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  • Working with partial views

    - by MrW
    Hi. I'm trying to create a page that contains a grid and searching. The issue is that I want to have a partial view for the grid and one for the searching. If doing a search, this should render the grid partial view with the new information. At the moment I need information, such as what column I'm sorting by and so on, from the grid (currently stored in viewdata), in order to do the search as I want to keep those settings. This information is only available in the grid partial though. What's the best approach of this to make it neat and nice in the code, but not a mess to work with? Where can I store information that I need in the other partial view? Partial View 1; <table> <%= Html.CreateGrid(Model, "Grid", "Grid", (int)ViewData["SortColumn"], (bool)ViewData["SortedASC"])%> </table> Partial View 2; <div class="searchControl"> <input type="text" class="SearchBox" href="<%= Url.Action("Grid", "Grid", new {page = 1, columnToSortBy=/* would like to access viewdata from partial view 1 here. */, sortASC = /* would like to access viewdata from partial view 1 here. */ } ) %>" /> <input type="submit" value="Search" class="SearchButton" /> </div> I know I might take the completely wrong approach on this, so feel free to point me in the right one! Thanks!

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  • Make fancybox jQuery plugin with results from submitting a form on same page

    - by Chase
    I am trying to take form results that are generated from a PHP call and populate them into a div that will then appear in a light box upon click of the submit button. So far I have successfully setup the form and am populating the results on the same page into a hidden div. I can make this div appear no problem in a light box by setting up a href link but cannot make it show up by simply by clicking the submit button. I know my fancybox and jQuery calls are good but not sure where I'm going wrong on the submit button. Here is what I have so far to make it work with a link: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#various1").fancybox({ 'transitionIn' : 'none', 'transitionOut' : 'none', 'scrolling' : 'auto', 'overlayOpacity' : '0' }); }); </script> <a id="various1" href="#inline1" >Inline</a> <div style="display: none;"> <div id="inline1" style="width:500px;height:550px;"> Works great here when you click inline after I have submitted the form. Here is what I tried to make it work with the submit button: $(document).ready(function(){ $("#submit").click(function(){ alert('jQTest'); $("#various1").fancybox(); }); }); <input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" value="--> Find" /> I think it has to be some way I'm calling the jQuery for the fancybox or some identifier for the submit button & div because the submit button click is registering fine. Suggestions?

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  • Bit reversal of an integer, ignoring integer size and endianness

    - by ??O?????
    Given an integer typedef: typedef unsigned int TYPE; or typedef unsigned long TYPE; I have the following code to reverse the bits of an integer: TYPE max_bit= (TYPE)-1; void reverse_int_setup() { TYPE bits= (TYPE)max_bit; while (bits <<= 1) max_bit= bits; } TYPE reverse_int(TYPE arg) { TYPE bit_setter= 1, bit_tester= max_bit, result= 0; for (result= 0; bit_tester; bit_tester>>= 1, bit_setter<<= 1) if (arg & bit_tester) result|= bit_setter; return result; } One just needs first to run reverse_int_setup(), which stores an integer with the highest bit turned on, then any call to reverse_int(arg) returns arg with its bits reversed (to be used as a key to a binary tree, taken from an increasing counter, but that's more or less irrelevant). Is there a platform-agnostic way to have in compile-time the correct value for max_int after the call to reverse_int_setup(); Otherwise, is there an algorithm you consider better/leaner than the one I have for reverse_int()? Thanks.

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  • How to Send user to two different web pages when login

    - by Pradeep
    protected static Boolean Authentication(string username, string password) { string sqlstring; sqlstring = "Select Username, Password, UserType from Userprofile WHERE Username='" + username + "' and Password ='" + password + "'"; // create a connection with sqldatabase System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection con = new System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection( "Data Source=PRADEEP-LAPTOP\\SQLEXPRESS;Initial Catalog=BookStore;Integrated Security=True"); // create a sql command which will user connection string and your select statement string System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand comm = new System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand(sqlstring, con); // create a sqldatabase reader which will execute the above command to get the values from sqldatabase System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader reader; // open a connection with sqldatabase con.Open(); // execute sql command and store a return values in reade reader = comm.ExecuteReader(); // check if reader hase any value then return true otherwise return false if (reader.Read()) return true; else return false; } Boolean blnresult; blnresult = Authentication(Login2.UserName, Login2.Password); if (blnresult == true) { Session["User_ID"] = getIDFromName(Login2.UserName); Session["Check"] = true; Session["Username"] = Login2.UserName; Response.Redirect("Index.aspx"); } so a user like Staff or even Administrators loging to same Index.aspx. i want to change it to different web pages. how to change sites for each user types. i have seperate user types. and i have taken UserType in the Authentication function.

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  • JSON/PrototypeJS - why does this only work SOMETIMES?

    - by koko
    This is driving me nuts! I'm getting some JSON from my server: {"id262":{"done":null,"status":null,"verfall":null,"id":262,"bid":20044,"art":"owner","uid":"demo02","aktion":null,"termin_datum":null,"docid":null,"gruppenid":null,"news":"newsstring","datum":"11.06.2010","header":"headerstring","for_uid":"demo01"}, "id263":{"done":null,"status":"pending","verfall":null,"bid":20044,"id":263,"uid":"demo02","art":"foo","aktion":"dosomething","termin_datum":"11.06.2010","docid":null,"gruppenid":null,"datum":"11.06.2010","news":"newsstring","for_uid":"demo01","header":"headerstring"}, "id261":{"done":null,"status":null,"verfall":null,"id":261,"bid":20044,"art":"termin","uid":"demo02","aktion":null,"termin_datum":"25.06.2010","docid":null,"gruppenid":null,"news":"newsstring","datum":"11.06.2010","header":"headerstring","for_uid":null}} This is how my JS looks like: var user = 'demo02'; new Ajax.Request('myscript.pl?someparameter=value', { method:'get', onSuccess: function(transport){ var db_json = transport.responseText.evalJSON(), propCount = 0, someArray1 = [], someArray2 = [], otherArray = []; //JSON DEBUG console.log('validated string:'); console.log(transport.responseText.evalJSON(true)); for(var prop in db_json) { propCount++; if ( (db_json[prop].art == 'foo') && (db_json[prop].for_uid == user) ) { someArray1.push(db_json[prop]); } else if( (db_json[prop].art == 'foo') && (db_json[prop].uid == user) ) { someArray2.push(db_json[prop]); } else if( db_json[prop].art == 'log' ) { otherArray.push(db_json[prop]); } } if(someArray1.length>0) { someArray1.map(function(el){ $('someArray1target').innerHTML += el.done; //do more stuff }); } if(someArray2.length>0) { someArray2.map(function(el){ $('someArray2target').innerHTML += el.done; //do more stuff }); } }); Sometimes, it works perfectly. Sometimes, i get my JSON String (it appears in Firebug's "answer"-tab), but it won't log the JSON in console-log(). I'm not getting any errors and javascript is still working. Next time after reloading, it might work, but it might not. I cannot remotely imagine why this only happens sometimes!

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  • Inheriting from ViewPage forces explicit casting of model in view

    - by Martin Hansen
    I try to inhering from ViewPage as shown in this question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/370500/inheriting-from-viewpage But I get a Compiler Error Message: CS1061: 'object' does not contain a definition for 'Spot' and no extension method 'Spot' accepting a first argument of type 'object' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) My viewpage, normally I can do Model.ChildProperty(Spot) when I inherit from ViewPage directly, so I do that here too. But it fails. <%@ Page Language="C#" Inherits="Company.Site.ViewPageBase<WebSite.Models.SpotEntity>" %> <h1><%= Html.Encode(Model.Spot.Title) %></h1> To get it working correctly I have to do like this: <%@ Page Language="C#" Inherits="Company.Site.ViewPageBase<WebSite.Models.SpotEntity>" %> <h1><%= Html.Encode(((WebSite.Models.SpotEntity)Model).Spot.Title) %></h1> Here is my classes: namespace Company.Site { public class ViewPageBase<TModel> : Company.Site.ViewPageBase where TModel:class { private ViewDataDictionary<TModel> _viewData; [System.Diagnostics.CodeAnalysis.SuppressMessage("Microsoft.Usage", "CA2227:CollectionPropertiesShouldBeReadOnly")] public new ViewDataDictionary<TModel> ViewData { get { if (_viewData == null) { SetViewData(new ViewDataDictionary<TModel>()); } return _viewData; } set { SetViewData(value); } } protected override void SetViewData(ViewDataDictionary viewData) { _viewData = new ViewDataDictionary<TModel>(viewData); base.SetViewData(_viewData); } } public class ViewPageBase : System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage { } } So how do I get it to work without the explicit cast?

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  • Not able to save extjs combo using grails controller

    - by abhi
    Hi all, I am a newbie to grails/extjs I am developing a web based config tool for my team .My issue is with comboboxes of extjs I have three remote comboxes(many to one hibernate mappng).I am using hiddenName to submit its value field(which is id primay key of database) instead of its display field which is name which i get by rendering it as json.some how I see that if I select diff index other than which is loaded from db and try updating it.it definitely sends it as params but in save method of grails its not updated. I want to understand Why? I have pasted snippetof both combobox and grails method? { xtype : 'combo', id:'cpsServerid', fieldLabel : 'CpsServer', name : 'cpsServer', //hiddenId:'cpsID', hiddenName:'cpsID', store: cpsServerStore, displayField:'NAME', valueField:'ID', editable:true, typeAhead:true, mode:'remote', triggerAction:'all', width:300, autoScroll:true, selected:name, selectOnFocus:true}, GRAILS SAVE def saveApplicationSubscription = { println "saveApplicationSubscription, params = $params" ApplicationSubscription subscription if (params.id) { subscription = ApplicationSubscription.get(params.id as int) subscription.cpsServer = CpsServer.get(params.cpsID as int) subscription.topic = params.topic subscription.description = params.description subscription.subscriberApplication = SubscriberApplication.get(params.subAppID as int) subscription.outputQueue = OutputQueue.get(params.outputID as int) bindData(subscription , params) } else { params.id = 0 subscription = new ApplicationSubscription(params) subscription.id = params.id as int subscription.cpsServer = CpsServer.get(params.cpsID as int ) subscription.topic = params.topic subscription.description = params.description subscription.subscriberApplication = SubscriberApplication.get(params.subAppID as int) subscription.outputQueue = OutputQueue.get(params.outputID as int) // subscription.messageFormat = params.messageFormat } if (subscription.save()) { log.info("Saved ApplicationSubscription $subscription") render([success: true] as JSON) } else { log.info("Failed to save ApplicationSubscription $subscription, errors = ${subscription.errors}") render([success: false, errors: subscription.errors] as JSON) } } I would really apperciate any help

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  • My SqlComand on SSIS - DataFlow OLE DB Command seems not works

    - by Angel Escobedo
    Hello Im using OLE DB Source for get rows from a dBase IV file and it works, then I split the data and perform a group by with aggregate component. So I obtain a row with two columns with "null" value : CompanyID | CompanyName | SubTotal | Tax | TotalRevenue Null Null 145487 27642.53 173129.53 this success because all rows have been grouped with out taking care about the firsts columns and just Summing the valuable columns, so I need to change that null for default values as CompanyID = "100000000" and CompanyName = "Others". I try use SqlCommand on a OLE DB Command Component : SELECT "10000000" AS RUCCLI , "Otros - Varios" AS RAZCLI FROM RGVCAFAC <property id="1505" name="SqlCommand" dataType="System.String" state="default" isArray="false" description="The SQL command to be executed." typeConverter="" UITypeEditor="Microsoft.DataTransformationServices.Controls.ModalMultilineStringEditor, Microsoft.DataTransformationServices.Controls, Version=10.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=89845dcd8080cc91" containsID="false" expressionType="Notify">SELECT "10000000" AS RUCCLI , "Otros - Varios" AS RAZCLI FROM RGVCAFAC</property> but nothings happens, why? and finally the task finish when the data is inserted on a SQL Server Table. Im using the same connection manager on extracting data and transform. (View Code) <DTS:Property DTS:Name="ConnectionString">Data Source=C:\CONTA\Resocen\Agosto\;Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Persist Security Info=False;Extended Properties=dBASE IV;</DTS:Property></DTS:ConnectionManager></DTS:ObjectData></DTS:ConnectionManager> all work is on memory, Im not using cache manager connections

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  • Converting QXmlItem to QtDomElement or similar?

    - by EightyEight
    Hello everyone. I'm parsing a fairly complicated XML file of the following structure: <root> ... ... <item> <subitem id="1"/> <text> text1 </text> </item> <item> <subitem id="2"/> <text> text2 </text> </item> ... <item> ... </item> ...</root> It's pretty crude but you get my drift I hope. I'm primarily interested in "item" nodes. So I wrote the following code (directly out of the Qt's online manual): QXmlQuery query; query.setQuery("//item/"); QXmlResultItems result; query.evaluateTo(&result); QXmlItem item(result.next()); while (!item.isNull()) { if (item.isNode()) { // WHAT DO I DO NOW? } item = result.next(); } Now, QXmlItem appears to represent two concepts, a literal value (like a string) or a Node, (which is what item.isNode() is doing). Unfortunately, I can't grasp how to convert the QXmlItem to something that will query-able again. In particular from the example above I'd like to grab the "id" attribute, and the text element. Can I do this using the XQuery approach, or am I way off base here? Any advice? Thanks!

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  • Redirect on Ajax Jquery Call

    - by Mark Estrada
    Hi, I am newbie to ajax here and I know somebody would have encountered this problem already. I have a legacy app built on Spring MVC, it has a interceptor(filter) that redirects the user to the login page whenever there is no session. public class SessionCheckerInterceptor extends HandlerInterceptorAdapter { public boolean preHandle(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response, Object handler) throws Exception { HttpSession session = request.getSession(); // check if userInfo exist in session User user = (User) session.getAttribute("user"); if (user == null) { response.sendRedirect("login.htm"); return false; } return true; } } For non-xmlhttp request, this works fine.. but when I try to use ajax in my application, everything gets weird, it is not able to redirect to the login page correctly. As check the value of the xhr.status = 200 textStatus = parseError errorThrown = "Invalid JSON -Markup of my HTML Login Page- $(document).ready(function(){ jQuery.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "populateData.htm", dataType:"json", data:"userId=SampleUser", success:function(response){ //code here }, error: function(xhr, textStatus, errorThrown) { alert('Error! Status = ' + xhr.status); } }); }); I checked on my firebug that there is a 302 HTTP response but I am not sure how to catch the response and redirect the user to the login page. Any idea here? Thanks.

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  • Parallel port with C#

    - by Michael S.
    Hello, I am trying to send data to LPT1 port with a C# program, unfortunately with no success.. I am using windows 7 x64. I tried both x86 and x64 (inpoutx64.dll) dll's.. With the x64 dll when I send: Output(888, 255); It just continues the program as everything went ok, but i can't see anything on my multimeter (only the static 0.02V).. I also tried the following with C++: int main () { int val = 0; printf("Enter a value\n"); scanf("%d", &val); _outp(0x378, val); getchar(); _outp(0x378, 0); return 0; } But it throws an exception: Unhandled exception at 0x01281428 in ppac.exe: 0xC0000096: Privileged instruction. I remember once I made something like this work on xp, I hope it's possible on win7 too.. Please help me with this. Thanks.

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  • MySQL Binary Storage using BLOB VS OS File System: large files, large quantities, large problems.

    - by Quantico773
    Hi Guys, Versions I am running (basically latest of everything): PHP: 5.3.1 MySQL: 5.1.41 Apache: 2.2.14 OS: CentOS (latest) Here is the situation. I have thousands of very important documents, ranging from customer contracts to voice signatures (recordings of customer authorisation for contracts), with file types including, but not limited to jpg, gif, png, tiff, doc, docx, xls, wav, mp3, pdf, etc. All of these documents are currently stored on several servers including Windows 32 bit, CentOS and Mac, among others. Some files are also stored on employees desktop computers and laptops, and some are still hard copies stored in hundreds of boxes and filing cabinets. Now because customers or lawyers could demand evidence of contracts at any time, my company has to be able to search and locate the correct document(s) effectively, for this reason ALL of these files have to be digitised (if not already) and correlated into some sort of order for searching and accessing. As the programmer, I have created a full Customer Relations Management tool that the whole company uses. This includes Customer Profiles management, Order and job Tracking tools, Job/sale creation and management modules, etc, and at the moment any file that is needed at a customer profile level (drivers licence, credit authority, etc) or at a job/sale level (contracts, voice signatures, etc) can be uploaded to the server and sits in a parent/child hierarchy structure, just like Windows Explorer or any other typical file managment model. The structure appears as such: drivers_license |- DL_123.jpg voice_signatures |- VS_123.wav |- VS_4567.wav contracts So the files are uplaoded using PHP and Apache, and are stored in the file system of the OS. At the time of uploading, certain information about the file(s) is stored in a MySQL database. Some of the information stored is: TABLE: FileUploads FileID CustomerID (the customer id that the file belongs to, they all have this.) JobID/SaleID (the id of the job/sale associated, if any.) FileSize FileType UploadedDateTime UploadedBy FilePath (the directory path the file is stored in.) FileName (current file name of uploaded file, combination of CustomerID and JobID/SaleID if applicable.) FileDescription OriginalFileName (original name of the source file when uploaded, including extension.) So as you can see, the file is linked to the database by the File Name. When I want to provide a customers' files for download to a user all I have to do is "SELECT * FROM FileUploads WHERE CustomerID = 123 OR JobID = 2345;" and this will output all the file details I require, and with the FilePath and FileName I can provide the link for download. http... server / FilePath / FileName There are a number of problems with this method: Storing files in this "database unconcious" environment means data integrity is not kept. If a record is deleted, the file may not be deleted also, or vice versa. Files are strewn all over the place, different servers, computers, etc. The file name is the ONLY thing matching the binary to the database and customer profile and customer records. etc, etc. There are so many reasons, some of which are described here: http://www.dreamwerx.net/site/article01 . Also there is an interesting article here too: sietch.net/ViewNewsItem.aspx?NewsItemID=124 . SO, after much research I have pretty much decided I am going to store ALL of these files in the database, as a BLOB or LONGBLOB, but there are still many considerations before I do this. I know that storing them in the database is a viable option, however there are a number of methods of storing them. I also know storing them is one thing; correlating and accessing them in a manageable way is another thing entirely. The article provided at this link: dreamwerx.net/site/article01 describes a way of splitting the uploaded binary files into 64kb chunks and storing each chunk with the FileID, and then streaming the actual binary file to the client using headers. This is a really cool idea since it alleviates preassure on the servers memory; instead of loading an entire 100mb file into the RAM and then sending it to the client, it is doing it 64kb at a time. I have tried this (and updated his scripts) and this is totally successful, in a very small frame of testing. So if you are in agreeance that this method is a viable, stable and robust long-term option to store moderately large files (1kb to couple hundred megs), and large quantities of these files, let me know what other considerations or ideas you have. Also, I am considering getting a current "File Management" PHP script that gives an interface for managing files stored in the File System and converting it to manage files stored in the database. If there is already any software out there that does this, please let me know. I guess there are many questions I could ask, and all the information is up there ^^ so please, discuss all aspects of this and we can pass ideas back and forth and teach each other. Cheers, Quantico773

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  • Can I select 0 columns in SQL Server?

    - by Woody Zenfell III
    I am hoping this question fares a little better than the similar Create a table without columns. Yes, I am asking about something that will strike most as pointlessly academic. It is easy to produce a SELECT result with 0 rows (but with columns), e.g. SELECT a = 1 WHERE 1 = 0. Is it possible to produce a SELECT result with 0 columns (but with rows)? e.g. something like SELECT NO COLUMNS FROM Foo. (This is not valid T-SQL.) I came across this because I wanted to insert several rows without specifying any column data for any of them. e.g. (SQL Server 2005) CREATE TABLE Bar (id INT NOT NULL IDENTITY PRIMARY KEY) INSERT INTO Bar SELECT NO COLUMNS FROM Foo -- Invalid column name 'NO'. -- An explicit value for the identity column in table 'Bar' can only be specified when a column list is used and IDENTITY_INSERT is ON. One can insert a single row without specifying any column data, e.g. INSERT INTO Foo DEFAULT VALUES. One can query for a count of rows (without retrieving actual column data from the table), e.g. SELECT COUNT(*) FROM Foo. (But that result set, of course, has a column.) I tried things like INSERT INTO Bar () SELECT * FROM Foo -- Parameters supplied for object 'Bar' which is not a function. -- If the parameters are intended as a table hint, a WITH keyword is required. and INSERT INTO Bar DEFAULT VALUES SELECT * FROM Foo -- which is a standalone INSERT statement followed by a standalone SELECT statement. I can do what I need to do a different way, but the apparent lack of consistency in support for degenerate cases surprises me. I read through the relevant sections of BOL and didn't see anything. I was surprised to come up with nothing via Google either.

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  • android keylistener losing key taps

    - by miannelle
    I am using a keylistener to get key taps. The problem is that once you tap the delete key, the next key tap is not registering. The key tap after that keeps working. If I tap 2 deletes in a row, they work, just no other keys. They just disappear. I put in a log test before the "if (keycode" section and it shows nothing after the first delete is pressed, unless it is another delete. I am using the following code (Thanks Shawn).: itemPrice.setKeyListener(new CalculatorKeyListener()); itemPrice.setRawInputType(Configuration.KEYBOARD_12KEY); class CalculatorKeyListener extends NumberKeyListener { public int getInputType() { return InputType.TYPE_CLASS_NUMBER; } @Override public boolean onKeyDown(View view, Editable content, int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { if (keyCode >= KeyEvent.KEYCODE_0 && keyCode <= KeyEvent.KEYCODE_9) { digitPressed(keyCode - KeyEvent.KEYCODE_0); } else if (keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_DEL) { deletePressed(); } return true; } @Override protected char[] getAcceptedChars() { return new char[] { 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 }; } } With this problem the keylistener provides no value to me. There must be something that I am missing. Thanks,

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  • Perl unpack in list context

    - by drewk
    A common 'Perlism' is generating a list as something to loop over in this form: for($str=~/./g) { print "the next character from \"$str\"=$_\n"; } In this case the global match regex returns a list that is one character in turn from the string $str, and assigns that value to $_ Instead of a regex, split can be used in the same way or 'a'..'z', map, etc. I am investigating unpack to generate a field by field interpretation of a string. I have always found unpack to be less straightforward to the way my brain works, and I have never really dug that deeply into it. As a simple case, I want to generate a list that is one character in each element from a string using unpack (yes -- I know I can do it with split(//,$str) and /./g but I really want to see if unpack can be used this way...) Obviously, I can use a field list for unpack that is unpack("A1" x length($str), $str) but is there some other way that kinda looks like globbing? ie, can I call unpack(some_format,$str) either in list context or in a loop such that unpack will return the next group of character in the format group until $str is exausted? I have read The Perl 5.12 Pack pod and the Perl 5.12 pack tutorial and the Perkmonks tutorial Here is the sample code: #!/usr/bin/perl use warnings; use strict; my $str=join('',('a'..'z', 'A'..'Z')); #the alphabet... $str=~s/(.{1,3})/$1 /g; #...in groups of three print "str=$str\n\n"; for ($str=~/./g) { print "regex: = $_\n"; } for(split(//,$str)) { print "split: \$_=$_\n"; } for(unpack("A1" x length($str), $str)) { print "unpack: \$_=$_\n"; }

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  • How does one convert 16-bit RGB565 to 24-bit RGB888?

    - by jleedev
    I’ve got my hands on a 16-bit rgb565 image (specifically, an Android framebuffer dump), and I would like to convert it to 24-bit rgb888 for viewing on a normal monitor. The question is, how does one convert a 5- or 6-bit channel to 8 bits? The obvious answer is to shift it. I started out by writing this: uint16_t buf; while (read(0, &buf, sizeof buf)) { unsigned char red = (buf & 0xf800) >> 11; unsigned char green = (buf & 0x07c0) >> 5; unsigned char blue = buf & 0x003f; putchar(red << 3); putchar(green << 2); putchar(blue << 3); } However, this doesn’t have one property I would like, which is for 0xffff to map to 0xffffff, instead of 0xf8fcf8. I need to expand the value in some way, but I’m not sure how that should work. The Android SDK comes with a tool called ddms (Dalvik Debug Monitor) that takes screen captures. As far as I can tell from reading the code, it implements the same logic; yet its screenshots are coming out different, and white is mapping to white. Here’s the raw framebuffer, the smart conversion by ddms, and the dumb conversion by the above algorithm. (By the way, this conversion is implemented in ffmpeg, but it’s just performing the dumb conversion listed above, leaving the LSBs at all zero.) I guess I have two questions: What’s the most sensible way to convert rgb565 to rgb888? How is DDMS converting its screenshots?

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  • Speed Problem - Animating Height Change in UITableView

    - by Travis
    So I have a huge UITableView, between 1000 and 3000 rows. Each row needs to, when selected, expand to include several buttons. I do this by rendering the buttons below the cell, enabling clipping on the cells, and then just animating a change in height when they're selected. So I have heightForRowAtIndex checking if the row is selected, if so it gives a different height value. To do the animation, I have the following: - (void) tableView: (UITableView *) tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath: (NSIndexPath *) indexPath { [self.tableView beginUpdates]; [self.tableView endUpdates]; } This all works wonderfully until I get around 1000 rows, at which point the animations still work and are still quite smooth, but they lag by a second or two. My first thought was a memory problem, but everything is being autoreleased and upon inspection my application isn't even receiving a memory warning message. So...any ideas on what this might be and how I can erase this lag between selection and change in cell height? Oh, and one last thing - right now I'm testing this on the iPad, so if this is a problem there, I expect it to be worse on our other target devices (iPhone and iPod).

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  • Getting "<kml:..." everywhere, updating a Kml file

    - by Rafe Lavelle
    I'm reading in a Kml file, changing the placemarks' names, and saving it again. var KmlFile = XDocument.Load("C:\\Inetpub\\wwwroot\\GeotagService\\Kml\\Photographs.kml"); XNamespace KmlNamespace = "http://www.opengis.net/kml/2.2"; // find the Placemarks in the Photos folder IEnumerable<XElement> Placemarks = KmlFile.Element(KmlNamespace + "kml").Element(KmlNamespace + "Document").Element(KmlNamespace + "Folder").Elements(KmlNamespace + "Placemark"); foreach (XElement p in Placemarks){ p.Element(KmlNamespace + "name").Value = "testing"; } KmlFile.Save("C:\\Inetpub\\wwwroot\\GeotagService\\Kml\\Photographs.kml"); When I save it however, every element is prefixed with <kml:, like this: <kml:Folder> <kml:name>Photos</kml:name> <kml:open>1</kml:open> <kml:Placemark> <kml:name>testing</kml:name> <kml:LookAt> <kml:longitude>-10.02717694938161</kml:longitude> <kml:latitude>53.48672543547379</kml:latitude> <kml:altitude>0</kml:altitude> </kml:LookAt> <kml:styleUrl>#msn_ylw-pushpin1</kml:styleUrl> <kml:Point> <kml:coordinates>-10.02867619360582,53.48651240326751,0</kml:coordinates> </kml:Point> </kml:Placemark>... Tomalak's comment on this question about blank xmlns gives me a clue that it might be inconsistencies between the namespaces of the document and the elements, but I can't see how I'm doing that. Anyone know?

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  • Date query with Hibernate on Timestamp Column in PostgreSQL

    - by Shashikant Kore
    A table has timestamp column. A sample value in that could be 2010-03-30 13:42:42. With Hibernate, I am doing a range query Restrictions.between("column-name", fromDate, toDate). The Hibernate mapping for this column is as follows. <property name="orderTimestamp" column="order_timestamp" type="java.util.Date" /> Let's say, I want to find out all the records that have the date 30th March 2010 and 31st March 2010. A range query on this field is done as follows. Date fromDate = new SimpleDateFormat("yyyy-MM-dd").parse("2010-03-30"); Date toDate = new SimpleDateFormat("yyyy-MM-dd").parse("2008-03-31"); Expression.between("orderTimestamp", fromDate, toDate); This doesn't work. The query is converted to respective timestamps as "2010-03-30 00:00:00" and "2010-03-31 00:00:00". So, all the records for the 31st March 2010 are ignored. A simple solution to this problem could be to have the end date as "2010-03-31 23:59:59." But, I would like to know if there is way to match only the date part of the timestamp column. Also, is Expression.between() inclusive of both limits? Documentation doesn't throw any light on this.

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  • CCSprite: setTexture doesn't work when the sprite is rendered using a CCSpriteSheet

    - by srikanth rongali
    My code is in cocos2d. I am getting this error in my code. To get the fast animation I used CCSpriteSheet CCSpriteSheet *danceSheet = [CCSpriteSheet spriteSheetWithFile:@"new1.png"]; [self addChild:danceSheet]; CCSprite *danceSprite = [CCSprite spriteWithTexture:danceSheet.texture rect:CGRectMake(0, 0, 119, 320)]; [danceSheet addChild:danceSprite]; danceSprite.position = ccp(danceSprite.contentSize.width/2,danceSprite.contentSize.height/2); CCAnimation *danceAnimation = [CCAnimation animationWithName:@"dance" delay:0.1f]; int frameCount = 0; for (int x = 0; x < 13; x++) { // create an animation frame CCSpriteFrame *frame = [CCSpriteFrame frameWithTexture:danceSheet.texture rect:CGRectMake(x*119,0,119,320) offset:ccp(0,0)]; [danceAnimation addFrame:frame]; frameCount++; NSLog(@"frameCount value: %d", frameCount); if (frameCount == 13) break; } CCAnimate *danceAction = [CCAnimate actionWithAnimation:danceAnimation restoreOriginalFrame:NO ]; [danceSprite runAction:danceAction]; But when I touched the screen it is giving the error CCSprite: setTexture doesn't work when the sprite is rendered using a CCSpriteSheet

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  • search form in html/php via ajax

    - by fusion
    i've a search form wherein the database query has been coded in php and the html file calls this php file via ajax to display the results in the search form. the problem is, i would like the result to be displayed in the same form as search.html; yet while the ajax works, it goes to search.php to display the results. search.html: <!DOCTYPE html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> <script src="scripts/search_ajax.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> <form id="submitForm" method="post"> <div class="wrapper"> <div class="field"> <input name="search" id="search" /> </div><br /> <input id="button1" type="submit" value="Submit" class="submit" onclick="run_query();" /><br /> </div> <div id="searchContainer"> </div> </form> </body> </html> if i add action="search.php" to the form tag, it displays the result but on search.php. i'd like it to display on the same form [i.e search.html, and not search.php] if i just add the javascript function [as done above], it displays nothing on search.html

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  • Collision Attacks, Message Digests and a Possible solution

    - by Dominar
    I've been doing some preliminary research in the area of message digests. Specifically collision attacks of cryptographic hash functions such as MD5 and SHA-1, such as the Postscript example and X.509 certificate duplicate. From what I can tell in the case of the postscript attack, specific data was generated and embedded within the header of the postscript (which is ignored during rendering) which brought about the internal state of the md5 to a state such that the modified wording of the document would lead to a final MD equivalent to the original. The X.509 took a similar approach where by data was injected within the comment/whitespace of the certificate. Ok so here is my question, and I can't seem to find anyone asking this question: Why isn't the length of ONLY the data being consumed added as a final block to the MD calculation? In the case of X.509 - Why is the whitespace and comments being taken into account as part of the MD? Wouldn't a simple processes such as one of the following be enough to resolve the proposed collision attacks: MD(M + |M|) = xyz MD(M + |M| + |M| * magicseed_0 +...+ |M| * magicseed_n) = xyz where : M : is the message |M| : size of the message MD : is the message digest function (eg: md5, sha, whirlpool etc) xyz : is the acutal message digest value for the message M magicseed_{i}: Is a set random values generated with seed based on the internal-state prior to the size being added. This technqiue should work, as to date all such collision attacks rely on adding more data to the original message. In short, the level of difficulty involved in generating a collision message such that: It not only generates the same MD But is also comprehensible/parsible/compliant and is also the same size as the original message, is immensely difficult if not near impossible. Has this approach ever been discussed? Any links to papers etc would be nice.

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  • WPF resource merged to Application.Resources but not resolved at runtime

    - by arconaut
    I have a brush that is part of a ResourceDictionary that is merged to Application.Resources. But for some reason it's not resolved at runtime when a style is being applied to one of the controls. However, if I call Application.Current.FindResource("BrushName") from the Immediate Window at the time when exception is thrown, the resource is found. Am I missing something? Isn't WPF supposed to try to look for the resource in the app's resources? UPDATE The application is quite big, so I can't post all actual code but here's the way the resources are merged and used: Brushes.xaml <ResourceDictionary ...> <SolidColorBrush x:Key="BrushName" Color="#12345678" /> <\ResourceDictionary> SomeStyles.xaml <ResourceDictionary ...> <Style x:Key="SomeStyle"> <Setter Property="SomeProperty" Value="{StaticResource BrushName}" /> </Style> </ResourceDictionary> App.xaml <Application ...> <Application.Resources> <ResourceDictionary> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="Brushes.xaml" /> <ResourceDictionary Source="SomeStyles.xaml" /> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> </Application.Resources> </Application ...> And then some control might use the style using the resource like this: ... Style={StaticResource SomeStyle} ...

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  • How to secure Add child record functionality in MVC on Parent's view?

    - by RSolberg
    I'm trying to avoid some potential security issues as I expose some a new set of functionality into the real world. This is basically functionality that will allow for a new comment to be added via a partialview on the "Parent" page. My comment needs to know a couple of things, first what record is the comment for and secondly who is making the comment. I really don't like using a hidden field to store the ID for the Parent record in the add comment form as that can be easily changed with some DOM mods. How should I handle this? PARENT <% Html.RenderPartial("AddComment", Model.Comments); %> CHILD <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<CommentsViewModel>" %> <% using (Html.BeginForm("AddComment", "Requests")) {%> <fieldset> <legend>New Comment</legend> <%= Html.HiddenFor(p => p.RequestID) %> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(p => p.Text) %> &nbsp; <input type="submit" value="Add" /> </fieldset> <% } %> CONTROLLER [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public void AddComment(CommentsViewModel commentsModel) { var user = GetCurrentUser(); commentsModel.CreatedByID = user.UserID; RequestsService.AddComment(commentsModel); }

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  • jquery insertAfter or append question

    - by user271619
    I am playing around with validating form inputs. For now I'm simply having fun with displaying a message after the input. I'm using the after() method to display simple text, and when I purposely make a mistake in the box I display the message perfectly. However, if I purposely make a mistake again, it immediately adds the same message after the first error message. Is there a method that replaces the original? I didn't want to try to add some more code to look for that original error message, delete it, and then insert the same message again. I will if I have to, but I thought I'd ask first. Here's my code: <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("form#testform").submit(function(){ if($("#fieldname1").val().length < 5){ $("#fieldone").after("<div>not enough characters</div>"); } });return false; }); </script> <form id="testform" method="post"> <table> <tr> <td style="width:100px;">Field One:</td> <td><input type="text" name="fieldname1" id="fieldname1" /></td> </tr> <tr> <td>&nbsp;</td> <td><input type="submit" name="Submit" value="Submit" /></td> </tr> </table> </form>

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