NVidia GPU (Zalman AMP2 GTX 260^2 (one card)) Phenom 1090T cpu A somewhat good audio. Any ideas which is the chipset I'm searching for? If this sounds too much of a shopping question, feel free to edit. I just want some clarification on these chipsets.

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• Ping server NETBIOS name returns wrong IP and "Destination host unreachable"

  - by music2myear

  Problem server is Windows 2008 R2 VM running on VMWare ESXi 4 host. Single network adapter manually assigned single IP address (192.168.1.11). When I ping the server from any other network computer, it returns 192.168.1.124 and "Destination host unreachable". Yesterday I found a second network adapter assigned to this server with an IP of 169.254... indicating it had no real valid IP. Using the MAC addresses I determined which adapter was not needed/not wanted, and removed it using VMWare systems. This is the network Printer Server and, understandably, nothing is printing right now. I've looked at the solutions here Why was my ping answered by a different IP address than the one pinged? and they aren't applicable to my situation for the following reasons: Output of arp -a on another computer returns the correct IP address (.1.11) assigned to the correct MAC address, the incorrect IP .1.124 is not listed, and the MAC of the network adapter I removed yesterday is not listed at all. I checked out the Microsoft KB article which listed pretty much my exact symptoms ( http://support.microsoft.com/kb/981953 ) and it says to check binding orders and look for hidden adapters. But there are no hidden adapters, and there is only one Network Adapter listed in the Binding Order list. Essentially, I can communicate from the server TO any other network device, but I cannot communicate from any other network device TO the server. Help! UPDATE: Solution found, see this solution for the details.

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• Network Misconfiguration when adding first host to new vSphere cluster

  - by dunxd

  I am building a new vSphere cluster from scratch. I have installed ESXi on the first host, and built a vCenter server on a VM residing on that host (storage is on the local hard drive, although we have iSCSI targets which I can reach from the host). The cluster is configured for HA. When I try and add the host to the cluster, I get an error at the point where HA is configured - Cannot complete the . I have stripped the network configuration of the host down to the most basic - a single NIC attached to a single vSwitch - this is running the VMKernel Port on VLAN 8 - that is our Management VLAN. The vCenter server will have a network address on this VLAN, so I also set the initial Virtual Machine Port Group to this VLAN, and connected the vCenter server NIC to this port group. I understand I can't connect the vCenter server to the VMkernel port group, but shouldn't I be able to connect the vCenter server to a Port Group in the same VLAN? If not, do I need to create a VLAN specifically for VMKernel Port Group? I plan to set up another port group for vMotion with a dedicated and isolated VLAN (i.e. VLAN isn't routed) so this wouldn't allow vCenter to communicate. Does anyone have any suggestions, or other ideas for what might be causing the problem. I've read through the documentation, but it isn't giving me any pointers, and the error message isn't helping me beyond telling me something is wrong with my network config.

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• SQL Query to update parent record with child record values

  - by Wells

  I need to create a Trigger that fires when a child record (Codes) is added, updated or deleted. The Trigger stuffs a string of comma separated Code values from all child records (Codes) into a single field in the parent record (Projects) of the added, updated or deleted child record. I am stuck on writing a correct query to retrieve the Code values from just those child records that are the children of a single parent record. -- Create the test tables CREATE TABLE projects ( ProjectId varchar(16) PRIMARY KEY, ProjectName varchar(100), Codestring nvarchar(100) ) GO CREATE TABLE prcodes ( CodeId varchar(16) PRIMARY KEY, Code varchar (4), ProjectId varchar(16) ) GO -- Add sample data to tables: Two projects records, one with 3 child records, the other with 2. INSERT INTO projects (ProjectId, ProjectName) SELECT '101','Smith' UNION ALL SELECT '102','Jones' GO INSERT INTO prcodes (CodeId, Code, ProjectId) SELECT 'A1','Blue', '101' UNION ALL SELECT 'A2','Pink', '101' UNION ALL SELECT 'A3','Gray', '101' UNION ALL SELECT 'A4','Blue', '102' UNION ALL SELECT 'A5','Gray', '102' GO I am stuck on how to create a correct Update query. Can you help fix this query? -- Partially working, but stuffs all values, not just values from chile (prcodes) records of parent (projects) UPDATE proj SET proj.Codestring = (SELECT STUFF((SELECT ',' + prc.Code FROM projects proj INNER JOIN prcodes prc ON proj.ProjectId = prc.ProjectId ORDER BY 1 ASC FOR XML PATH('')),1, 1, '')) The result I get for the Codestring field in Projects is: ProjectId ProjectName Codestring 101 Smith Blue,Blue,Gray,Gray,Pink ... But the result I need for the Codestring field in Projects is: ProjectId ProjectName Codestring 101 Smith Blue,Pink,Gray ... Here is my start on the Trigger. The Update query, above, will be added to this Trigger. Can you help me complete the Trigger creation query? CREATE TRIGGER Update_Codestring ON prcodes AFTER INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE AS WITH CTE AS ( select ProjectId from inserted union select ProjectId from deleted )

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• Why would Windows Task Scheduler spawn multiple instances of the same task that run into each other?

  - by swagner88

  Overview: I use Windows Task Scheduler to run automated tasks. Occasionally I will see that randomly a task has failed to perform its duties. When I check Task Scheduler to see what has occurred in the history log, I see that for some reason, when the tasks are triggered at their schedules, they are spawning several instances of themselves simultaneously which turns into a train wreck for the task and it either kills the other instances and tries to run the "first" one, or it just does not run at all as it believes another instance of itself is already running. Sometimes this occurs in the same tasks and then occasionally it happens with others. The fix is just to end all instances and start the task manually. Question: Why would one single task with one single schedule decide to spawn multiple instance of itself simultaneously? Note: I've got a separate user account set to run the tasks instead of myself. That user is indeed an admin on the machine that runs the tasks and the tasks are set to tun whether or not the user is logged on. Also, the machine is windows server 08 R2.

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• Forwarding HTTP Request with Direct Server Return

  - by Daniel Crabtree

  I have servers spread across several data centers, each storing different files. I want users to be able to access the files on all servers through a single domain and have the individual servers return the files directly to the users. The following shows a simple example: 1) The user's browser requests http://www.example.com/files/file1.zip 2) Request goes to server A, based on the DNS A record for example.com. 3) Server A analyzes the request and works out that /files/file1.zip is stored on server B. 4) Server A forwards the request to server B. 5) Server B returns file1.zip directly to the user without going through server A. Note: steps 4 and 5 must be transparent to the user and cannot involve sending a redirect to the user as that would violate the requirement of a single domain. From my research, what I want to achieve is called "Direct Server Return" and it is a common setup for load balancing. It is also sometimes called a half reverse proxy. For step 4, it sounds like I need to do MAC Address Translation and then pass the request back onto the network and for servers outside the network of server A tunneling will be required. For step 5, I simply need to configure server B, as per the real servers in a load balancing setup. Namely, server B should have server A's IP address on the loopback interface and it should not answer any ARP requests for that IP address. My problem is how to actually achieve step 4? I have found plenty of hardware and software that can do this for simple load balancing at layer 4, but these solutions fall short and cannot handle the kind of custom routing I require. It seems like I will need to roll my own solution. Ideally, I would like to do the routing / forwarding at the web server level, i.e. in PHP or C# / ASP.net. However, I am open to doing it at a lower level such as Apache or IIS, or at an even lower level, i.e. a custom proxy service in front of everything. Thanks.

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• How would I setup iMail to forward a user's mail to another service w/o leaving a copy locally?

  - by Scott Mayfield

  I have an iMail 2006 server installation in which I have a particular user that has several aliases that all point to a single user (me, for the record). I've been copying all of my mail to GMail and reading it there, but it annoys me that I have to go back weekly and log into my mail account on iMail and delete between 6 and 10 thousand copies of messages I've already received, in order to keep my mailbox from filling up (yes, I have it set with no quota, but I consider it bad form to just let the box grow indefinitely). I've got the copying setup via an inbound user rule, but I'm wondering how to accomplish a "copy and delete" rule. The manual isn't clear on what happens with multiple matching rules (will they be processed in order, or is it a first match situation?) and there isn't a means to combine multiple actions into a single rule. If I use the "forward" action, I THINK that it's going to screw up all the sender information once the mail reaches my GMail account and show it as coming from me instead of the original senders (can anyone confirm that this is accurate?) An easy answer would be to delete my user account entirely, replace it with an alias that maps to my GMail account, but then I would lose my ability to log into the system for admin duties. So that leads me to creating a second, lesser known account for admin use, but since it's a real account, sooner or later I'm going to get mail sent to it and I'll be back to the same situation of having a user account that doesn't get emptied periodically. I imagine I can set the quota to 0 MB to cause all incoming mail to my admin account to bounce, or setup an inbound rule to bounce everything, but this is starting to sound kludgy to me. Does anyone know of a more direct work around to copying a user's incoming mail to an outside server and then deleting the local copy w/o removing their account entirely? Or is this just wishful thinking? Thanks in advance. Scott

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• How to use Timer broadcast on Multi-Processor system with linux 3.10?

  - by kevin.ji

  Hardware: ARM Cortex-A9 * 2 Software: linux-3.10.0 The platform has 2 cores of arm cortex-a9. Item CONFIG_LOCAL_TIMERS is not set in linux menuconfig. I want to use only one hardware timer to supply tick for all cpu. Interrupts looks like: CPU0 CPU1 57: 6697 0 GIC timer 81: 213 0 GIC uart-pl011 103: 0 0 GIC gmac0 104: 0 0 GIC gmac1 IPI0: 0 1 CPU wakeup interrupts IPI1: 0 0 Timer broadcast interrupts IPI2: 967 866 Rescheduling interrupts IPI3: 0 0 Function call interrupts IPI4: 1 2 Single function call interrupts IPI5: 0 0 CPU stop interrupts IPI6: 0 0 CPU backtrace Err: 0 Timer broadcast interrupts counter does not add. And it looks like that cpu1 does not work at all.But this method works well with linux-3.4, and the interrupt info looks as below in linux-3.4: # cat /proc/interrupts CPU0 CPU1 57: 8596 0 GIC timer 81: 91 0 GIC uart-pl011 103: 0 0 GIC gmac0 104: 0 0 GIC gmac1 IPI0: 0 8560 Timer broadcast interrupts IPI1: 884 1020 Rescheduling interrupts IPI2: 0 0 Function call interrupts IPI3: 0 6 Single function call interrupts IPI4: 0 0 CPU stop interrupts IPI5: 0 0 CPU backtrace Err: 0 The count of Timer broadcast interrupts is adding. And all of cpus work well. I don't know why. Any answer is welcome. :)

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• How would I setup iMail to forward a user's mail to another service w/o leaving a copy locally?

  - by Scott Mayfield

  I have an iMail 2006 server installation in which I have a particular user that has several aliases that all point to a single user (me, for the record). I've been copying all of my mail to GMail and reading it there, but it annoys me that I have to go back weekly and log into my mail account on iMail and delete between 6 and 10 thousand copies of messages I've already received, in order to keep my mailbox from filling up (yes, I have it set with no quota, but I consider it bad form to just let the box grow indefinitely). I've got the copying setup via an inbound user rule, but I'm wondering how to accomplish a "copy and delete" rule. The manual isn't clear on what happens with multiple matching rules (will they be processed in order, or is it a first match situation?) and there isn't a means to combine multiple actions into a single rule. If I use the "forward" action, I THINK that it's going to screw up all the sender information once the mail reaches my GMail account and show it as coming from me instead of the original senders (can anyone confirm that this is accurate?) An easy answer would be to delete my user account entirely, replace it with an alias that maps to my GMail account, but then I would lose my ability to log into the system for admin duties. So that leads me to creating a second, lesser known account for admin use, but since it's a real account, sooner or later I'm going to get mail sent to it and I'll be back to the same situation of having a user account that doesn't get emptied periodically. I imagine I can set the quota to 0 MB to cause all incoming mail to my admin account to bounce, or setup an inbound rule to bounce everything, but this is starting to sound kludgy to me. Does anyone know of a more direct work around to copying a user's incoming mail to an outside server and then deleting the local copy w/o removing their account entirely? Or is this just wishful thinking?

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• Certain Japanese characters aren't displayed properly

  - by Nisto

  On the following site: http://www.nciku.com/search/radical the first 2 characters on the second row of the "Step 2" table aren't displayed properly. All other characters look fine. I tried re-installing the Asian fonts via the checkboxes regarding Asian fonts in the "Regional and Language Options" control panel applet. I have tried removing every single Font from the Fonts folder (some were ofcourse not possible to remove), and re-installing them all again. I did this by... Running cmd Closing down the explorer process In cmd; using the command DEL /F /S /Q * in the Fonts folder Putting in my XP SP3 Retail disc In cmd; using expand -r *.tt_ in the I386 folder on the XP disc (and any other font file, in the I386\LANG folder) I also tried installing this pack from Microsoft, but this solved nothing either. I even tried running my browser (Firefox) through AppLocale. And changing character encoding -- again, does not help. I've also tried viewing the page in Internet Explorer. What could be wrong? I have checked my Fonts folder, to make sure that every single font available on the XP disc is available in WINDOWS\Fonts. What shows in the first square on the second row - I can't really tell what it's supposed to look like (but it's not the proper character)... but the second square shows a rectangular symbol containing HEX code. I've been in this situation before -- and it has been when I've been missing fonts. But how could I possibly be missing a necessary font? Shouldn't it be provided in the Asian "font packages"? I've talked to some other users that has viewed the page, and they had no problems displaying those characters on second row - even though they're only using the fonts provided on the Windows installation disc. Windows XP Professional Service Pack 3 (x86 - with latest updates) Firefox 3.6.15

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• mysql INNODB inserts very slow

  - by 133794m3r

  The database's schema is as follows. CREATE TABLE `items` ( `id` mediumint( 8 ) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `name` varchar( 45 ) NOT NULL , `main_type` tinyint( 4 ) NOT NULL , `rarity` tinyint( 4 ) NOT NULL , `stack_size` smallint( 6 ) NOT NULL , `sub_type` tinyint( 4 ) NOT NULL , `cost` mediumint( 8 ) unsigned NOT NULL , `ilvl` smallint( 6 ) unsigned NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', `flavor_text` varchar( 250 ) NOT NULL , `rlvl` tinyint( 3 ) unsigned NOT NULL , `final` tinyint( 4 ) NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', PRIMARY KEY ( `id` ) ) ENGINE = InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET = ascii; Now, doing an insert on this table takes 0.22 seconds. I don't know why it's taking so long to do a single row insert. Reads are really really fast something like 0.005 seconds. With using the example configuration from here dev mysql innodb it averages ~0.002 to ~0.005 seconds. Why it takes more than 100x more time to do a single insert makes no sense to me. My computer is as follows. OS:Debian Sid x86-x64, Mysql 5.1, RAM:4GB ddr2, cpu 2.0Ghz dual core, HDD 7200RPM 32MB cache 640GB. Why it's taking almost 100x as much time for a SELECT * FROM items; vs INSERT INTO items ...; will never make any sense to me. It's still a small table at only 70 rows, and took that long even when it had 0 rows.

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• Overriding some DNS entries in BIND for internal networks

  - by Remy Blank

  I have an internal network with a DNS server running BIND, connected to the internet through a single gateway. My domain "example.com" is managed by an external DNS provider. Some of the entries in that domain, say "host1.example.com" and "host2.example.com", as well as the top-level entry "example.com", point to the public IP address of the gateway. I would like hosts located on the internal network to resolve "host1.example.com", "host2.example.com" and "example.com" to internal IP addresses instead of that of the gateway. Other hosts like "otherhost.example.com" should still be resolved by the external DNS provider. I have succeeded in doing that for the host1 and host2 entries, by defining two single-entry zones in BIND for "host1.example.com" and "host2.example.com". However, if I add a zone for "example.com", all queries for that domain are resolved by my local DNS server, and e.g. querying "otherhost.example.com" results in an error. Is it possible to configure BIND to override only some entries of a domain, and to resolve the rest recursively?

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• LDAP, Active Directory and bears, oh my!

  - by Tim Post

  What I have: Workstations running Ubuntu Jaunty mounting /home on a remote NFS server. User accounts are still created locally on each individual workstation. Workstations running Windows XP / Vista NFS server (as noted above) Windows 2008 server All machines share a single private network (LAN). What I need to accomplish: A single, intuitive (GUI driven) place for an office administrator to create user accounts. This should let anyone login to their (linux or windows) workstation, then fire up remote desktop and use the same login to the Windows 2008 server, from any machine on the network. I have read so much on samba, LDAP vs AD, etc and now I'm even more confused than I was before I began researching the problem. Ideally, Linux and Windows users should be able to get to their local files once logged into the Win2008 server. I am a programmer, not an interoperability guru and I'm completely lost on where to even start trying to accomplish this, plus I've run out of things to Google. How would you do this? Is it even possible?

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• Mac OS X duplex printing problem: one- vs. multi-paged documents

  - by Christian Lindig

  I like to print on pre-printed stationery using the Preview.app and a duplex-capable HP Color Laserjet 4700 (PostScript) printer. The print dialog handles one and two-paged documents differently: the paper needs to be placed differently into the tray if the document contains one page versus when it contains two pages. This is not obvious when printing on plain paper but becomes obvious when front and reverse side of sheets are marked. Otherwise the first page would end up on the reverse side of the first sheet. I believe the problem is caused by the printer driver setting duplex printing to false (using the PostScript setpagedevice operator) when emitting a single-page document versus keeping it set to true when emitting multi-page documents. All this despite that duplex printing is always specified in the printer dialog. When printing a single-sided document, duplex=true and duplex=false seem to make a difference with respect which side of a sheet gets printed on. It would be also helpful if others could confirm the problem actually exists. I suspect this problem is not limited to specific printers. I'm on OS X 10.6 and I checked two different HP printers.

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• nginx config woes for multiple subdomains & domains

  - by Peter Hanneman

  I'm finally moving away from Apache and I've got the latest development version of nginx running on a fully updated Ubuntu 10.04 VPS. I've got a single dedicated IP for the box (1.2.3.4) but I've got two separate domains pointing to the server: www.example1.com and www.example2.net. I would like to map the fallowing relationships between urls and document roots in the config: www.example1.com / example1.com -> /var/www/pub/example1.com/ subdomain.example1.com -> /var/www/dev/subdomain/example1.com/ www.example2.net / example2.net -> /var/www/pub/example2.net/ subdomain.example2.net -> /var/www/dev/subdomain/example2.net/ Where the name of the requested subdomain is a folder under /var/www/dev/. Ideally a request for a non-existent subdomain(no matching folder found) would result in a rewrite to the public site (eg: invalid.example1.com -- www.example1.com) however a mere "404 Not Found" wouldn't be the worst thing in the world. It would also be nice if I didn't need to modify the config every time I mkdir a new subdomain folder - even better if I don't need to edit it for a new domain either...but now I'm getting greedy... :p Although in my defense Apache did all of this with a single directive. Does anyone know how I can efficiently mimic this behavior in nginx? Thanks in advance, Peter Hanneman

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• What is the best way to create a failover cluster for my IIS website?

  - by ObligatoryMoniker

  Our eCommerce website www.tervis.com currently runs on two servers: SQL server: 2005 x 86 on Windows Server 2003 Standard x86 with a single dual core processor and 4 gb of memeory IIS server: Windows Server 2008 Web edition x64 with dual quad core hyper threaded processors and 32 gb of memory Tervis.com's revenue has steadily grown to the point where we need to have redundant servers deployed with a fail over mechanism so that we do not have any down time. Because the SQL server is so underpowered compared to the web server my thought was to purchase: 2 x SQL Server 2008 R2 web edition x64 single processor license 2 x Windows Server 2008 R2 Web Edition Licenses 1 x New Physical dual quad core 32 GB server 1 x F5 Load Balancer I need the Windows Server 2008 R2 Web Edition licenses so that I can run SQL and IIS on the same box for both of these servers. The thought is to run this as an active/passive fail over cluster that could be upgraded to an active/active cluster if we purchased the additional SQL licensing. The F5 load balancer would serve as the device that monitors the two servers and if the current active one stops responding then fails over to using the other server. To be clear this is not windows clustering but simply using a load balancer to fail over between two computers so that you now have a cluster in the general sense. Is this really the best way to accomplish what I need? Is there some way to leverage the old server 2003 SQL server to function as the devices that funnels http requests to the appropriate active server and then fails over if a problem occurs? Is there any third party clustering software that might help me accomplish this in a simpler fashion?

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• Bash Parallelization of CPU-intensive processes

  - by ehsanul

  tee forwards its stdin to every single file specified, while pee does the same, but for pipes. These programs send every single line of their stdin to each and every file/pipe specified. However, I was looking for a way to "load balance" the stdin to different pipes, so one line is sent to the first pipe, another line to the second, etc. It would also be nice if the stdout of the pipes are collected into one stream as well. The use case is simple parallelization of CPU intensive processes that work on a line-by-line basis. I was doing a sed on a 14GB file, and it could have run much faster if I could use multiple sed processes. The command was like this: pv infile | sed 's/something//' > outfile To parallelize, the best would be if GNU parallel would support this functionality like so (made up the --demux-stdin option): pv infile | parallel -u -j4 --demux-stdin "sed 's/something//'" > outfile However, there's no option like this and parallel always uses its stdin as arguments for the command it invokes, like xargs. So I tried this, but it's hopelessly slow, and it's clear why: pv infile | parallel -u -j4 "echo {} | sed 's/something//'" > outfile I just wanted to know if there's any other way to do this (short of coding it up myself). If there was a "load-balancing" tee (let's call it lee), I could do this: pv infile | lee >(sed 's/something//' >> outfile) >(sed 's/something//' >> outfile) >(sed 's/something//' >> outfile) >(sed 's/something//' >> outfile) Not pretty, so I'd definitely prefer something like the made up parallel version, but this would work too.

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• Command line scripts to restore the 4 system databases of MS SQL Server 2008

  - by ciscokid

  Hi there, can someone give me some advice on how to restore the 4 system databases (master, msdb, model, tempdb) of a sql server 2008 please? I've already done some testing myself (on restoring the master database) with the following commad line script as a result: ::set variables set dbname=master set dbdirectory=C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL10.MSSQLSERVER\MSSQL\DATA title Restoring %dbname% database net stop mssqlserver cd C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL10.MSSQLSERVER\MSSQL\Binn sqlservr -m sqlcmd -Slocalhost -E -Q "restore database master from disk='c:\master.bak' WITH REPLACE" net start mssqlserver pause After the execution of the 'sqlservr -m' command (used to start the server instance in single-user mode, which is only necessary when restoring the MASTER database), the script stops. So in order to execute the last 2 commands I need to separate the script into 2 smaller scripts, and run them one after the other. Does anyone has an idea on how I can merge them into one single script that runs completely without any interruption? I also want to restore the other 3 system databases using command line scripts like this one. Can someone please advice me how I need to go on? I've already noticed that restoring the temdb is not so easy, but there has to be a way... Looking forward to your advice!

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• Can I run Excel 2010 on a server?

  - by Glen Little

  This question is not about a person using Excel on a computer that happens to have an Windows Server OS. And it is not about using any Sharepoint services features! The question is about automated processes that use code (Office Automation) to open Excel files, manipulate them, run calculations, read data, save copies of the file and close the files... all in code. In previous versions of Excel the licensing agreement prevented use on a public server, notes from Microsoft warned about the problems trying to use Office Automation in a server environment, and we were warned that Excel was single threaded and not designed for use on a server. Most of the articles about this were written before Office 2010. But now, Excel 2010 is designed to work on a High Performance Computing server using HPC Services for Excel. One HPC document mentions "Windows HPC Server 2008 R2 includes a comprehensive pop-up manager that can handle occasional dialog boxes and pop-up messages". So my question is... is it now "safe" to run code that automates Excel 2010 on a "normal" server without using the HPC services? If not, can the HPC Services for Excel work on a single server? I don't need the high performance, distributed computing, aspect of HPC Services for Excel... just the ability to run Excel on a server. Can that now be done? Thanks, Glen

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• Is there a free PDF printer / distiller that creates signable documents?

  - by Coderer

  I've used various methods (mentioned elsewhere on this site) to create PDFs, using a printer driver or converting from PostScript, etc. The common problem is that if I open any of the output files in the newer versions of Adobe Reader, there's an option to "Place Signature" but it's greyed out, or gives an error message that the feature has been disabled for this document. As far as I can tell, there's an option set somewhere in the document metadata that tells Reader "allow the user to sign this document", or don't. None of the free/open source tools that have been been linked to in other SU posts have had this listed as an option (though to be fair I haven't actually downloaded and tried all of them). Is there a tool that does this? Can I just poke a bit with a hex editor somewhere to turn on this functionality? I can sometimes get access to Acrobat Professional to turn on this option, but doing it for every desired case would be more work than I care to do. The current workaround for single-page documents is: Print the document to PDF (possibly via postscript) Open a single-page blank PDF with the "signable" bit turned on in Reader create a custom "stamp" using the Reader markup tools, by importing the printed-to document "stamp" an image of the printed document on the blank page, hoping to get it centered about right place a signature over the document-but-not-really you just stamped This obviously does not scale well at all. It would be much better if I could: Print the document to PDF Drag the document to a simple shortcut / tool / whatever Open the document in Reader Place a signature in the document ETA: Sorry, maybe I should have been clearer -- I'm talking about the certificate-based digital signing available in Adobe Reader, not adding a virtual ink signature. Also, any solution really would have to be available offline.

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• SQL Error (1064) when importing data from SQL file

  - by mejpark

  I have a MySQL database, which was originally set up with the default latin1 character set and latin1_swedish_ci collation. I was using the database like this for sometime, until I noticed strange characters on my production web site, which is powered by a database exported from my development machine. At this point, I changed the default character set of the database and tables to utf8 and the collation to utf8_unicode_ci, converted the latin1 data inside each table to utf8 (using the 'convert data' option) and exported the database as a single SQL file using HeidiSQL. When the resulting SQL file is opened in Notepad++, several characters are rendered incorrectly. For example, en dashes (-) are displayed as – and e with accent (é) are displayed as é. I changed the encoding of the file from ANSI to UTF-8 (using the encoding menu option in Notepad++) and the offending characters are rendered correctly. I saved the new utf8-encoded SQL file and attempted to import the contents into the MySQL database on my production server. The import process fails with following error: /* SQL Error (1064): You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '?# -------------------------------------------------------- # Host: ' at line 1 */ /* Error with snippets directory: The specified path was not found */ The head of the SQL file: # -------------------------------------------------------- # Host: 127.0.0.1 # Server version: 5.1.33-community # Server OS: Win32 # HeidiSQL version: 6.0.0.3773 # Date/time: 2011-04-20 09:48:36 # -------------------------------------------------------- It chokes on the first line of the file, which is commented out. Why is this happening? I didn't have a problem loading data from SQL files until I changed the character set and collation of the database. I came up with an ugly workaround to this problem by performing following steps: Export database as single SQL file using HeidiSQL Open resulting file in Notepad++ and convert from ANSI to UTF-8 encoding Create new empty file in Notepad++, paste in UTF-8 and save file normally What am I missing here?

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