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  • Is Zend Framework a total waste of my time?

    - by Citizen
    Ok, I'm about 50% done with the "30 minute" quickstart guide from Zend. I must be missing something, because this seems like a total waste of time. The point of this quickguide is to create a guestbook, something I could do in 5 minutes with regular naked non-framework php. Here's my path to zend framework: c:/program files/wamp/www/_zend/ Here's my path to my quickstart project: c:/program files/wamp/www/_zend/bin/quickstart/ I have a number of questions at this point: http://framework.zend.com/docs/quickstart/create-a-model-and-database-table 1: I'm running the command line to run my database loading script. I get an error stating the it can't find the Zend/AutoLoader.php becuase my path to the zend library is wrong. I followed all of the steps. I defined the path to my zend library in the main config file, but for some reason, its defined again in my db loader. In all of these scripts that they have me load, it points the relative path to the zend library as being /../library Problem is, there's nothing in that folder. To get to my actual zend folder, you'd need to be (relatively) /../../../../library Which brings me to my 2nd question: 2: Where the #$#$ is the main Zend files supposed to be? The install directions were basically "put it wherever you want", when the real answer (after a bunch of errors and wasted time was) was "put it somewhere so that its really easy to type the full path a thousand times in command line" and "it also better be in a runnable place on your webserver since its going to create your quickstart application in a subdirectory within zend". Which brings us to the third question 3: Am I supposed to have this libary in both the parent core Zend (wamp/_zend/library) AND my application (quickstart/library)? 4: If that is the case, it seems like a ton of wasted files to be uploading. I'd like to use Zend to create products that my customers will download. 5 megs of overhead seems like a bit much. Zend claims you can use these library components separately, but it looks to me like I'm going to have to upload them every time. Which leads to the next question: 5: It appears that perhaps Zend is more for a single application that is not supposed to be distributed. Is this not the case? 6: According to their default file structure everything but my /public folder would be above public_html on my server if I wanted this to rest on my TLD. I would need to rename every reference of /public/ to /public_html/, or am I missing something else?

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  • Linq to SQL Repository ~theory~ - Generic but now uses Linq to Objects?

    - by Matt Tolliday
    The project I am currently working on used Linq to SQL as an ORM data access technology. Its an MVC3 Web app. The problem I faced was primarily due to the inability to mock (for testing) the DataContext which gets autogenerated by the DBML designer. So to solve this issue (after much reading) I refactored the repository system which was in place - single repository with seperate and duplicated access methods for each table which ended up with something like 300 methods only 10 of which were unique - into a single repository with generic methods taking the table and returning more generic types to the upper reaches of the application. My question revolves more around the design I've used to get thus far and the differences I'm noticing in the structure of the app. 1) Having refactored the code from the dark ages which used classic Linq to SQL queries: public Billing GetBilling(int id) { var result = ( from bil in _bicDc.Billings where bil.BillingId == id select bil).SingleOrDefault(); return (result); } it now looks like: public T GetRecordWhere<T>(Expression<Func<T, bool>> predicate) where T : class { T result; try { result = _dataContext.GetTable<T>().Where(predicate).SingleOrDefault(); } catch (Exception ex) { throw ex; } return result; } and is used by the controller with a query along the lines of: _repository.GetRecordWhere<Billing>(x => x.BillingId == 1); which is fine, and precisely what I wanted to achieve. ...however.... I'm also having to do the following to get precisely the result set i require in the controller class (the highest point of the app in essence)... viewModel.RecentRequests = _model.GetAllRecordsWhere<Billing>(x => x.BillingId == 1) .Where(x => x.BillingId == Convert.ToInt32(BillingType.Submitted)) .OrderByDescending(x => x.DateCreated). Take(5).ToList(); This - as far as my understanding is correct - is now using Linq to Objects rather than the Linq to SQL queries I was previously? Is this okay practise? It feels wrong to me but I dont know why. Probably because the logic of the queries is in the very highest tier of the app, rather than the lowest, but... I defer to you good people for advice. One of the issues I considered was bringing the entire table into memory but I understand that using the Iqeryable return type the where clause is taken to the database and evaluated there. Thus returning only the resultset i require... i may be wrong. And if you've made it this far, well done. Thank you, and if you have any advice it is very much appreciated!!

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  • jPlayer widget created with static error as result

    - by goldengel
    I've created a widged with Orchard. Unfortunately I've used the same "Title" for a jPlayer widget twice. Now I receive an error: Server Error in '/wgk' Application. Sequence contains more than one element Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: Sequence contains more than one element Source Error: Line 2: <fieldset> Line 3: <div>@Html.LabelFor(o => o.MediaGalleryName, @T("Media gallery"))</div> Line 4: @if(!Model.HasAvailableGalleries) { Line 5: <div>@T("You need first to create an media gallery on Media Gallery menu")</div> Line 6: } Source File: x:\Intepub\wgk\Modules\Orchard.jPlayer\Views\EditorTemplates\Parts\MediaGallery.cshtml Line: 4 Stack Trace: [InvalidOperationException: Sequence contains more than one element] System.Linq.Enumerable.SingleOrDefault(IEnumerable`1 source) +4206966 NHibernate.Linq.Visitors.ImmediateResultsVisitor`1.HandleSingleOrDefaultCall(MethodCallExpression call) +51 NHibernate.Linq.Visitors.ImmediateResultsVisitor`1.VisitMethodCall(MethodCallExpression call) +411 NHibernate.Linq.Visitors.ExpressionVisitor.Visit(Expression exp) +371 In MediaGallery.cshtml (found in error description above) is written: @model Orchard.jPlayer.Models.MediaGalleryPart <fieldset> <div>@Html.LabelFor(o => o.MediaGalleryName, @T("Media gallery"))</div> @if(!Model.HasAvailableGalleries) { <div>@T("You need first to create an media gallery on Media Gallery menu")</div> } else { <div>@Html.DropDownListFor(o => o.SelectedGallery, Model.AvailableGalleries)</div> <div>@Html.LabelFor(o => o.SelectedType, @T("Media gallery type"))</div> <div>@Html.DropDownListFor(o => o.SelectedType, Model.AvailableTypes)</div> <div>@Html.LabelFor(o => o.AutoPlay, @T("Auto play"))</div> <div>@Html.CheckBoxFor(o => o.AutoPlay)</div> } </fieldset> My problem is now, I cannot find or edit the widget with double used name. I would love to replace it to another name. But I do not know where to do this. Please advice.

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  • jQuery - google chrome won't get updated textarea value

    - by Phil Jackson
    Hi, I have a textarea with default text 'write comment...'. when a user updates the textarea and clicks 'add comment' Google chrome does not get the new text. heres my code; function add_comment( token, loader ){ $('textarea.n-c-i').focus(function(){ if( $(this).html() == 'write a comment...' ) { $(this).html(''); } }); $('textarea.n-c-i').blur(function(){ if( $(this).html() == '' ) { $(this).html('write a comment...'); } }); $(".add-comment").bind("click", function() { try{ var but = $(this); var parent = but.parents('.n-w'); var ref = parent.attr("ref"); var comment_box = parent.find('textarea'); var comment = comment_box.val(); alert(comment); var con_wrap = parent.find('ul.com-box'); var contents = con_wrap .html(); var outa_wrap = parent.find('.n-c-b'); var outa = outa_wrap.html(); var com_box = parent.find('ul.com-box'); var results = parent.find('p.com-result'); results.html(loader); comment_box.attr("disabled", "disabled"); but.attr("disabled", "disabled"); $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: './', data: 'add-comment=true&ref=' + encodeURIComponent(ref) + '&com=' + encodeURIComponent(comment) + '&token=' + token + '&aj=true', cache: false, timeout: 7000, error: function(){ $.fancybox(internal_error, internal_error_fbs); results.html(''); comment_box.removeAttr("disabled"); but.removeAttr("disabled"); }, success: function(html){ auth(html); if( html != '<span class="error-msg">Error, message could not be posted at this time</span>' ) { if( con_wrap.length == 0 ) { outa_wrap.html('<ul class="com-box">' + html + '</ul>' + outa); outa_wrap.find('li:last').fadeIn(); add_comment( token, loader ); }else{ com_box.html(contents + html); com_box.find('li:last').fadeIn(); } } results.html(''); comment_box.removeAttr("disabled"); but.removeAttr("disabled"); } }); }catch(err){alert(err);} return false; }); } any help much appreciated.

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  • Yii - Custom GridView with Multiple Tables

    - by savinger
    So, I've extended GridView to include an Advanced Search feature tailored to the needs of my organization. Filter - lets you show/hide columns in the table, and you can also reorder columns by dragging the little drag icon to the left of each item. Sort - Allows for the selection of multiple columns, specify Ascending or Descending. Search - Select your column and insert search parameters. Operators tailored to data type of selected column. Version 1 works, albeit slowly. Basically, I had my hands in the inner workings of CGridView, where I snatch the results from the DataProvider and do the searching and sorting in PHP before rendering the table contents. Now writing Version 2, where I aim to focus on clever CDbCriteria creation, allowing MySQL to do the heavy lifting so it will run quicker. The implementation is trivial when dealing with a single database table. The difficulty arises when I'm dealing with 2 or more tables... For example, if the user intends to search on a field that is a STAT relation, I need that relation to be present in my query. Here's the question. How do I assure that Yii includes all with relations in my query so that I include comparisons? I've included all my relations with my criteria in the model's search function and I've tried CDbCriteria's together ... public function search() { $criteria=new CDbCriteria; $criteria->compare('id', $this->id); $criteria->compare( ... ... $criteria->with = array('relation1','relation2','relation3'); $criteria->together = true; return new CActiveDataProvider( get_class($this), array( 'criteria'=>$criteria, 'pagination' => array('pageSize' => 50) ));} But I still get errors like this... CDbCommand failed to execute the SQL statement: SQLSTATE[42S22]: Column not found: 1054 Unknown column 't.relation3' in 'where clause'. The SQL statement executed was: SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT `t`.`id`) FROM `table` `t` LEFT OUTER JOIN `relation_table` `relation0` ON (`t`.`id`=`relation0`.`id`) LEFT OUTER JOIN `relation_table` `relation1` ON (`t`.`id`=`relation1`.`id`) WHERE (`t`.`relation3` < 1234567890) Where relation0 and relation1 are BELONGS_TO relations, but any STAT relations are missing. Furthermore, why is the query a SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT 't'.'id') ?

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  • WPF / Silverlight Binding when setting DataTemplate programically

    - by Daniel
    I have my little designer tool (my program). On the left side I have TreeView and on the right site I have Accordion. When I select a node I want to dynamically build Accordion Items based on Properties from DataContext of selected node. Selecting nodes works fine, and when I use this sample code for testing it works also. XAML code: <layoutToolkit:Accordion x:Name="accPanel" SelectionMode="ZeroOrMore" SelectionSequence="Simultaneous"> <layoutToolkit:AccordionItem Header="Controller Info"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" DataContext="{Binding}"> <TextBlock Text="Content:" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}" /> </StackPanel> </layoutToolkit:AccordionItem> </layoutToolkit:Accordion> C# code: private void treeSceneNode_SelectedItemChanged(object sender, RoutedPropertyChangedEventArgs<object> e) { if (e.NewValue != e.OldValue) { if (e.NewValue is SceneNode) { accPanel.DataContext = e.NewValue; //e.NewValue is a class that contains Name property } } } But the problem occurs when I'm trying to achive this using DateTemplate and dynamically build AccordingItem, the Binding is not working: <layoutToolkit:Accordion x:Name="accPanel" SelectionMode="ZeroOrMore" SelectionSequence="Simultaneous" /> and DataTemplate in my ResourceDictionary <DataTemplate x:Key="dtSceneNodeContent"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" DataContext="{Binding}"> <TextBlock Text="Content:" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> and C# code: private void treeSceneNode_SelectedItemChanged(object sender, RoutedPropertyChangedEventArgs<object> e) { if (e.NewValue != e.OldValue) { ResourceDictionary rd = new ResourceDictionary(); rd.Source = new Uri("/SilverGL.GUI;component/SilverGLDesignerResourceDictionary.xaml", UriKind.RelativeOrAbsolute); if (e.NewValue is SceneNode) { accPanel.DataContext = e.NewValue; AccordionItem accController = new AccordionItem(); accController.Header = "Controller Info"; accController.ContentTemplate = rd["dtSceneNodeContent"] as DataTemplate; accPanel.Items.Add(accController); } else { // Other type of node } } } I really need help with this issue. Thanks for any support.

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  • Speed Problem with Wireless Connectivity on Cisco 877w

    - by Carl Crawley
    Having a bit of a weird one with my local LAN setup. I recently installed a Cisco 877W router on my DSL2+ connection and all is working really well.. Upgraded the IOS to 12.4 and my wired clients are streaming connectivity superfast at 1.3mb/s. However, there seems to be an issue with my wireless clients - I can't seem to stream any data across the local wireless connection (LAN) and using the Internet, whilst responsive enough isn't really comparable with the wired connection speed. For example, all devices are connected to an 8 Port Gb switch on FE0 from the Router with a NAS disk and on my wired clients, I can transfer/stream etc absolutely fine - however, transferring a local 700Mb file on my local LAN estimates 7-8 hours to transfer :( The Wireless config is as follows : interface Dot11Radio0 description WIRELESS INTERFACE no ip address ! encryption mode ciphers tkip ! ssid [MySSID] ! speed basic-1.0 basic-2.0 basic-5.5 6.0 9.0 basic-11.0 channel 2462 station-role root rts threshold 2312 world-mode dot11d country GB indoor bridge-group 1 bridge-group 1 subscriber-loop-control bridge-group 1 spanning-disabled bridge-group 1 block-unknown-source no bridge-group 1 source-learning no bridge-group 1 unicast-flooding All devices are connected to the Gb Switch which is connected to FE0 with the following: Hardware is Fast Ethernet, address is 0021.a03e.6519 (bia 0021.a03e.6519) Description: Uplink to Switch MTU 1500 bytes, BW 100000 Kbit/sec, DLY 100 usec, reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255 Encapsulation ARPA, loopback not set Keepalive set (10 sec) Full-duplex, 100Mb/s ARP type: ARPA, ARP Timeout 04:00:00 Last input never, output never, output hang never Last clearing of "show interface" counters never Input queue: 0/75/0/0 (size/max/drops/flushes); Total output drops: 0 Queueing strategy: fifo Output queue: 0/40 (size/max) 5 minute input rate 14000 bits/sec, 19 packets/sec 5 minute output rate 167000 bits/sec, 23 packets/sec 177365 packets input, 52089562 bytes, 0 no buffer Received 919 broadcasts, 0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles 260 input errors, 260 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored 0 input packets with dribble condition detected 156673 packets output, 106218222 bytes, 0 underruns 0 output errors, 0 collisions, 2 interface resets 0 babbles, 0 late collision, 0 deferred 0 lost carrier, 0 no carrier 0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out Not sure why I'm having problems on the wireless and I've reached the end of my Cisco knowledge... Thanks for any pointers! Carl

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  • What is the best python module skeleton code?

    - by user213060
    == Subjective Question Warning == Looking for well supported opinions or supporting evidence. Let us assume that skeleton code can be good. If you disagree with the very concept of module skeleton code then fine, but please refrain from repeating that opinion here. Many python IDE's will start you with a template like: print 'hello world' That's not enough... So here's my skeleton code to get this question started: My Module Skeleton, Short Version: #!/usr/bin/env python """ Module Docstring """ # ## Code goes here. # def test(): """Testing Docstring""" pass if __name__=='__main__': test() and, My Module Skeleton, Long Version: #!/usr/bin/env python # -*- coding: ascii -*- """ Module Docstring Docstrings: http://www.python.org/dev/peps/pep-0257/ """ __author__ = 'Joe Author ([email protected])' __copyright__ = 'Copyright (c) 2009-2010 Joe Author' __license__ = 'New-style BSD' __vcs_id__ = '$Id$' __version__ = '1.2.3' #Versioning: http://www.python.org/dev/peps/pep-0386/ # ## Code goes here. # def test(): """ Testing Docstring""" pass if __name__=='__main__': test() Notes: """ ===MODULE TYPE=== Since the vast majority of my modules are "library" types, I have constructed this example skeleton as such. For modules that act as the main entry for running the full application, you would make changes such as running a main() function instead of the test() function in __main__. ===VERSIONING=== The following practice, specified in PEP8, no longer makes sense: __version__ = '$Revision: 1.2.3 $' for two reasons: (1) Distributed version control systems make it neccessary to include more than just a revision number. E.g. author name and revision number. (2) It's a revision number not a version number. Instead, the __vcs_id__ variable is being adopted. This expands to, for example: __vcs_id__ = '$Id: example.py,v 1.1.1.1 2001/07/21 22:14:04 goodger Exp $' ===VCS DATE=== Likewise, the date variable has been removed: __date__ = '$Date: 2009/01/02 20:19:18 $' ===CHARACTER ENCODING=== If the coding is explicitly specified, then it should be set to the default setting of ascii. This can be modified if necessary (rarely in practice). Defaulting to utf-8 can cause anomalies with editors that have poor unicode support. """ There are a lot of PEPs that put forward coding style recommendations. Am I missing any important best practices? What is the best python module skeleton code? Update Show me any kind of "best" that you prefer. Tell us what metrics you used to qualify "best".

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  • Evaluation of CTEs in SQL Server 2005

    - by Jammer
    I have a question about how MS SQL evaluates functions inside CTEs. A couple of searches didn't turn up any results related to this issue, but I apologize if this is common knowledge and I'm just behind the curve. It wouldn't be the first time :-) This query is a simplified (and obviously less dynamic) version of what I'm actually doing, but it does exhibit the problem I'm experiencing. It looks like this: CREATE TABLE #EmployeePool(EmployeeID int, EmployeeRank int); INSERT INTO #EmployeePool(EmployeeID, EmployeeRank) SELECT 42, 1 UNION ALL SELECT 43, 2; DECLARE @NumEmployees int; SELECT @NumEmployees = COUNT(*) FROM #EmployeePool; WITH RandomizedCustomers AS ( SELECT CAST(c.Criteria AS int) AS CustomerID, dbo.fnUtil_Random(@NumEmployees) AS RandomRank FROM dbo.fnUtil_ParseCriteria(@CustomerIDs, 'int') c) SELECT rc.CustomerID, ep.EmployeeID FROM RandomizedCustomers rc JOIN #EmployeePool ep ON ep.EmployeeRank = rc.RandomRank; DROP TABLE #EmployeePool; The following can be assumed about all executions of the above: The result of dbo.fnUtil_Random() is always an int value greater than zero and less than or equal to the argument passed in. Since it's being called above with @NumEmployees which has the value 2, this function always evaluates to 1 or 2. The result of dbo.fnUtil_ParseCriteria(@CustomerIDs, 'int') produces a one-column, one-row table that contains a sql_variant with a base type of 'int' that has the value 219935. Given the above assumptions, it makes sense (to me, anyway) that the result of the expression above should always produce a two-column table containing one record - CustomerID and an EmployeeID. The CustomerID should always be the int value 219935, and the EmployeeID should be either 42 or 43. However, this is not always the case. Sometimes I get the expected single record. Other times I get two records (one for each EmployeeID), and still others I get no records. However, if I replace the RandomizedCustomers CTE with a true temp table, the problem vanishes completely. Every time I think I have an explanation for this behavior, it turns out to not make sense or be impossible, so I literally cannot explain why this would happen. Since the problem does not happen when I replace the CTE with a temp table, I can only assume it has something to do with the functions inside CTEs are evaluated during joins to that CTE. Do any of you have any theories?

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  • Verify Authenticode signature as being from our company for automatic updater

    - by James Johnston
    I am implementing an automatic update feature and need some advice on how to do this securely using best practices. I would like to use the downloaded file's Authenticode signature to verify that it is safe to run (i.e. originates from our company and hasn't been tampered with). My question is very similar to question #2008519. The bottom-line question: what's the best, most secure way to check Authenticode signatures for an automatic update feature? What fields in the certificate should be checked? Requirements being: (1) check signature is valid, (2) check it's my signature, (3) old clients can still update when my certificate expires and I get a new one. Here's some background information / ideas from my research: I believe this could be broken into two steps: Verify that the signature is valid. I believe this should be easy using WinVerifyTrust as outlined in http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa382384(VS.85).aspx - I don't expect problems here. Verify that the signature corresponds to our company, and not another company. This seems to be a more difficult question to answer: One possibility is to check some of the strings in the signature. Could be obtained via code at MS KB article #323809, but this article doesn't make recommendations on what fields should be checked for this type of application (or any other, for that matter). Question #1072540 also illustrates how to get some certificate info, but again doesn't recommend what fields to actually check. My concern is that the strings might not be the best check: what if another person is able to obtain a certificate with the same name, for example? Or if there's a valid reason for us to change the strings in the future? The person at question #2008519 has a very similar requirement. His need for a "TrustedByUs" function is identical to mine. However, he goes about doing the check by comparing public keys. While this would work in the short-term, it seems like it won't work for an automatic update feature. This is because code signing certificates are only valid for 2 - 3 years max. Therefore, in the future, when we buy a new certificate in 2 years, the old clients wouldn't be able to update any more due to the change in public key.

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  • Is x a reserved keyword in Javascript FF/Safari not in IE?

    - by Marco Demaio
    A web page of a web application was showing a strange error. I regressively removed all the HTML/CSS/JS code and arrived to the basic and simple code below. <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html><head> <title>test</title> <script type="text/javascript"> var TestObj = { foo: function() {} } alert(x); //ok displays "undefined" var x = TestObj.foo; var z = TestObj.foo; </script> </head><body> <p onclick='alert(x);'>Click shows function foo!</p> <img onclick='alert(x);' alt='CRAZY click displays a number in FF/Safari not function foo' src='' style='display: block; width: 100px; height: 100px; border: 1px solid #00ff00;'> <p onclick='alert(x);'>Click shows function foo!</p> </body></html> It's crazy: when clicking on P elements the string "function(){}" is displaied as expected. But when clicking on IMG element it shows a number as if x function got in some way removed from memory or deinstantiated (it does not even show x as "undefined" but as a number). To let you test it quickly I placed the working test above also here. This can be reproduced on both Firefox 3.6 and Safari 4.0.4. Everything works properly only on IE7+. I'm really clueless, I was wondering if x is maybe a reserved keyword in JS Firefox/Safari. Thanks to anyone who could help! FYI: if you repalce x() with z() everything work prefectly in all browsers (this is even more crazy to me) adding a real image in src attribute does not fix the problem removing style in img does not fix the problem (i gave style to image only to help you clicking on image thus you can see the imnage border)

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  • WMI: Editing the Registry Remotely

    - by Quanta
    I'm trying to use the following code (poorly written, but it's just a proof of concept) to edit the registry of a computer on a domain. I have a domain account, and I've verified that the domain admin group is present in the local admin group on the machines I'm attempting to affect. I've connected to these other machines to perform other administrative type tasks, so I'm sure that I have administrative privileges on these hosts. All of StdRegProv's "get" methods work fine (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa393664%28VS.85%29.aspx) but the "set" or "create" methods as well as check access all return "5" which is "Error_Access_Denied" according to winerror.h. So there's the problem: why do I get access denied when attempting to modify the registry? If anyone can help me figure this out, you'd have my utmost appreciation! I almost forgot, when I fire up Visual Studio in admin mode on my local machine and run the code against the local machine, it works flawlessly. If I don't start in admin mode on the local machine, the code fails, so I suspect there's a UAC problem maybe? using System; using System.Management; public class EditRemoteRegistry { public static void Main(string[] args) { ConnectionOptions options = new ConnectionOptions(); options.EnablePrivileges = true; options.Impersonation = ImpersonationLevel.Impersonate; options.Password = "password goes here"; //options.Authority = "my company's domain"; //options.Username = "Admin username"; ManagementScope scope = new ManagementScope("\\\\arbitraryhost\\root\\default", options); scope.Connect(); ManagementClass mc = new ManagementClass("StdRegProv"); ManagementBaseObject inParams = mc.GetMethodParameters("CreateKey"); inParams["hDefKey"] = (UInt32)2147483650; inParams["sSubKeyName"] = "Software\\Test"; ManagementBaseObject outParams = mc.InvokeMethod("CreateKey", inParams, null); //Should return a 0, but returns a 5, "Error_Access_Denied" Console.WriteLine("CreateKey Method returned " + outParams["returnValue"]); //This chunk works fine ManagementBaseObject inParams5 = mc.GetMethodParameters("GetDWORDValue"); inParams5["hDefKey"] = 2147483650; inParams5["sSubKeyName"] = "Software\\Test"; inParams5["sValueName"] = "testDWORDvalue"; ManagementBaseObject outParams5 = mc.InvokeMethod("GetDWORDValue", inParams5, null); Console.WriteLine("GetDWORDValue returned " + (UInt32)outParams5["returnValue"] + " "); Console.WriteLine((UInt32)outParams5["uValue"]); ManagementBaseObject inParams6 = mc.GetMethodParameters("SetStringValue"); inParams6["hDefKey"] = 2147483650; inParams6["sSubKeyName"] = "Software\\Test"; inParams6["sValueName"] = "TestStringValue"; inParams6["sValue"] = "Hello World!"; ManagementBaseObject outParams6 = mc.InvokeMethod("SetStringValue", inParams6, null); //Should return a 0, but returns a 5, "Error_Access_Denied" Console.WriteLine("SetStringValue returned " + outParams6["returnValue"]); Console.ReadKey(); } }

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  • should I ever put a major version number into a C#/Java namespace?

    - by Andrew Patterson
    I am designing a set of 'service' layer objects (data objects and interface definitions) for a WCF web service (that will be consumed by third party clients i.e. not in-house, so outside my direct control). I know that I am not going to get the interface definition exactly right - and am wanting to prepare for the time when I know that I will have to introduce a breaking set of new data objects. However, the reality of the world I am in is that I will also need to run my first version simultaneously for quite a while. The first version of my service will have URL of http://host/app/v1service.svc and when the times comes by new version will live at http://host/app/v2service.svc However, when it comes to the data objects and interfaces, I am toying with putting the 'major' version of the interface number into the actual namespace of the classes. namespace Company.Product.V1 { [DataContract(Namespace = "company-product-v1")] public class Widget { [DataMember] string widgetName; } public interface IFunction { Widget GetWidgetData(int code); } } When the time comes for a fundamental change to the service, I will introduce some classes like namespace Company.Product.V2 { [DataContract(Namespace = "company-product-v2")] public class Widget { [DataMember] int widgetCode; [DataMember] int widgetExpiry; } public interface IFunction { Widget GetWidgetData(int code); } } The advantages as I see it are that I will be able to have a single set of code serving both interface versions, sharing functionality where possible. This is because I will be able to reference both interface versions as a distinct set of C# objects. Similarly, clients may use both interface versions simultaneously, perhaps using V1.Widget in some legacy code whilst new bits move on to V2.Widget. Can anyone tell why this is a stupid idea? I have a nagging feeling that this is a bit smelly.. notes: I am obviously not proposing every single new version of the service would be in a new namespace. Presumably I will do as many non-breaking interface changes as possible, but I know that I will hit a point where all the data modelling will probably need a significant rewrite. I understand assembly versioning etc but I think this question is tangential to that type of versioning. But I could be wrong.

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  • XmlDataProvider and XPath bindings don't allow default namespace of XML data?

    - by Andy Dent
    I am struggling to work out how to use default namespaces with XmlDataProvider and XPath bindings. There's an ugly answer using local-name <Binding XPath="*[local-name()='Name']" /> but that is not acceptable to the client who wants this XAML to be highly maintainable. The fallback is to force them to use non-default namespaces in the report XML but that is an undesirable solution. The XML report file looks like the following. It will only work if I remove xmlns="http://www.acme.com/xml/schemas/report so there is no default namespace. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <?xml-stylesheet type='text/xsl' href='PreviewReportImages.xsl'?> <Report xsl:schemaLocation="http://www.acme.com/xml/schemas/report BlahReport.xsd" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns="http://www.acme.com/xml/schemas/report"> <Service>Muncher</Service> <Analysis> <Date>27 Apr 2010</Date> <Time>0:09</Time> <Authoriser>Service Centre Manager</Authoriser> Which I am presenting in a window with XAML: <Window x:Class="AcmeTest.ReportPreview" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="ReportPreview" Height="300" Width="300" > <Window.Resources> <XmlDataProvider x:Key="Data"/> </Window.Resources> <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical" DataContext="{Binding Source={StaticResource Data}, XPath=Report}"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding XPath=Service}"/> </StackPanel> </Window> with code-behind used to load an XmlDocument into the XmlDataProvider (seems the only way to have loading from a file or object varying at runtime). public partial class ReportPreview : Window { private void InitXmlProvider(XmlDocument doc) { XmlDataProvider xd = (XmlDataProvider)Resources["Data"]; xd.Document = doc; } public ReportPreview(XmlDocument doc) { InitializeComponent(); InitXmlProvider(doc); } public ReportPreview(String reportPath) { InitializeComponent(); var doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.Load(reportPath); InitXmlProvider(doc); } }

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  • WPF MVVM: Convention over Configuration for ResourceDictionary ?

    - by Jeffrey Knight
    Update In the wiki spirit of StackOverflow, here's an update: I spiked Joe White's IValueConverter suggestion below. It works like a charm. I've written a "quickstart" example of this that automates the mapping of ViewModels-Views using some cheap string replacement. If no View is found to represent the ViewModel, it defaults to an "Under Construction" page. I'm dubbing this approach "WPF MVVM White" since it was Joe White's idea. Here are a couple screenshots. The first image is a case of "[SomeControlName]ViewModel" has a corresponding "[SomeControlName]View", based on pure naming convention. The second is a case where the ModelView doesn't have any views to represent it. No more ResourceDictionaries with long ViewModel to View mappings. It's pure naming convention now. I'm hosting a download of the project here: http://rootsilver.com/files/Mvvm.White.Quickstart.zip I'll follow up with a longer blog post walk through. Original Post I read Josh Smith's fantastic MSDN article on WPF MVVM over the weekend. It's destined to be a cult classic. It took me a while to wrap my head around the magic of asking WPF to render the ViewModel. It's like saying "Here's a class, WPF. Go figure out which UI to use to present it." For those who missed this magic, WPF can do this by looking up the View for ModelView in the ResourceDictionary mapping and pulling out the corresponding View. (Scroll down to Figure 10 Supplying a View ). The first thing that jumps out at me immediately is that there's already a strong naming convention of: classNameView ("View" suffix) classNameViewModel ("ViewModel" suffix) My question is: Since the ResourceDictionary can be manipulated programatically, I"m wondering if anyone has managed to Regex.Replace the whole thing away, so the lookup is automatic, and any new View/ViewModels get resolved by virtue of their naming convention? [Edit] What I'm imagining is a hook/interception into ResourceDictionary. ... Also considering a method at startup that uses interop to pull out *View$ and *ViewModel$ class names to build the DataTemplate dictionary in code: //build list foreach .... String.Format("<DataTemplate DataType=\"{x:Type vm:{0} }\"><v:{1} /></DataTemplate>", ...)

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  • memcpy segmentation fault on linux but not os x

    - by Andre
    I'm working on implementing a log based file system for a file as a class project. I have a good amount of it working on my 64 bit OS X laptop, but when I try to run the code on the CS department's 32 bit linux machines, I get a seg fault. The API we're given allows writing DISK_SECTOR_SIZE (512) bytes at a time. Our log record consists of the 512 bytes the user wants to write as well as some metadata (which sector he wants to write to, the type of operation, etc). All in all, the size of the "record" object is 528 bytes, which means each log record spans 2 sectors on the disk. The first record writes 0-512 on sector 0, and 0-15 on sector 1. The second record writes 16-512 on sector 1, and 0-31 on sector 2. The third record writes 32-512 on sector 2, and 0-47 on sector 3. ETC. So what I do is read the two sectors I'll be modifying into 2 freshly allocated buffers, copy starting at record into buf1+the calculated offset for 512-offset bytes. This works correctly on both machines. However, the second memcpy fails. Specifically, "record+DISK_SECTOR_SIZE-offset" in the below code segfaults, but only on the linux machine. Running some random tests, it gets more curious. The linux machine reports sizeof(Record) to be 528. Therefore, if I tried to memcpy from record+500 into buf for 1 byte, it shouldn't have a problem. In fact, the biggest offset I can get from record is 254. That is, memcpy(buf1, record+254, 1) works, but memcpy(buf1, record+255, 1) segfaults. Does anyone know what I'm missing? Record *record = malloc(sizeof(Record)); record->tid = tid; record->opType = OP_WRITE; record->opArg = sector; int i; for (i = 0; i < DISK_SECTOR_SIZE; i++) { record->data[i] = buf[i]; // *buf is passed into this function } char* buf1 = malloc(DISK_SECTOR_SIZE); char* buf2 = malloc(DISK_SECTOR_SIZE); d_read(ad->disk, ad->curLogSector, buf1); d_read(ad->disk, ad->curLogSector+1, buf2); memcpy(buf1+offset, record, DISK_SECTOR_SIZE-offset); memcpy(buf2, record+DISK_SECTOR_SIZE-offset, offset+sizeof(Record)-sizeof(record->data));

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  • Save File to Sharepoint Server using JAX-WS

    - by Evan Porter
    I'm trying to save a file to a Sharepoint server using JAX-WS. The web service call is reporting a success, but the file doesn't show up. I used this command (from a WinXP) to generate the Java code to make the JAX-WS call: wsimport -keep -extension -Xnocompile http://hostname/sites/teamname/_vti_bin/Copy.asmx?WSDL I get a handle on the web service which I called port using the following: CopySoap port = null; if (userName != null && password != null) { Copy service = new Copy(); port = service.getCopySoap(); ((BindingProvider) port).getRequestContext().put(BindingProvider.USERNAME_PROPERTY, userName); ((BindingProvider) port).getRequestContext().put(BindingProvider.PASSWORD_PROPERTY, password); } else { throw new Exception("Holy Frijolé! Null userName and/or password!"); } I called the web service using the following: port.copyIntoItems(sourceUrl, destUrlCollection, fields , "Contents of the file".getBytes(), copyIntoItemsResult, copyResultCollection) The sourceUrl and the only url in destUrlCollection equals "hostname/sites/teamname/Tech Docs/Sub Folder". The FieldInformationCollection object named fields contains only one FieldInformation. The FieldInformation object has "HelloWorld.txt" as the value for displayName, internalName and value. The type property is set to FieldType.FILE. The id property is set to (java.util.UUID.randomUUID()).toString(). The call to copyIntoItems returns successfuly; copyIntoItemsResult contains a value of 0 and the only CopyResult object set in copyResultCollection has an error code of "SUCCESS" with a null error message. When I look into the "Tech Docs" library on Sharepoint, in the "Sub Folder" there's no file there. Why wouldn't it tell me what I did wrong? Did I just miss a step? Update (Feb 26th, 2011) I've changed my FieldInformation object's displayName and internalName properties to be "Title" as suggested. Still no joy, but a step in the right direction. After playing around with the urls for a bit, I got these results: With both the sourceUrl and the only destination URL equivalent, with no protocol, I get the SUCCESS response but no actual document appears in the document library. With both of the URLs equivalent but with an "http://" protocol specified, I get an UNKNOWN error with "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." as the message. With the source URL an empty string or null, I get an UNKNOWN error with " Value does not fall within the expected range." as the error message.

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  • Absolute reRendering using RichFaces

    - by wheelie
    Hey there, I am implementing copy/paste functionality for a complex object tree, this means you can copy an object and paste it where the object type is the same. Therefore I need to reRender the <a4j:commandLink>-s which are performing the paste action (so it will show on the GUI or not). Simplified example: Problem is that copy links are deep in the tree. How is it possible to reRender on a higher level in the component tree? (very)Simplified example: ... <h:form id="form1"> ... <a4j:commandLink value="Copy" reRender=":paste1, :paste2, :paste3" /> <a4j:commandLink id="paste1" value="Paste" rendered="#{myBean.myHashMap.key}" /> <a4j:outputPanel> <a4j:region renderRegionOnly="true"> <a4j:commandLink value="Copy" reRender=":paste1, :paste2, :paste3" /> <a4j:commandLink id="paste2" value="Paste" rendered="#{myBean.myHashMap.key}" /> </a4j:region> <a4j:outputPanel> <a4j:region renderRegionOnly="true"> <a4j:commandLink value="Copy" reRender=":paste1, :paste2, :paste3" /> <a4j:commandLink id="paste3" value="Paste" rendered="#{myBean.myHashMap.key}" /> </a4j:region> </a4j:outputPanel> </a4j:outputPanel> ... </h:form> Something like that. In practise this differs in that a rich:tree is displayed. Also, there can be multiple instances of the same paste link: object:0::paste3, object:1::paste3. private final String pasteIDs = ":xxPaste, ... , :xyPaste"; According to the RichFaces reference, putting the separator to the beginning of the ID means it is an "absolute" search expression, however this way i get the same result: only the 'local' paste link gets rerendered, the others not. Every copy-paste link pair is encapsulated in <a4j:region renderRegionOnly="true">, because it is necessary for other components to restrict the reRender to that region. Could this be blocking the reRender I want to make? Also I want to rerender exactly those paste links, so no other rerender action is triggered. Hope it is clear what i want to achieve. Any help would be appreciated! Daniel

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  • EntityManagerFactory error on Websphere

    - by neverland
    I have a very weird problem. Have an application using Hibernate and spring.I have an entitymanger defined which uses a JNDI lookup .It looks something like this <bean id="entityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="ConfigAPPPersist" /> <property name="jpaVendorAdapter"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaVendorAdapter"> <property name="showSql" value="true" /> <property name="generateDdl" value="false" /> <property name="databasePlatform" value="org.hibernate.dialect.Oracle9Dialect" /> </bean> </property> </bean> <bean id="dataSource" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.WebSphereDataSourceAdapter"> <property name="targetDataSource"> <bean class="org.springframework.jndi.JndiObjectFactoryBean"> <property name="jndiName" value="jdbc/pmp" /> </bean> </property> </bean> This application runs fine in DEV. But when we move to higher envs the team that deploys this application does it successfully initially but after a few restarts of the application the entitymanager starts giving this problem Caused by: javax.persistence.PersistenceException: [PersistenceUnit: ConfigAPPPersist] Unable to build EntityManagerFactory at org.hibernate.ejb.Ejb3Configuration.buildEntityManagerFactory(Ejb3Configuration.java:677) at org.hibernate.ejb.HibernatePersistence.createContainerEntityManagerFactory(HibernatePersistence.java:132) at org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean.createNativeEntityManagerFactory(LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean.java:224) at org.springframework.orm.jpa.AbstractEntityManagerFactoryBean.afterPropertiesSet(AbstractEntityManagerFactoryBean.java:291) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.invokeInitMethods(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:1368) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.initializeBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:1334) ... 32 more Caused by: org.hibernate.MappingException: **property mapping has wrong number of columns**: com.***.***.jpa.marketing.entity.MarketBrands.$performasure_j2eeInfo type: object Now you would say this is pretty obvious the entity MarketBrands is incorrect. But its not it maps to the table just fine. And the same code works on DEV. Also the jndi cannot be incorrect since it deploys and works fine initially but throws uo this error after a restart. This is weird and not very logical. But if someone has faced this or has any idea on what might be causing this Please!! help The persistence.xml for the persitence unit has very little <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <persistence xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence/persistence_1_0.xsd" version="1.0"> <persistence-unit name="ConfigAPPPersist"> <!-- commented code --> </persistence-unit> </persistence>

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  • Help with Linq Expression - INotifyPropertyChanged

    - by Stephen Patten
    Hello, I'm reading the source code from the latest Prism 4 drop and am interested in solving this problem. There is a base class for the ViewModels that implements INotifyPropertyChanged and INotifyDataErrorInfo and provides some refactoring friendly change notification. protected void RaisePropertyChanged<T>(Expression<Func<T>> propertyExpresssion) { var propertyName = ExtractPropertyName(propertyExpresssion); this.RaisePropertyChanged(propertyName); } private string ExtractPropertyName<T>(Expression<Func<T>> propertyExpresssion) { if (propertyExpresssion == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("propertyExpression"); } var memberExpression = propertyExpresssion.Body as MemberExpression; if (memberExpression == null) { throw new ArgumentException("The expression is not a member access expression.", "propertyExpression"); } var property = memberExpression.Member as PropertyInfo; if (property == null) { throw new ArgumentException("The member access expression does not access property.","propertyExpression"); } if (!property.DeclaringType.IsAssignableFrom(this.GetType())) { throw new ArgumentException("The referenced property belongs to a different type.", "propertyExpression"); } var getMethod = property.GetGetMethod(true); if (getMethod == null) { // this shouldn't happen - the expression would reject the property before reaching this far throw new ArgumentException("The referenced property does not have a get method.", "propertyExpression"); } if (getMethod.IsStatic) { throw new ArgumentException("The referenced property is a static property.", "propertyExpression"); } return memberExpression.Member.Name; } and as an example of it's usage private void RetrieveNewQuestionnaire() { this.Questions.Clear(); var template = this.questionnaireService.GetQuestionnaireTemplate(); this.questionnaire = new Questionnaire(template); foreach (var question in this.questionnaire.Questions) { this.Questions.Add(this.CreateQuestionViewModel(question)); } this.RaisePropertyChanged(() => this.Name); this.RaisePropertyChanged(() => this.UnansweredQuestions); this.RaisePropertyChanged(() => this.TotalQuestions); this.RaisePropertyChanged(() => this.CanSubmit); } My question is this. What would it take to pass an array of the property names to an overloaded method (RaisePropertyChanged) and condense this last bit of code from 4 lines to 1? Thank you, Stephen

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  • Cannot populate form with ajax and populate jquery plugin

    - by Azriel_
    I'm trying to populate a form with jquery's populate plugin, but using $.ajax The idea is to retrieve data from my database according to the id in the links (ex of link: get_result_edit.php?id=34), reformulate it to json, return it to my page and fill up the form up with the populate plugin. But somehow i cannot get it to work. Any ideas: here's the code: $('a').click(function(){ $('#updatediv').hide('slow'); $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "get_result_edit.php", success: function(data) { var $response=$(data); $('#form1').populate($response); } }); $('#updatediv').fadeIn('slow'); return false; whilst the php file states as follow: <?php $conn = new mysqli('localhost', 'XXXX', 'XXXXX', 'XXXXX'); @$query = 'Select * FROM news WHERE id ="'.$_GET['id'].'"'; $stmt = $conn->query($query) or die ($mysql->error()); if ($stmt) { $results = $stmt->fetch_object(); // get database data $json = json_encode($results); // convert to JSON format echo $json; } ?> Now first thing is that the mysql returns a null in this way: is there something wrong with he declaration of the sql statement in the $_GET part? Second is that even if i put a specific record to bring up, populate doesn't populate. Update: I changed the populate library with the one called "PHP jQuery helper functions" and the difference is that finally it says something. finally i get an error saying NO SUCH ELEMENT AS i wen into the library to have a look and up comes the following function function populateFormElement(form, name, value) { // check that the named element exists in the form var name = name; // handle non-php naming var element = form[name]; if(element == undefined) { debug('No such element as ' + name); return false; } // debug options if(options.debug) { _populate.elements.push(element); } } Now looking at it one can see that it should print out also the name, but its not printing it out. so i'm guessing that retrieving the name form the json is not working correctly. Link is at http://www.ocdmonline.org/michael/edit%5Fnews.php with username: Testing and pass:test123 Any ideas?

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  • Display label character by character using javascript

    - by Muhammad Sajid
    Hi, I am creating Hang a Man using PHP, MySQL & Javascript. Every thing is going perfect, I get a word randomly from DB show it as a label apply it a class where display = none. Now when I click on a Character that character become disable fine which i actually want but the label-character does not show. My code is: <link href="style.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" media="screen" /> <?php include( 'config.php' ); $question = questions(); // Get question. $alpha = alphabats(); // Get alphabets. ?> <script language="javascript"> function clickMe( name ){ var question = '<?php echo $question; ?>'; var questionLen = <?php echo strlen($question); ?>; for ( var i = 0; i < questionLen; i++ ){ if ( question[i] == name ){ var link = document.getElementById( name ); link.style.display = 'none'; var label = document.getElementById( 'questionLabel' + i ); label.style.display = 'block'; } } } </script> <div> <table align="center" style="border:solid 1px"> <tr> <?php for ( $i = 0; $i < 26; $i++ ) { echo "<td><a href='#' id=$alpha[$i] name=$alpha[$i] onclick=clickMe('$alpha[$i]');>". $alpha[$i] ."</a>&nbsp;</td>"; } ?> </tr> </table> <br/> <table align="center" style="border:solid 1px"> <tr> <?php for ( $i = 0; $i < strlen($question); $i++ ) { echo "<td class='question'><label id=questionLabel$i >". $question[$i] ."</label></td>"; } ?> </tr> </table> </div>

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  • DBCC CHECKDB on VVLDB and latches (Or: My Pain is Your Gain)

    - by Argenis
      Does your CHECKDB hurt, Argenis? There is a classic blog series by Paul Randal [blog|twitter] called “CHECKDB From Every Angle” which is pretty much mandatory reading for anybody who’s even remotely considering going for the MCM certification, or its replacement (the Microsoft Certified Solutions Master: Data Platform – makes my fingers hurt just from typing it). Of particular interest is the post “Consistency Options for a VLDB” – on it, Paul provides solid, timeless advice (I use the word “timeless” because it was written in 2007, and it all applies today!) on how to perform checks on very large databases. Well, here I was trying to figure out how to make CHECKDB run faster on a restored copy of one of our databases, which happens to exceed 7TB in size. The whole thing was taking several days on multiple systems, regardless of the storage used – SAS, SATA or even SSD…and I actually didn’t pay much attention to how long it was taking, or even bothered to look at the reasons why - as long as it was finishing okay and found no consistency errors. Yes – I know. That was a huge mistake, as corruption found in a database several days after taking place could only allow for further spread of the corruption – and potentially large data loss. In the last two weeks I increased my attention towards this problem, as we noticed that CHECKDB was taking EVEN LONGER on brand new all-flash storage in the SAN! I couldn’t really explain it, and were almost ready to blame the storage vendor. The vendor told us that they could initially see the server driving decent I/O – around 450Mb/sec, and then it would settle at a very slow rate of 10Mb/sec or so. “Hum”, I thought – “CHECKDB is just not pushing the I/O subsystem hard enough”. Perfmon confirmed the vendor’s observations. Dreaded @BlobEater What was CHECKDB doing all the time while doing so little I/O? Eating Blobs. It turns out that CHECKDB was taking an extremely long time on one of our frankentables, which happens to be have 35 billion rows (yup, with a b) and sucks up several terabytes of space in the database. We do have a project ongoing to purge/split/partition this table, so it’s just a matter of time before we deal with it. But the reality today is that CHECKDB is coming to a screeching halt in performance when dealing with this particular table. Checking sys.dm_os_waiting_tasks and sys.dm_os_latch_stats showed that LATCH_EX (DBCC_OBJECT_METADATA) was by far the top wait type. I remembered hearing recently about that wait from another post that Paul Randal made, but that was related to computed-column indexes, and in fact, Paul himself reminded me of his article via twitter. But alas, our pathologic table had no non-clustered indexes on computed columns. I knew that latches are used by the database engine to do internal synchronization – but how could I help speed this up? After all, this is stuff that doesn’t have a lot of knobs to tweak. (There’s a fantastic level 500 talk by Bob Ward from Microsoft CSS [blog|twitter] called “Inside SQL Server Latches” given at PASS 2010 – and you can check it out here. DISCLAIMER: I assume no responsibility for any brain melting that might ensue from watching Bob’s talk!) Failed Hypotheses Earlier on this week I flew down to Palo Alto, CA, to visit our Headquarters – and after having a great time with my Monkey peers, I was relaxing on the plane back to Seattle watching a great talk by SQL Server MVP and fellow MCM Maciej Pilecki [twitter] called “Masterclass: A Day in the Life of a Database Transaction” where he discusses many different topics related to transaction management inside SQL Server. Very good stuff, and when I got home it was a little late – that slow DBCC CHECKDB that I had been dealing with was way in the back of my head. As I was looking at the problem at hand earlier on this week, I thought “How about I set the database to read-only?” I remembered one of the things Maciej had (jokingly) said in his talk: “if you don’t want locking and blocking, set the database to read-only” (or something to that effect, pardon my loose memory). I immediately killed the CHECKDB which had been running painfully for days, and set the database to read-only mode. Then I ran DBCC CHECKDB against it. It started going really fast (even a bit faster than before), and then throttled down again to around 10Mb/sec. All sorts of expletives went through my head at the time. Sure enough, the same latching scenario was present. Oh well. I even spent some time trying to figure out if NUMA was hurting performance. Folks on Twitter made suggestions in this regard (thanks, Lonny! [twitter]) …Eureka? This past Friday I was still scratching my head about the whole thing; I was ready to start profiling with XPERF to see if I could figure out which part of the engine was to blame and then get Microsoft to look at the evidence. After getting a bunch of good news I’ll blog about separately, I sat down for a figurative smack down with CHECKDB before the weekend. And then the light bulb went on. A sparse column. I thought that I couldn’t possibly be experiencing the same scenario that Paul blogged about back in March showing extreme latching with non-clustered indexes on computed columns. Did I even have a non-clustered index on my sparse column? As it turns out, I did. I had one filtered non-clustered index – with the sparse column as the index key (and only column). To prove that this was the problem, I went and setup a test. Yup, that'll do it The repro is very simple for this issue: I tested it on the latest public builds of SQL Server 2008 R2 SP2 (CU6) and SQL Server 2012 SP1 (CU4). First, create a test database and a test table, which only needs to contain a sparse column: CREATE DATABASE SparseColTest; GO USE SparseColTest; GO CREATE TABLE testTable (testCol smalldatetime SPARSE NULL); GO INSERT INTO testTable (testCol) VALUES (NULL); GO 1000000 That’s 1 million rows, and even though you’re inserting NULLs, that’s going to take a while. In my laptop, it took 3 minutes and 31 seconds. Next, we run DBCC CHECKDB against the database: DBCC CHECKDB('SparseColTest') WITH NO_INFOMSGS, ALL_ERRORMSGS; This runs extremely fast, as least on my test rig – 198 milliseconds. Now let’s create a filtered non-clustered index on the sparse column: CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX [badBadIndex] ON testTable (testCol) WHERE testCol IS NOT NULL; With the index in place now, let’s run DBCC CHECKDB one more time: DBCC CHECKDB('SparseColTest') WITH NO_INFOMSGS, ALL_ERRORMSGS; In my test system this statement completed in 11433 milliseconds. 11.43 full seconds. Quite the jump from 198 milliseconds. I went ahead and dropped the filtered non-clustered indexes on the restored copy of our production database, and ran CHECKDB against that. We went down from 7+ days to 19 hours and 20 minutes. Cue the “Argenis is not impressed” meme, please, Mr. LaRock. My pain is your gain, folks. Go check to see if you have any of such indexes – they’re likely causing your consistency checks to run very, very slow. Happy CHECKDBing, -Argenis ps: I plan to file a Connect item for this issue – I consider it a pretty serious bug in the engine. After all, filtered indexes were invented BECAUSE of the sparse column feature – and it makes a lot of sense to use them together. Watch this space and my twitter timeline for a link.

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  • JQGrid and JQuery Autocomplete

    - by Neff
    When implementing JQGrid 4.3.0, Jquery 1.6.2, and JQuery UI 1.8.16 Ive come across an issue with the Inline edit. When the inline edit is activated, some of the elements get assigned an auto complete. When the inline edit is canceld or saved, the auto complete does not always go away (selecting text by double clicking it then hitting delete, then hitting escape to exit row edit). Leaving the auto complete controls in edit mode when the row is no longer considered in edit mode. Perhaps you can tell me if there is a problem with the initialization or if I you are aware of an event post-"afterrestorefunc" that the fields can be returned to their "original" state. Original state being displayed as data in the JQGrid row. I've tried removing the DOM after row close, .remove() and .empty(): ... "afterrestorefunc": function(){ $('.ui-autocomplete-input').remove(); } ... but that causes other issues, such as the jqgrid is not able to find the cell when serializing the row for data or edit, and requires a refresh of the page, not just jqgrid, to be able to once again see the data from that row. Auto complete functionality for the element is created on the double click of the row: function CreateCustomSearchElement(value, options, selectiontype) { ... var el; el = document.createElement("input"); ... $(el).autocomplete({ source: function (request, response) { $.ajax({ url: '<%=ResolveUrl("~/Services/AutoCompleteService.asmx/GetAutoCompleteResponse") %>', data: "{ 'prefixText': '" + request.term + "', 'contextKey': '" + options.name + "'}", dataType: "json", type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", success: function (data) { response($.map(data.d, function (item) { return { label: Trim(item), value: Trim(item), searchVal: Trim(item) } })) } }); }, select: function (e, item) { //Select is on the event of selection where the value and label have already been determined. }, minLength: 1, change: function (event, ui) { //if the active element was not the search button //... } }).keyup(function (e) { if (e.keyCode == 8 || e.keyCode == 46) { //If the user hits backspace or delete, check the value of the textbox before setting the searchValue //... } }).keydown(function (e) { //if keycode is enter key and there is a value, you need to validate the data through select or change(onblur) if (e.keyCode == '13' && ($(el).val())) { return false; } if (e.keyCode == '220') { return false } }); } Other Sources: http://www.trirand.com/jqgridwiki/doku.php?id=wiki:inline_editing http://api.jqueryui.com/autocomplete/ Update: I tried only creating the autocomplete when the element was focused, and removing it when onblur. That did not resolve the issue either. It seems to just need the autocomplete dropdown to be triggered.

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  • Posting comments to a wordpress-blog in Android

    - by Samuh
    I am working on a module that allows users to post comments on a blog published on Wordpress. I looked at the HTML source for Post-Comment-Form displayed at the bottom of a blog entry (Leave a Reply section). Using that as a reference, I translated it to Java using DefaultHTTPClient and BasicNameValuePairs and my code looks like: DefaultHttpClient httpclient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpPost httppost = new HttpPost("http://xycabz.wordpress.com/wp-comments-post.php"); httppost.setHeader("Content-type","application/x-www-form-urlencoded;charset=UTF-8"); List<NameValuePair> nvps = new ArrayList<NameValuePair>(); nvps.add(new BasicNameValuePair("author","abc")); nvps.add(new BasicNameValuePair("email","[email protected]")); nvps.add(new BasicNameValuePair("url","")); nvps.add(new BasicNameValuePair("comment","entiendamonos?")); nvps.add(new BasicNameValuePair("comment_post_ID","123")); //this was a hidden field and always set to 0 nvps.add(new BasicNameValuePair("comment_parent","0")); try { httppost.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(nvps)); } catch (UnsupportedEncodingException e1) { e1.printStackTrace(); } BasicResponseHandler handler = new BasicResponseHandler(); try { Log.e("OUTPUT",httpclient.execute(httppost,handler)); } catch (ClientProtocolException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } The above code works fine when I try it out on my blog. But when I try this on the actual blog, I get HTTP 302 Found (Redirect to temporary location) exceptions in the logs. The comments never make it to the blog page. Usually, when you post a comment(on the web page) you are taken back to the blog page that enlists all the comments. The URL I am getting in the redirects is the same. Questions: 1. Could this be a post-a-comment settings problem(perhaps something the original blog owner might have set)? 2. How should my HTTPClient handle 302 status code? Eventually, I just have to notify the user of success and failure and not actually take him to the comments page.

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