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  • Should java try blocks be scoped as tightly as possible?

    - by isme
    I've been told that there is some overhead in using the Java try-catch mechanism. So, while it is necessary to put methods that throw checked exception within a try block to handle the possible exception, it is good practice performance-wise to limit the size of the try block to contain only those operations that could throw exceptions. I'm not so sure that this is a sensible conclusion. Consider the two implementations below of a function that processes a specified text file. Even if it is true that the first one incurs some unnecessary overhead, I find it much easier to follow. It is less clear where exactly the exceptions come from just from looking at statements, but the comments clearly show which statements are responsible. The second one is much longer and complicated than the first. In particular, the nice line-reading idiom of the first has to be mangled to fit the readLine call into a try block. What is the best practice for handling exceptions in a funcion where multiple exceptions could be thrown in its definition? This one contains all the processing code within the try block: void processFile(File f) { try { // construction of FileReader can throw FileNotFoundException BufferedReader in = new BufferedReader(new FileReader(f)); // call of readLine can throw IOException String line; while ((line = in.readLine()) != null) { process(line); } } catch (FileNotFoundException ex) { handle(ex); } catch (IOException ex) { handle(ex); } } This one contains only the methods that throw exceptions within try blocks: void processFile(File f) { FileReader reader; try { reader = new FileReader(f); } catch (FileNotFoundException ex) { handle(ex); return; } BufferedReader in = new BufferedReader(reader); String line; while (true) { try { line = in.readLine(); } catch (IOException ex) { handle(ex); break; } if (line == null) { break; } process(line); } }

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  • Is it possible to "trick" PrintScreen, swap out the contents of my form with something else before c

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I have a bit of a challenge. In an earlier version of our product, we had an error message window (last resort, unhandled exception) that showed the exception message, type, stack trace + various bits and pieces of information. This window was printscreen-friendly, in that if the user simply did a printscreen-capture, and emailed us the screenshot, we had almost everything we needed to start diagnosing the problem. However, the form was deemed too technical and "scary" for normal users, so it was toned down to a more friendly one, still showing the error message, but not the stack trace and some of the more gory details that I'd still like to get. In addition, the form was added the capabilities of emailing us a text file containing everything we had before + lots of other technical details as well, basically everything we need. However, users still use PrintScreen to capture the contents of the form and email that back to us, which means I now have a less than optimal amount of information to go on. So I was wondering. Would it be possible for me to pre-render a bitmap the same size as my form, with everything I need on it, detect that PrintScreen was hit and quickly swap out the form contents with my bitmap before capture, and then back again afterwards? And before you say "just educate the users", yes, that's not going to work. These are not out users, they're users at our customers place, so we really cannot tell them to wisen up all that much. Or, barring this, is there a way for me to detect PrintScreen, tell Windows to ignore it, and instead react to it, by dumping the aformentioned prerendered bitmap onto the clipboard ready for placing into an email? The code is C# 3.0 in .NET 3.5, if it matters, but pointers for something to look at/for is good enough.

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  • Deep Zoom in Ajax - Possible? Any examples out there?

    - by Phil
    I have an idea to implement a deep zoom type interface hosted in a browser for sports training data (speed, distance, heart rate etc.) However, rather than images I actually want to zoom into a hierarchy of information. For example, the initial display would contain a grid of years - hover over 2008, for example, and spin the mouse wheel (or click) will zoom into that year but during the zoom I want 2008 to fade out and be replaced with a calendar of months. Again zoom into a month and the months are replaced with the months calendar, zoom into a day and you finally see a chart with the training data plotted on it. All the time only dates with actual data would be highlighted in some fashion. My question is whether this would even be possible and whether anyone has seen examples of this already. I'm imagining that most of the time the next level of information could be cached in the browser (in fact, because this is calendar-based, I can calculate most of that and cache the dates to be highlighted.) I could also zoom into an empty chart whilst an Ajax thread is fetching the data to display. I've never tried anything like this before and I'm especially interested in whether DHTML would be capable of this sort of zoom (I suspect not and I would have to resort to Silverlight) and whether the Ajax execution would be uninterrupted whilst the browser rendering thread is kept busy zooming.

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  • Is it possible to replace values ina queryset before sending it to your template?

    - by Issy
    Hi Guys, Wondering if it's possible to change a value returned from a queryset before sending it off to the template. Say for example you have a bunch of records Date | Time | Description 10/05/2010 | 13:30 | Testing... etc... However, based on the day of the week the time may change. However this is static. For example on a monday the time is ALWAYS 15:00. Now you could add another table to configure special cases but to me it seems overkill, as this is a rule. How would you replace that value before sending it to the template? I thought about using the new if tags (if day=1), but this is more of business logic rather then presentation. Tested this in a custom template tag def render(self, context): result = self.model._default_manager.filter(from_date__lte=self.now).filter(to_date__gte=self.now) if self.day == 4: result = result.exclude(type__exact=2).order_by('time') else: result = result.order_by('type') result[0].time = '23:23:23' context[self.varname] = result return '' However it still displays the results from the DB, is this some how related to 'lazy' evaluation of templates? Thanks! Update Responding to comments below: It's not stored wrong in the DB, its stored Correctly However there is a small side case where the value needs to change. So for example I have a From Date & To date, my query checks if todays date is between those. Now with this they could setup a from date - to date for an entire year, and the special cases (like mondays as an example) is taken care off. However if you want to store in the DB you would have to capture several more records to cater for the side case. I.e you would be capturing the same information just to cater for that 1 day when the time changes. (And the time always changes on the same day, and is always the same)

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  • Is it possible for a function called from within an object to have access to that object's scope?

    - by Elliot Bonneville
    I can't think of a way to explain what I'm after more than I've done in the title, so I'll repeat it. Is it possible for an anonymous function called from within an object to have access to that object's scope? The following code block should explain what I'm trying to do better than I can: function myObj(testFunc) { this.testFunc = testFunc; this.Foo = function Foo(test) { this.test = test; this.saySomething = function(text) { alert(text); }; }; var Foo = this.Foo; this.testFunc.apply(this); } var test = new myObj(function() { var test = new Foo(); test.saySomething("Hello world"); }); When I run this, I get an error: "Foo is not defined." How do I ensure that Foo will be defined when I call the anonymous function? Here's a jsFiddle for further experimentation. Edit: I am aware of the fact that adding the line var Foo = this.Foo; to the anonymous function I pass in to my instance of myObj will make this work. However, I'd like to avoid having to expose the variable inside the anonymous function--do I have any other options?.

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  • Adjust static value into dynamic (javascript) value possible in Sharepoint allitems.aspx page?

    - by lerac
    <SharePoint:SPDataSource runat="server" IncludeHidden="true" SelectCommand="&lt;View&gt;&lt;Query&gt;&lt;OrderBy&gt;&lt;FieldRef Name=&quot;EventDate&quot;/&gt;&lt;/OrderBy&gt;&lt;Where&gt;&lt;Contains&gt;&lt;FieldRef Name=&quot;lawyer_x0020_1&quot;/&gt;&lt;Value Type=&quot;Note&quot;&gt;F. Sanches&lt;/Value&gt;&lt;/Contains&gt;&lt;/Where&gt;&lt;/Query&gt;&lt;/View&gt;" id="datasource1" DataSourceMode="List" UseInternalName="true"><InsertParameters><asp:Parameter DefaultValue="{ANUMBER}" Name="ListID"></asp:Parameter> This codeline is just one line of the allitems.aspx of a sharepoint list item. It only displays items where lawyer 1 = F. Sanches. Before I start messing around with the .ASPX page I wonder if it possible to change F. Sanches (in the code) into a dynamical variable (from a javascript value or something else that can be used to place the javascript value in there dynamically). If I put any javascript code in the line it will not work. P.S. Ignore ANUMBER part in code. Let say to make it simple I have javascript variable like this (now static but with my other code it is dynamic). It would be an achievement if it would place a static javascript variable. <SCRIPT type=text/javascript>javaVAR = "P. Janssen";</script> If Yes -- how? If No -- Thank you!

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  • Is it possible to definitively identify whether a DML command was issued from a stored procedure?

    - by Ed Harper
    I have inherited a SQL Server 2008 database to which calling applications have access through stored procedures. Each table in the database has a shadow audit table into which Insert/Update/Delete operations for are logged. Performance testing on populating the audit tables showed that inserting the audit records using OUTPUT clauses was 20% or so faster than using triggers, so this has been implemented in the stored procedures. However, because this design cannot track changes made directly to the tables through DML statements issued directly against the tables, triggers have also been implemented which use the value of @@NESTLEVEL to determine whether or not to run the trigger (the assumption being that all DML run through stored procedures will have @@NESTLEVEL 1). i.e. the body of the trigger code looks something like: IF @@NESTLEVEL = 1 -- implies call is direct sql so generate history from here BEGIN ... insert into audit table This design is flawed because it won't track updates where DML statements are executed in dynamic SQL, or any other context where @@NESTLEVEL is raised above 1. Can anyone suggest a completely reliable method we can use in the triggers to execute them only if not triggered by a stored procedure? Or is this (as I suspect) not possible?

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  • Is it possible to send OSC commands to an iPad via the Camera Connection Kit?

    - by HELVETICADE
    I'm building a small controller device that I'd like to partner with a computer. I've settled on using OSC out from my custom built hardware and am pretty satisfied with what I can get from WOscLib. Two goals I'd like to achieve are portability and a very nice ratio between battery:computing power, and this has lured me towards using iPhoneOS to accomplish my goals. I think the iPad would suit my needs perfectly, except that using wifi to broadcast OSC out from my device requires that device to be connected to a third device with a wifi chip, and this would destroy the goal of portability, whilst also introducing potential latency and stability headaches. My question is pretty simple: Can I push OSC commands FROM my controller TO an iPad via USB and the Camera Connection Kit? If I could accomplish this, the two major goals of my project would be fulfilled very nicely. This seems like it should be a simple little question, but researching this obsessively over the past few weeks has left me more almost more uncertain than if I had done no research at all. I'd really like some more confidence before I go down this route, and it seems like it should be possible. Any insight would be very, very appreciated.

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  • Is it possible to change 2-3 times f->SetSensor() ?

    - by Asen
    Hello there ! i use cocos2d-iphone-0.99.2 and integrated in it box2d. i have 2 kind of sprites with tags 1 and 2. Also i created bodies and shape definitions for them. what i'm trying to do is to make sprite1 kinds to act as solid or act as not solid when sprite2 colides with them. i tried this code : for(b2Body *b = _world->GetBodyList(); b; b=b->GetNext()) { if (b-GetUserData() != NULL) { CCSprite *sprite = (CCSprite )b-GetUserData(); if (sprite.tag == 1) { b2Fixture f = b-GetFixtureList(); f-SetSensor(solid); } } } Where solid is bool. The first time when i change fixture to sensor everything is just fine but when i try to revert and change again to solid my app crashes with the following error : Assertion failed: (manifold-pointCount 0), function b2ContactSolver, file /Documents/myapp/libs/Box2D/Dynamics/Contacts/b2ContactSolver.cpp, line 58. Is it possible somehow to change fixture-SetSensor several times and if so ... how ? Any help is highly appreciated.

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  • Is it possible to recreate User Gestures in iPhone?

    - by MadhavanRP
    I am developing an app and I have encountered a problem that comes down to this scenario: Consider a superview with two buttons(button1,button2) and a text view, all as its subviews. When I click on one button, I display the text view. When I tap on anywhere outside the textview, but in the super view, I need to dismiss the text view. I have added a UITapGestureRecognizer to the super view and it calls a method tap:. In tap:, I get the point of the tap and if it is outside the text view, I dismiss the text view and remove the GestureRecognizer. Now the problem occurs when I tap on button 2. I need to dismiss the text view as well as execute the action for button 2. But it enters tap: and I do not wish to call the button 2's method from there. What I want to know is if it would be possible to emulate the same tap at the same co ordinates after the gesture recognizer is removed? If not what is the way I proceed to solve this issue?

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  • Force windows video driver reload. Is it possible at all?

    - by somemorebytes
    Hi there, Some drivers use parameters written in the registry to configure themselves when they get loaded at boot time. I can modify those values and then reboot, but I would like to know if it is possible to force the driver reload, making the changes effective without rebooting. Specifically, I am talking about the video driver (nvidia). I read somewhere, that calling through pINvoke() [User32.ll]::ChangeDisplaySettings() with a 640x480x8bits resolution,(which is so low that it should not be supported by a modern driver) will force windows to load the "Standard VGA driver", and making another call with the current resolution will load the nvidia driver again. This does not work though. At least in Windows 7, even if the low res is not displayed as "supported" the system reduces the screen to a little square in the center of the screen, showing the low res wihtout unloading the nvidia driver. So, is there any .NET/Win32 API, service to restart, or any way at all to force a video driver reload? Perhaps programatically disabling the device (as you could do from the Device Manager) and reenabling it again? Any idea? Thanks a lot.

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  • Is it possible to replace values in a queryset before sending it to your template?

    - by Issy
    Hi Guys, Wondering if it's possible to change a value returned from a queryset before sending it off to the template. Say for example you have a bunch of records Date | Time | Description 10/05/2010 | 13:30 | Testing... etc... However, based on the day of the week the time may change. However this is static. For example on a monday the time is ALWAYS 15:00. Now you could add another table to configure special cases but to me it seems overkill, as this is a rule. How would you replace that value before sending it to the template? I thought about using the new if tags (if day=1), but this is more of business logic rather then presentation. Tested this in a custom template tag def render(self, context): result = self.model._default_manager.filter(from_date__lte=self.now).filter(to_date__gte=self.now) if self.day == 4: result = result.exclude(type__exact=2).order_by('time') else: result = result.order_by('type') result[0].time = '23:23:23' context[self.varname] = result return '' However it still displays the results from the DB, is this some how related to 'lazy' evaluation of templates? Thanks! Update Responding to comments below: It's not stored wrong in the DB, its stored Correctly However there is a small side case where the value needs to change. So for example I have a From Date & To date, my query checks if todays date is between those. Now with this they could setup a from date - to date for an entire year, and the special cases (like mondays as an example) is taken care off. However if you want to store in the DB you would have to capture several more records to cater for the side case. I.e you would be capturing the same information just to cater for that 1 day when the time changes. (And the time always changes on the same day, and is always the same)

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  • Is this possible: JPA/Hibernate query with list property in result ?

    - by Kdeveloper
    In hibernate I want to run this JPQL / HQL query: select new org.test.userDTO( u.id, u.name, u.securityRoles) FROM User u WHERE u.name = :name userDTO class: public class UserDTO { private Integer id; private String name; private List<SecurityRole> securityRoles; public UserDTO(Integer id, String name, List<SecurityRole> securityRoles) { this.id = id; this.name = name; this.securityRoles = securityRoles; } ...getters and setters... } User Entity: @Entity public class User { @id private Integer id; private String name; @ManyToMany @JoinTable(name = "user_has_role", joinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "user_id") }, inverseJoinColumns = {@JoinColumn(name = "security_role_id") } ) private List<SecurityRole> securityRoles; ...getters and setters... } But when Hibernate 3.5 (JPA 2) starts I get this error: org.hibernate.hql.ast.QuerySyntaxException: Unable to locate appropriate constructor on class [org.test.UserDTO] [SELECT NEW org.test.UserDTO (u.id, u.name, u.securityRoles) FROM nl.test.User u WHERE u.name = :name ] Is a select that includes a list as a result not possible? Should I just create 2 seperate queries?

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  • Deploying DotNetNuke and separate ASP.NET Application together - Possible Issues?

    - by TheTXI
    I am making this in a proactive attempt to head off any potential problems which could arise from this. The situation is that we are developing an ASP.NET application for a client which will handle the online ordering from their customers. This application is going to be using the same database that their current WinForms application uses (no real issue here). At the same time we are developing a new front-end website for them using DotNetNuke. The DotNetNuke app will simply be linking to the ASP.NET application for the customers to submit their orders (no need for them to communicate back and forth, etc.) The plan is to host both applications on the same box at the client location. What I am looking for are potential problems or setup tips which would prevent possible conflict between the two apps (web.config conflicts, etc.) Is there a problem with having both hosted on the same location, how should IIS be set up, etc.? If there are any external resources also available which could address this, please feel free to link them as well.

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  • Is it possible to filter data used by pivot table based on filtering the rows in a source table in Excel?

    - by Geoffrey Stoel
    I have developed a dashboard in Excel 2007 that uses one source table in a sheet (being filled with a query on our data warehouse) and multiple pivot tables making different cross sections on this data. I use the GETPIVOTDATA in almost a hundred formulas to give me the right value for a specific indicator in my dashboard. This all works fine. However I now have received the question to make the dashboard for 5 different segments. As you can imagine I don't want to create 5 different workbooks for this and need to maintain the dashboard logic on all of them. So my question is the following. Is it possible to automatically (through VBA or any other means) filter the results in my source table which is the source for my pivot tables and thus for my dashboard values. So schematically: DATABASE_VIEW -- SOURCE_TABLE -- 12 pivot tables -- 100 GETPIVOTDATA functions Preferably I would like to load all the segments in the source_table (one view on my database) and then filter the data in the source table, which results in filterd source_dat for my pivots. This way I can (without requerying the db) quickly change between segments in the dashboards (refreshing pivots only). Data in the source table has the column: CUSTOMER_SEGMENT available to filter upon. Any help is appreciated. Geoffrey

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  • Is it possible to create an Android Service that listens for hardware key presses?

    - by VoteBrian
    I'd like to run an Android background service that will act as a keylistener from the home screen or when the phone is asleep. Is this possible? From semi-related examples online, I put together the following service, but get the error, "onKeyDown is undefined for the type Service". Does this mean it can't be done without rewriting Launcher, or is there something obvious I'm missing? public class ServiceName extends Service { @Override public void onCreate() { //Stuff } public IBinder onBind(Intent intent) { //Stuff return null; } @Override public boolean onKeyDown(int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { if(event.getAction() == KeyEvent.ACTION_DOWN) { switch(keyCode) { case KeyEvent.KEYCODE_A: //Stuff return true; case KeyEvent.KEYCODE_B: //Stuff return true; //etc. } } return super.onKeyDown(keyCode, event); } } I realize Android defaults to the search bar when you type from the home screen, but this really is just for a very particular use. I don't really expect anyone but me to want this. I just think it'd be nice, for example, to use the camera button to wake the phone.

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  • Is it possible to specify Jquery File Upload to post back only once (for multiple files)?

    - by JaJ
    When I upload multiple files (per bluimp jquery file upload) the [httppost] action is entered once per file. Is it possible to specify one and only one postback with an enumerated file container to iterate? View: <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.7.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.ui.widget.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.iframe-transport.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.fileupload.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <input id="fileupload" type="file" name="files" multiple="multiple"/> Controller: public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(IEnumerable<HttpPostedFileBase> files) { // This is posted back for every file that gets uploaded...I would prefer it only post back once // with a actual collection of files to iterate. foreach (var file in files) // There is only ever one file in files { var filename = Path.Combine(Server.MapPath("~/App_Data"), file.FileName); file.SaveAs(filename); } return View(); }

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  • Same IL code, different output - how is it possible?

    - by Hali
    When I compile this code with mono (gmcs) and run it, it outputs -1 (both with mono and .Net framework). When I compile it with VS (csc), it outputs -1 when I run it with mono, and 0 when I run it with the .Net framework. The code in question is: using System; public class Program { public static void Main() { Console.WriteLine(string.Compare("alo\0alo\0", "alo\0alo\0\0", false, System.Globalization.CultureInfo.InvariantCulture)); } } Compiled with VS: .method public hidebysig static void Main() cil managed { .entrypoint // Code size 29 (0x1d) .maxstack 8 IL_0000: nop IL_0001: ldstr bytearray (61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 ) // a.l.o...a.l.o... IL_0006: ldstr bytearray (61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 // a.l.o...a.l.o... 00 00 ) IL_000b: ldc.i4.0 IL_000c: call class [mscorlib]System.Globalization.CultureInfo [mscorlib]System.Globalization.CultureInfo::get_InvariantCulture() IL_0011: call int32 [mscorlib]System.String::Compare(string, string, bool, class [mscorlib]System.Globalization.CultureInfo) IL_0016: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(int32) IL_001b: nop IL_001c: ret } // end of method Program::Main Compiled with mono: .method public hidebysig static void Main() cil managed { .entrypoint // Code size 27 (0x1b) .maxstack 8 IL_0000: ldstr bytearray (61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 ) // a.l.o...a.l.o... IL_0005: ldstr bytearray (61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 61 00 6C 00 6F 00 00 00 // a.l.o...a.l.o... 00 00 ) IL_000a: ldc.i4.0 IL_000b: call class [mscorlib]System.Globalization.CultureInfo [mscorlib]System.Globalization.CultureInfo::get_InvariantCulture() IL_0010: call int32 [mscorlib]System.String::Compare(string, string, bool, class [mscorlib]System.Globalization.CultureInfo) IL_0015: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(int32) IL_001a: ret } // end of method Program::Main The only difference is the two extra NOP instructions in the VS version. How is it possible?

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  • Cross domain javascript to access localhost. Possible?

    - by Earlz
    Hello, for one reason or another I need for javascript to access a webserver on the localhost. This localhost webserver is under our control so we can have whatever software running in it. How would you do this? I've seen things like YQL but this accesses another domain from the internet. This kind of access causes a lot of problems with firewalls and such. So I want to access the same computer that the browser is running on. How would you do this with javascript and whatever software running on the localhost server? Also, the javascript is being run from an internet site. And the localhost server will not be running on the same port are the internet website is. Is this possible to do? I know about the cross-domain restrictions but I've also seen there are ways around them such as YQL. How does something like YQL work? How would you reimplement it?

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  • Conditional references in .NET project, possible to get rid of warning?

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I have two references to a SQLite assembly, one for 32-bit and one for 64-bit, which looks like this (this is a test project to try to get rid of the warning, don't get hung up on the paths): <Reference Condition=" '$(Platform)' == 'x64' " Include="System.Data.SQLite, Version=1.0.61.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=db937bc2d44ff139, processorArchitecture=AMD64"> <SpecificVersion>True</SpecificVersion> <HintPath>..\..\LVK Libraries\SQLite3\version_1.0.65.0\64-bit\System.Data.SQLite.DLL</HintPath> </Reference> <Reference Condition=" '$(Platform)' == 'x86' " Include="System.Data.SQLite, Version=1.0.65.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=db937bc2d44ff139, processorArchitecture=x86"> <SpecificVersion>True</SpecificVersion> <HintPath>..\..\LVK Libraries\SQLite3\version_1.0.65.0\32-bit\System.Data.SQLite.DLL</HintPath> </Reference> This produces the following warning: Warning 1 The referenced component 'System.Data.SQLite' could not be found. Is it possible for me to get rid of this warning? One way I've looked at it to just configure my project to be 32-bit when I develop, and let the build machine fix the reference when building for 64-bit, but this seems a bit awkward and probably prone to errors. Any other options? The reason I want to get rid of it is that the warning is apparently being picked up by TeamCity and periodically flagged as something I need to look into, so I'd like to get completely rid of it.

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  • Is is possible to do an end-run around generics covariance in C# < 4 in this hypothetical situation?

    - by John Feminella
    Suppose I have a small inheritance hierarchy of Animals: public interface IAnimal { string Speak(); } public class Animal : IAnimal { public Animal() {} public string Speak() { return "[Animal] Growl!"; } } public class Ape : IAnimal { public string Speak() { return "[Ape] Rawrrrrrrr!"; } } public class Bat : IAnimal { public string Speak() { return "[Bat] Screeeeeee!"; } } Next, here's an interface offering a way to turn strings into IAnimals. public interface ITransmogrifier<T> where T : IAnimal { T Transmogrify(string s); } And finally, here's one strategy for doing that: public class Transmogrifier<T> : ITransmogrifier<T> where T : IAnimal, new() { public T Transmogrify(string s) { T t = default(T); if (typeof(T).Name == s) t = new T(); return t; } } Now, the question. Is it possible to replace the sections marked [1], [2], and [3] such that this program will compile and run correctly? If you can't do it without touching parts other than [1], [2], and [3], can you still get an IAnimal out of each instance of a Transmogrifier in a collection containing arbitrary implementations of an IAnimal? Can you even form such a collection to begin with? static void Main(string[] args) { var t = new Transmogrifier<Ape>(); Ape a = t.Transmogrify("Ape"); Console.WriteLine(a.Speak()); // Works! // But can we make an arbitrary collection of such animals? var list = new List<Transmogrifier< [1] >>() { // [2] }; // And how about we call Transmogrify() on each one? foreach (/* [3] */ transmogrifier in list) { IAnimal ia = transmogrifier.Transmogrify("Bat"); } } }

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  • Is it possible to wrap an asynchronous event and its callback in a function that returns a boolean?

    - by Rob Flaherty
    I'm trying to write a simple test that creates an image element, checks the image attributes, and then returns true/false. The problem is that using the onload event makes the test asynchronous. On it own this isn't a problem (using a callback as I've done in the code below is easy), but what I can't figure out is how to encapsulate this into a single function that returns a boolean. I've tried various combinations of closures, recursion, and self-executing functions but have had no luck. So my question: am I being dense and overlooking something simple, or is this in fact not possible, because, no matter what, I'm still trying to wrap an asynchronous function in synchronous expectations? Here's the code: var supportsImage = function(callback) { var img = new Image(); img.onload = function() { //Check attributes and pass true or false to callback callback(true); }; img.src = 'data:image/gif;base64,R0lGODlhAQABAAD/ACwAAAAAAQABAAACADs='; }; supportsImage(function(status){ console.log(status); }); To be clear, what I want is to be able to wrap this in something such that it can be used like: if (supportsImage) { //Do some crazy stuff } Thanks! (Btw, I know there are a ton of SO questions regarding confusion about synchronous vs. asynchronous. Apologies if this can be reduced to something previously answered.)

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  • Is it possible to De-Serialize a new Derived class using Old Binary?

    - by Anand
    In my project I have a class which I Serialize in Binary format to the disk. Due to some new requirement I need to create a new class which is derived from the original class. eg [Serializable] public class Sample { String someString; int someInt; public Sample() { } public Sample(String _someString, int _someInt) { this.someInt = _someInt; this.someString = _someString; } public String SomeString { get { return someString; } } public int SomeInt { get { return someInt; } } } [Serializable] public class DerivedSample : Sample { String someMoreString; int someMoreInt; public DerivedSample () : base() { } public DerivedSample (String _someString, int _someInt, String _someMoreString, int _someMoreInt) : base(_someString, _someInt) { this.someMoreString = _someMoreString; this.someMoreInt = _someMoreInt; } public String SomeMoreString { get { return someMoreString; } } public int SomeMoreInt { get { return someMoreInt; } } } When I try to De serialize an old file which contains only object of Sample it works fine, in the current assembly. That means backward compatibility is there. But when I try to deserialize the file which contains object of DerivedSample using the previous version of the assembly application crashes. Which means forward compatibilty needs to be taken care off... It it possible to say read only the base class part of the object from new version of the file?

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  • Is it possible to dynamically insert rows in an existing DataTable (No DataSource used)?

    - by aparnakarthik
    Hi... I have created a datatable with three fields namely TimeTask, TaskItem and Count (count of user) eg; {"12:30AM-01:00AM" , T1 , 3}. dataTable.Columns.Add("Task Time", typeof(string)); dataTable.Columns.Add("Task", typeof(string)); dataTable.Columns.Add("Count", typeof(int)); dataTable.Rows.Add("12:00AM-12:15AM", "T1", 6); dataTable.Rows.Add("12:45AM-01:00AM", "T1", 5); dataTable.Rows.Add("01:00AM-01:15AM", "T1", 1); dataTable.Rows.Add("01:15AM-01:30AM", "T2", 4); dataTable.Rows.Add("01:30AM-01:45AM", "T2", 9); GridView1.DataSource = dataTable; GridView1.DataBind(); In this there is no task for the TimeTask "12:15AM-12:30AM" and "12:30AM-12:45AM" yet the TimeTask should be inserted as, TimeTask TaskItem Count 12:00AM-12:15AM T1 6 12:15AM-12:30AM - - 12:30AM-12:45AM - - 12:45AM-01:00AM T1 5 01:00AM-01:15AM T1 1 01:15AM-01:30AM T2 4 01:30AM-01:45AM T2 9 How to chk for the missing rows? Is it possible to dynamically insert rows in an existing DataTable (No DataSource used) in this scenario.pls help.Thanks :-)

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  • How can I map to a field that is joined in via one of three possible tables

    - by Mongus Pong
    I have this object : public class Ledger { public virtual Person Client { get; set; } // .... } The Ledger table joins to the Person table via one of three possible tables : Bill, Receipt or Payment. So we have the following tables : Ledger LedgerID PK Bill BillID PK, LedgerID, ClientID Receipt ReceiptID PK, LedgerID, ClientID Payment PaymentID PK, LedgerID, ClientID If it was just the one table, I could map this as : Join ( "Bill", x => { x.ManyToOne ( ledger => ledger.Client, mapping => mapping.Column ( "ClientID" ) ); x.Key ( l => l.Column ( "LedgerID" ) ); } ); This won't work for three tables. For a start the Join performs an inner join. Since there will only ever be one of Bill, Receipt or Payment - an inner join on these tables will always return zero rows. Then it would need to know to do a Coalesce on the ClientID of each of these tables to know the ClientID to grab the data from. Is there a way to do this? Or am I asking too much of the mappings here?

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