Search Results

Search found 4689 results on 188 pages for 'weak references'.

Page 151/188 | < Previous Page | 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158  | Next Page >

• User control always crashes Visual Studio

  - by NickAldwin

  I'm trying to open a user control in one of our projects. It was created, I believe, in VS 2003, and the project has been converted to VS2008. I can view the code fine, but when I try to load the designer view, VS stops responding and I have to close it with the task manager. I have tried leaving it running for several minutes, but it does not do anything. I ran "devenv /log" but didn't see anything unusual in the log. I can't find a specific error message anywhere. Any idea what the problem might be? Is there a lightweight editing mode I might be able to use or something? The reason I need to have a look at the visual representation of this control is to decide where to insert some new components. I've tried googling it and searching SO, but either I don't know what to search or there is nothing out there about this. Any help is appreciated. (The strangest thing is that the user control seems to load fine in another project which references, but VS crashes as soon as I even so much as click on it in that project.)

  Read the article

• Passing an Ajax variable to a Codeigniter function

  - by Matt

  Hello, I think this is a simple one. I have a Codeigniter function which takes the inputs from a form and inserts them into a database. I want to Ajaxify the process. At the moment the first line of the function gets the id field from the form - I need to change this to get the id field from the Ajax post (which references a hidden field in the form containing the necessary value) instead. How do I do this please? My Codeigniter Controller function function add() { $product = $this->products_model->get($this->input->post('id')); $insert = array( 'id' => $this->input->post('id'), 'qty' => 1, 'price' => $product->price, 'size' => $product->size, 'name' => $product->name ); $this->cart->insert($insert); redirect('home'); } And the jQuery Ajax function $("#form").submit(function(){ var dataString = $("input#id") //alert (dataString);return false; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/home/add", data: dataString, success: function() { } }); return false; }); As always, many thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Get Function Pointer to function in a shared library I didn't directly load

  - by bdk

  My Linux application (A) links against a Third Party shared Library (B) which I don't have source code to. This library makes use of another third party shared library that I don't have source code to (C). I believe that (B) uses dlopen to access (C) instead of directly linking. My reasoning for this is that 'ldd' on (B) does not show (C) and objdump -X (B) shows references to dlopen/dlclose/dlsym. My requirement is that I need to in my code for (A) get a function pointer to a function foo() located in (C). Normally I'd use dlsym for this, but I need to pass it the handle returned from dlopen which I don't have since (B) does not expose this. - For the larger context: I need to modify the function in (C) such that everytime it calls its helper function bar() (also located in (C)), it also calls a function with the same signature located in (A) with the same parameters (Basically inject my code into the codepath of (C) foo()-bar(). I believe I've found a way to accomplish this using gdb, but in order to port my gdb command list, but I'm stuck on the step of getting the function pointer. I'm also open to alternatives to accomplish the same task rather than the exact problem as stated above Edit: After writing this I realized I can probably just do another dlopen on the file in my code and the symbols returned via dlsym on that handle should be the same as received via the original dlopen, If I'm reading the dlopen man page correctly. However I'm still interested in advice or assistance with the my larger context, If theres a better way to go about this

  Read the article

• Moving .NET assemblies away from the application base directory?

  - by RasmusKL

  I have a WinForms application with a bunch of third party references. This makes the output folder quite messy. I'd like to place the compiled / referenced dlls into a common subdirectory in the output folder, bin / lib - whatever - and just have the executables (+ needed configs etc) reside in the output folder. After some searching I ran into assembly probing (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/4191fzwb.aspx) - and verified that if I set this up and manually move the assemblies my application will still work if they are stored in the designated subdirectory like so: <configuration> <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="bin" /> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> </configuration> However, this doesn't solve the build part - is there any way to specify where referenced assemblies and compiled library assemblies go? Only solutions I can think of off the top of my head is either post-build actions or dropping the idea and using ILMerge or something. There has got to be a better way of defining the structure :-)

  Read the article

• What are the most time consuming checks performed by .NET when executing a managed appplication?

  - by ltorje

  I've developed a .NET based Windows service that uses part managed (C#) and unmanaged code (C/C++ libraries). In some domain environments (e.g. Win 2k3 32bit server inside domain abc.com) sometimes the service takes more than 30 seconds to start (especially on OS restart), thus failing to start the service. I suspect that it has something to do with enterprise level security but I do not know for sure. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa720255%28VS.71%29.aspx I've tried the following without success: - delay loading references by moving the using directives as far as possible from the servicebase implementation (especially the xml namespace - know to cause delays in loading) - delay loading and configuring log4net - precompiling the code by using ngen - delaying the start of the worker thread - add/remove manifest + decencies set inside - sign/unsign the binaries - use the configuration settings (there are a lot of settings and the scope level for all is set to application ) as later as possible - add all dependencies to GAC I didn't tried yet to add security demands for the class that has the Main method implemented. I didn't tries to implement my own configuration loader because after inspecting the autogenerated code, I've noticed that the setting class is a singletone and it gets its instance on call. By completely removing the log4net dependency it worked, but this is not an option. When the network card is disabled the service starts immediately. Any suggestions/comments/solution you have would be most welcomed.

  Read the article

• Importing from referenced assembly - MEF

  - by cmaduro

  I have the following simplified code: namespace Silverbits.Applications { public partial class SilverbitsApplication : Application { [Import("MainPage")] public UserControl MainPage { get { return RootVisual as UserControl; } set { RootVisual = value; } } public SilverbitsApplication() { this.Startup += this.SilverbitsApplication_StartUp; this.Exit += new EventHandler(SilverbitsApplication_Exit); this.UnhandledException += this.SilverbitsApplication_UnhandledException; InitializeComponent(); } private void SilverbitsApplication_StartUp(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { CompositionInitializer.SatisfyImports(this); } } namespace Manpower4U { public class App : SilverbitsApplication { public App() : base() { } } } namespace Manpower4U { [Export("MainPage")] public partial class MainPage : UserControl { public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); } } } The idea is that I have a Silverbits Library which is a completely different solution. And I have Manpower4U silverlight application that references my Silverbits library. I want to export MainPage from Manpower4U and set it to the RootVisual in my SilverbitsApplication class. SilverbitsApplication class is basically App.xaml/App.cs from the silverlight application, only I put it in a class library and subclassed App.cs file in Manpower4U, which is now the entry point of Manpower4U. MEF cannot resolve the import. How do I get this to work?

  Read the article

• Trying to convert existing production database table columns from enum to VARCHAR (Rails)

  - by dchua

  Hi everyone, I have a problem that needs me to convert my existing live production (I've duplicated the schema on my local development box, don't worry :)) table column types from enums to a string. Background: Basically, a previous developer left my codebase in absolute shit, migration versions are extremely out of date, and apparently he never used it after a certain point of time in development and now that I'm tasked with migrating a rails 1.2.6 app to 2.3.5, I can't get the tests to run properly on 2.3.5 because my table columns have ENUM column types and they convert to :string, :limit = 0 on my schema.rb which creates the problem of an invalid default value when doing a rake db:test:prepare, like in the case of: Mysql::Error: Invalid default value for 'own_vehicle': CREATE TABLE `lifestyles` (`id` int(11) DEFAULT NULL auto_increment PRIMARY KEY, `member_id` int(11) DEFAULT 0 NOT NULL, `own_vehicle` varchar(0) DEFAULT 'Y' NOT NULL, `hobbies` text, `sports` text, `AStar_activities` text, `how_know_IRC` varchar(100), `IRC_referral` varchar(200), `IRC_others` varchar(100), `IRC_rdrive` varchar(30)) ENGINE=InnoDB I'm thinking of writing a migration task that looks through all the database tables for columns with enum and replace it with VARCHAR and I'm wondering if this is the right way to approach this problem. I'm also not very sure how to write it such that it would loop through my database tables and replace all ENUM colum_types with a VARCHAR. References [1] https://rails.lighthouseapp.com/projects/8994/tickets/997-dbschemadump-saves-enum-columns-as-varchar0-on-mysql [2] http://dev.rubyonrails.org/ticket/2832

  Read the article

• Schema design: many to many plus additional one to many

  - by chrisj

  Hi, I have this scenario and I'm not sure exactly how it should be modeled in the database. The objects I'm trying to model are: teams, players, the team-player membership, and a list of fees due for each player on a given team. So, the fees depend on both the team and the player. So, my current approach is the following: **teams** id name **players** id name **team_players** id player_id team_id **team_player_fees** id team_players_id amount send_reminder_on Schema layout ERD In this schema, team_players is the junction table for teams and players. And the table team_player_fees has records that belong to records to the junction table. For example, playerA is on teamA and has the fees of $10 and $20 due in Aug and Feb. PlayerA is also on teamB and has the fees of $25 and $25 due in May and June. Each player/team combination can have a different set of fees. Questions: Are there better ways to handle such a scenario? Is there a term for this type of relationship? (so I can google it) Or know of any references with similar structures?

  Read the article

• ACL architechture for a Software As a service in Sprgin 3.0

  - by geoaxis

  I am making a software as a service using Spring 3.0 (Spring MVC, Spring Security, Spring Roo, Hibernate) I have to come up with a flexible access control list mechanism.I have three different kinds of users System (who can do any thing to the system, includes admin and internal daemons) Operations (who can add and delete users, organizations, and do maintenance work on behalf of users and organizations) End Users (they belong to one or more organization, for each organization, the user can have one or more roles, like being organization admin, or organization read-only member) (role like orgadmin can also add users for that organization) Now my question is, how should i model the entity of User? If I just take the End User, it can belong to one or more organizations, so each user can contain a set of references to its organizations. But how do we model the users role for each organization, So for example User UX belongs to organizations og1, og2 and og3, and for og1 he is both orgadmin, and org-read-only-user, where as for og2 he is only orgadmin and for og3 he is only org-read-only-user I have the possibility of making each user belong to one organization alone, but that's making the system bounded and I don't like that idea (although i would still satisfy the requirement) If you have a better extensible ACL architecture, please suggest it. Since its a software as a service, one would expect that alot of different organizations would be part if the same system. I had one concern that it is not a good idea to keep og1 and og2 data on the same DB (if og1 decides to spawn a 100 reports on the system, og2 should not suffer) But that is some thing advanced for now and is not directly related to ACL but to the physical distribution of data and setup of services based on those ACLs This is a community Wiki question, please correct any thing which you wish to do so. Thanks

  Read the article

• Extracting shell script from parameterised Hudson job

  - by Jonik

  I have a parameterised Hudson job, used for some AWS deployment stuff, which in one build step runs certain shell commands. However, that script has become sufficiently complicated that I want to "extract" it from Hudson to a separate script file, so that it can easily be versioned properly. The Hudson job would then simply update from VCS and execute the external script file. My main question is about passing parameters to the script. I have a Hudson parameter named AMI_ID and a few others. The script references those params as if they were environment variables: echo "Using AMI $AMI_ID and type $TYPE" Now, this works fine inside Hudson, but not if Hudson calls an external script. Could I somehow make Hudson set the params as environment variables so that I don't need to change the script? Or is my best option to alter the script to take command line parameters (and possibly assign those to named variables for readability: ami_id=$1; type=$2; ... )? I tried something like this but the script doesn't get correctly replaced values: export AMI_ID=$AMI_ID export TYPE=$TYPE external-script.sh # this tries to use e.g. $AMI_ID Bonus question: when the script is inside Hudson, the "console output" will contain both the executed commands and their output. This is extremely useful for debugging when something goes wrong with a build! For example, here the line starting with "+" is part of the script and the following line its output: + ec2-associate-address -K pk.pem -C cert.pem 77.125.116.139 -i i-aa3487fd ADDRESS 77.125.116.139 i-aa3487fd When calling an external script, Hudson output will only contain the latter line, making debugging harder. I could cat the script file to stdout before running it, but that's not optimal either. In effect, I'd like a kind of DOS-style "echo on" for the script which I'm calling from Hudson - anyone know a trick to achieve this?

  Read the article

• Is there a way to set two C#.Net projects to trust one another?

  - by Eric

  I have two C#.NET projects in a single solution ModelProject and PluginProject. PlugInProject is a plug-in for another application, and consequently references its API. PlugInProject is used to extract data from the application it plugs into. ModelProject contains the data model of classes that are extracted by PlugInProject. The extracted data can be used independent of the application or the plug-in, which is why I am keeping PlugInProject separate from ModelProject. I want ModelProject to remain independent of PlugInProject, and the Applications API. Or in other words I want someone to be able to access the extracted data without needing access to PlugInProject, the application, or the application's API. The problem I'm running into though is PlugInProject needs to be able to create and modify classes in ModelProject. However, I'd prefer to not make these actions public to anyone using ModelProject. The extracted data should effectively be read-only, unless later modified by PlugInProject. How can I keep these projects separate but give PlugInProject exclusive access to ModelProject? Is this possible?

  Read the article

• Why does Microsoft advise against readonly fields with mutable values?

  - by Weeble

  In the Design Guidelines for Developing Class Libraries, Microsoft say: Do not assign instances of mutable types to read-only fields. The objects created using a mutable type can be modified after they are created. For example, arrays and most collections are mutable types while Int32, Uri, and String are immutable types. For fields that hold a mutable reference type, the read-only modifier prevents the field value from being overwritten but does not protect the mutable type from modification. This simply restates the behaviour of readonly without explaining why it's bad to use readonly. The implication appears to be that many people do not understand what "readonly" does and will wrongly expect readonly fields to be deeply immutable. In effect it advises using "readonly" as code documentation indicating deep immutability - despite the fact that the compiler has no way to enforce this - and disallows its use for its normal function: to ensure that the value of the field doesn't change after the object has been constructed. I feel uneasy with this recommendation to use "readonly" to indicate something other than its normal meaning understood by the compiler. I feel that it encourages people to misunderstand the meaning of "readonly", and furthermore to expect it to mean something that the author of the code might not intend. I feel that it precludes using it in places it could be useful - e.g. to show that some relationship between two mutable objects remains unchanged for the lifetime of one of those objects. The notion of assuming that readers do not understand the meaning of "readonly" also appears to be in contradiction to other advice from Microsoft, such as FxCop's "Do not initialize unnecessarily" rule, which assumes readers of your code to be experts in the language and should know that (for example) bool fields are automatically initialised to false, and stops you from providing the redundancy that shows "yes, this has been consciously set to false; I didn't just forget to initialize it". So, first and foremost, why do Microsoft advise against use of readonly for references to mutable types? I'd also be interested to know: Do you follow this Design Guideline in all your code? What do you expect when you see "readonly" in a piece of code you didn't write?

  Read the article

• spring.net proxy factory with target type needs property virtual ?

  - by Vince

  Hi all, I'm creating spring.net proxy in code by using ProxyFactory object with ProxyTargetType to true to have a proxy on a non interfaced complex object. Proxying seems ok till i call a method on that object. The method references a public property and if this property is not virtual it's value is null. This doesn't happen if i use Spring.Aop.Framework.AutoProxy.InheritanceBasedAopConfigurer in spring config file but in this case i can't use this because spring context doesn't own this object. Is this normal to have such behavior or is there a tweak to perform what i want (proxying object virtual method without having to change properties virtual)? Note that i tried factory.AutoDetectInterfaces and factory.ProxyTargetAttributes values but doesn't help. My proxy creation code: public static T CreateMethodCallStatProxy<T>() { // Proxy factory ProxyFactory factory = new ProxyFactory(); factory.AddAdvice(new CallMonitorTrackerAdvice()); factory.ProxyTargetType = true; // Create instance factory.Target = Activator.CreateInstance<T>(); // Get proxy T proxiedClass = (T)factory.GetProxy(); return proxiedClass; } Thanks for your help

  Read the article

• Static Libraries on iPhone device

  - by Akusete

  I have two projects, a Cocoa iPhone application and a static library which it uses. I've tested it successfully on the iPhone simulator, but when I try to deploy it to my iPhone device I get (symbol not found) link errors. If I remove the dependancy of the library the project builds/runs fine. I have made sure all the build settings are set to iPhoneOS not the simulator. Im sure its something simple, but has anyone run into similar problems moving from iPhone simulator to device? --EDIT: I have managed to create new projects (one for the application and one for the static library), and successfully get them to run on the iPhone or simulator. But I have a very strange problem... for each specific project I cannot get it working for BOTH the device and the simulator... I have double checked the build settings, made sure the libraries that are being references are for the matching build settings (I believe) but I cannot resolve these linking errors. I think I must be doing something very wrong... all the apple documentation says 'its super simple - one click' but this is giving me a lot of problems. This is probably something to do with xCode build settings, but I cannot seem to understand why selecting the different build platforms and rebuilding the libraries does not work.

  Read the article

• Problem implementing Interceptor pattern

  - by ph0enix

  I'm attempting to develop an Interceptor framework (in C#) where I can simply implement some interfaces, and through the use of some static initialization, register all my Interceptors with a common Dispatcher to be invoked at a later time. The problem lies in the fact that my Interceptor implementations are never actually referenced by my application so the static constructors never get called, and as a result, the Interceptors are never registered. If possible, I would like to keep all references to my Interceptor libraries out of my application, as this is my way of (hopefully) enforcing loose coupling across different modules. Hopefully this makes some sense. Let me know if there's anything I can clarify... Does anyone have any ideas, or perhaps a better way to go about implementing my Interceptor pattern? Update: I came across Spring.NET. I've heard of it before, but never really looked into it. It sounds like it has a lot of great features that would be very useful for what I'm trying to do. Does anyone have any experience with Spring.NET? TIA, Jeremy

  Read the article

• How do I create a new project in TFS from an existing project (breaking history)?

  - by Lindsay

  My team is taking over a project from a previous team. We use a different TFS server than the original team, and we are also not interested in keeping the history of the project because we are accepting the latest version of the code as the beginning of our history with the project. Branching is not an option since we want to start our history from the current version of the code. We just want a fresh project with the existing code. I have not been able to create the new project from the old code successfully. I keep getting an error: "Source control cannot add the solution: Solution would span multiple workspaces" My process for attempting the new project creation: Create a workspace for the previous team's version of the code. Get latest version of that code into local mapped workspace directory Open the solution. Unbind all projects and solution. Close solution. Create a workspace for the new version of the code on our TFS server. Copy the unbound code on my local box to the new local workspace mapped folder. Open the solution from the new directory. "Add to source control" from the new solution. Then I get the error. I have tried removing the TFS security files out of the code directories in the unbound version and tried changing source control instead of adding to source control (but it just binds back to the original instead of letting me bind to the new). Is there any other way to do this besides recreating the solution/projects and adding back all the files and references? It doesn't seem like it should be this difficult... Any advice much appreciated!

  Read the article

• Does running IIS7 in classic mode affect MVC output caching?

  - by Bob

  I have a need to run an application in classic mode for backwards compatibility with a specific application, and am trying to understand what kind of impact that will have on the performance of an MVC application that is running on the site. If we put a few static file maps (for .js, .css, .png, etc) above the ASP.NET wildcard map to reduce the amount of processing by the ASP.NET handler, will we be approaching the integrated mode in terms of performance? The thing i'm primarily concerned with is any effect this might have on output caching. I understand that integrated mode might (?) allow for the output cache to handle non ASP.NET content, but that isn't really a concern. We're more interested in ensuring that the MVC application has full use of the output cache. Empirically i've found that the two configurations operate on par when things go well, but if the page references resources that are not available, the integrated mode tends to fail much more quickly than the classic mode (e.g. 500 ms vs 10 seconds), reducing 'hang time' on the page load. Thanks for any feedback.

  Read the article

• Poor performance using RMI-proxies with Swing components

  - by Patrick

  I'm having huge performance issues when I add RMI proxy references to a Java Swing JList-component. I'm retrieving a list of user Profiles with RMI from a server. The retrieval itself takes just a second or so, so that's acceptable under the circumstances. However, when I try to add these proxies to a JList, with the help of a custom ListModel and a CellRenderer, it takes between 30-60 seconds to add about 180 objects. Since it is a list of users' names, it's preferrable to present them alphabetically. The biggest performance hit is when I sort the elements as they get added to the ListModel. Since the list will always be sorted, I opted to use the built-in Collections.binarySearch() to find the correct position for the next element to be added, and the comparator uses two methods that are defined by the Profile interface, namely getFirstName() and getLastName(). Is there any way to speed this process up, or am I simply implementing it the wrong way? Or is this a "feature" of RMI? I'd really love to be able to cache some of the data of the remote objects locally, to minimize the remote method calls.

  Read the article

• Prototypal inheritance should save memory, right?

  - by Techpriester

  Hi Folks, I've been wondering: Using prototypes in JavaScript should be more memory efficient than attaching every member of an object directly to it for the following reasons: The prototype is just one single object. The instances hold only references to their prototype. Versus: Every instance holds a copy of all the members and methods that are defined by the constructor. I started a little experiment with this: var TestObjectFat = function() { this.number = 42; this.text = randomString(1000); } var TestObjectThin = function() { this.number = 42; } TestObjectThin.prototype.text = randomString(1000); randomString(x) just produces a, well, random String of length x. I then instantiated the objects in large quantities like this: var arr = new Array(); for (var i = 0; i < 1000; i++) { arr.push(new TestObjectFat()); // or new TestObjectThin() } ... and checked the memory usage of the browser process (Google Chrome). I know, that's not very exact... However, in both cases the memory usage went up significantly as expected (about 30MB for TestObjectFat), but the prototype variant used not much less memory (about 26MB for TestObjectThin). I also checked: The TestObjectThin instances contain the same string in their "text" property, so they are really using the property of the prototype. Now, I'm not so sure what to think about this. The prototyping doesn't seem to be the big memory saver at all. I know that prototyping is a great idea for many other reasons, but I'm specifically concerned with memory usage here. Any explanations why the prototype variant uses almost the same amount of memory? Am I missing something?

  Read the article

• How can I get the user object from a service in Symfony2

  - by pogo

  My site is using a third party service for authentication as well as other bits of functionality so I have setup a service that does all the API calls for me and it's this service that I need to be able to access the user object. I've tried injecting the security.context service into my API service but I get a ServiceCircularReferenceException because my user authentication provider references the API service (it has to in order to authenticate the user). So I get a chain of security.context -> authentication provider -> user provider -> API service -> security.context I'm struggling to this of another way of getting the user object and I can't see any obvious way of splitting up this chain. My configs are all defined in config.yml, here are the relevant bits myapp.database: class: Pogo\MyAppBundle\Service\DatabaseService arguments: siteid: %siteid% entityManager: "@doctrine.orm.entity_manager" myapp.apiservice: class: Pogo\MyAppBundle\Service\TicketingService arguments: entityManager: "@myapp.database" myapp.user_provider: class: Pogo\MyAppBundle\Service\APIUserProvider arguments: entityManager: "@myapp.database" ticketingAdapter: "@myapp.apiservice" securityContext: "@security.context" myapp.authenticationprovider: class: Pogo\MyAppBundle\Service\APIAuthenticationProvider arguments: userChecker: "@security.user_checker" encoderFactory: "@security.encoder_factory" userProvider: "@myapp.user_provider" myapp.user_provider is the service that I've defined as my user provider service in security.yml which I presume is how it's being referenced by security.context

  Read the article

• ASP.NET control in one content area needs to reference a control in another content area

  - by harrije

  I have a master page that divides the main content into two areas. There are two asp:ContentPlaceHolder controls in the body section of the master page with IDs cphMain and cphSideBar respectively. One of the corresponding content pages has a control in cphMain that needs to refer to a control in cphSideBar. Specifically, a SqlDataSource in cphMain references a TextBox in cphSideBar to use as a parameter in the select command. When the content page loads the following run-time error occurs: Could not find control 'TextBox1' in ControlParameter 'date_con'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: Could not find control 'TextBox1' in ControlParameter 'date_con'. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [InvalidOperationException: Could not find control 'TextBox1' in ControlParameter 'date_con'.] System.Web.UI.WebControls.ControlParameter.Evaluate(HttpContext context, Control control) +1753150 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Parameter.UpdateValue(HttpContext context, Control control) +47 System.Web.UI.WebControls.ParameterCollection.UpdateValues(HttpContext context, Control control) +114 System.Web.UI.WebControls.SqlDataSource.LoadCompleteEventHandler(Object sender, EventArgs e) +43 System.EventHandler.Invoke(Object sender, EventArgs e) +0 System.Web.UI.Page.OnLoadComplete(EventArgs e) +8698566 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +735 I kinda know what the problem is... ASP.NET does not like the fact that the SqlDataSource and TextBox are in different asp:Content controls within the content page. As a workaround, I have another TextBox in cphMain with the SqlDataSource which has Visible=False. Then in the Page_Load() event handler the contents of the TextBox in cphSideBar is copied into the contents of the non-visible TextBox in cphMain. I get the results I want with the work around I've come up with, but it seems like such a hack. I was wondering if there is a better solution I'm missing. Please advise.

  Read the article

• How is a referencing environment generally implemented for closures?

  - by Alexandr Kurilin

  Let's say I have a statically/lexically scoped language with deep binding and I create a closure. The closure will consist of the statements I want executed plus the so called referencing environment, or, to quote this post, the collection of variables which can be used. What does this referencing environment actually look like implementation-wise? I was recently reading about ObjectiveC's implementation of blocks, and the author suggests that behind the scenes you get a copy of all of the variables on the stack and also of all the references to heap objects. The explanation claims that you get a "snapshot" of the referencing environment at the point in time of the closure's creation. Is that more or less what happens, or did I misread that? Is anything done to "freeze" a separate copy of the heap objects, or is it safe to assume that if they get modified between closure creation and the closure executing, the closure will no longer be operating on the original version of the object? If indeed there's copying being made, are there memory usage considerations in situations where one might want to create plenty of closures and store them somewhere? I think that misunderstanding of some of these concepts might lead to tricky issues like the ones Eric Lippert mentions in this blog post. It's interesting because you'd think that it wouldn't make sense to keep a reference to a value type that might be gone by the time the closure is called, but I'm guessing that in C# the compiler will figure out that the variable is needed later and put it into the heap instead. It seems that in most memory-managed languages everything is a reference and thus ObjectiveC is a somewhat unique situation with having to deal with copying what's on the stack.

  Read the article

• What's the best way to resolve this scope problem?

  - by Peter Stewart

  I'm writing a program in python that uses genetic techniques to optimize expressions. Constructing and evaluating the expression tree is the time consumer as it can happen billions of times per run. So I thought I'd learn enough c++ to write it and then incorporate it in python using cython or ctypes. I've done some searching on stackoverflow and learned a lot. This code compiles, but leaves the pointers dangling. I tried 'this_node = new Node(...' . It didn't seem to work. And I'm not at all sure how I'd delete all the references as there would be hundreds. I'd like to use variables that stay in scope, but maybe that's not the c++ way. What is the c++ way? class Node { public: char *cargo; int depth; Node *left; Node *right; } Node make_tree(int depth) { depth--; if(depth <= 0) { Node tthis_node("value",depth,NULL,NULL); return tthis_node; } else { Node this_node("operator" depth, &make_tree(depth), &make_tree(depth)); return this_node; } };

  Read the article

• Same jQuery code returns two different results – Submit Button Text

  - by Lijo

  I have two jQuery codes - http://jsfiddle.net/Lijo/CXGX7/7/ and http://jsfiddle.net/Lijo/CXGX7/8/ . The first code returns undefined whereas the second code returns text of button. QUESTIONS What is the reason for this difference in result? Why is the first code not returning expected text of button? Note: I verified that both are using same version of jQuery (by an alert of jQuery) alert($.fn.jquery); CODE <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head><title> </title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.aspnetcdn.com/ajax/jquery/jquery-1.8.1.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> alert($('.myButton').attr("value")); </script> </head> <body> <form method="post" action="Test.aspx" id="form1"> <div class="aspNetHidden"> <input type="hidden" name="__VIEWSTATE" id="__VIEWSTATE" value="/wEPDwULLTE0MDM4MzYxMjNkZMycQvsYQ+GPFsQHoQ8j/8vEo2vQbqkhfgPc60kxXaQO" /> </div> <div class="aspNetHidden"> <input type="hidden" name="__EVENTVALIDATION" id="__EVENTVALIDATION" value="/wEWAwKqxqqrCgLi/JazDQKM54rGBqgaroRQTXJkD1LyUlVxAmLRCNfTGVe73swQBMemBtvN" /> </div> <div> <input name="txtEmpName" type="text" id="txtEmpName" /> <input type="submit" name="Button1" value="Submit" id="Button1" class="myButton" /> </div> </form> </body> </html> REFERENCES Retrieve Button value with jQuery How to determine and print jQuery version?

  Read the article

• Most efficient way to update attribute of one instance

  - by Begbie00

  Hi all - I'm creating an arbitrary number of instances (using for loops and ranges). At some event in the future, I need to change an attribute for only one of the instances. What's the best way to do this? Right now, I'm doing the following: 1) Manage the instances in a list. 2) Iterate through the list to find a key value. 3) Once I find the right object within the list (i.e. key value = value I'm looking for), change whatever attribute I need to change. for Instance within ListofInstances: if Instance.KeyValue == SearchValue: Instance.AttributeToChange = 10 This feels really inefficient: I'm basically iterating over the entire list of instances, even through I only need to change an attribute in one of them. Should I be storing the Instance references in a structure more suitable for random access (e.g. dictionary with KeyValue as the dictionary key?) Is a dictionary any more efficient in this case? Should I be using something else? Thanks, Mike

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158  | Next Page >