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  • Grails , how do I get an object NOT to save

    - by user350325
    Hello I am new to grails and trying to create a form which allows a user to change the email address associated with his/her account for a site I am creating. It asks for the user for their current password and also for the new email address they want to use. If the user enters the wrong password or an invalid email address then it should reject them with an appropriate error message. Now the email validation can be done through constraints in grails, but the password change has to match their current password. I have implemented this check as a method on a service class. See code below: def saveEmail = { def client = ClientUser.get(session.clientUserID) client.email = params.email if(clientUserService.checkPassword(session.clientUserID , params.password) ==false) { flash.message = "Incorrect Password" client.discard() redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else if(!client.validate()) { flash.message = "Invalid Email Address" redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else { client.save(); session.clientUserID = null; flash.message = "Your email address has been changed, please login again" redirect(controller: 'clientLogin' , action:'index') } } Now what I noticed that was odd was that if I entered an invalid email then it would not save the changes (as expected) BUT if I entered the wrong password and a valid email then it would save the changes and even write them back into the database even though it would give the correct "invalid password" error message. I was puzzled so set break points in all the if/else if/else blocks and found that it was hitting the first if statement as expected and not hitting the others , so it would never come accross a call to the save() method, yet it was saved anyway. After a little research I came accross documentation for the discard() method which you can see used in the code above. So I added this but still no avail. I even tried using discard then reloading the client object from the DB again but still no dice. This is very frustrating and I would be grateful for any help, since I think that this should surely not be a complicated requirement!

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  • [php] Cookies only changing value every two page refreshes?

    - by Gazillion
    Hello, I'm trying to implement some pixel tracking where I will save certain values in a cookie to then forward users to another page. If users purchase a product after being forwarded to the online store by us the store adds an image tag in the page with our php script included. With the values set in the cookie we would like to track conversions. I understand this tracking technique has some limitations (like if a user has cookies turned off or if they do not load images but that's the direction my client wanted to go in). The problem I'm having is that the cookie's behaviour is extremely... random. I've been trying to track their values (with a var_dump so I don't have to wait for a page reload to view the cookie's value) but it seems the value for one field only gets refreshed every two page reloads. setcookie("tracking[cn]", $cn, time()+3600*24*7,'/','mydomain.com'); setcookie("tracking[t]", $t, time()+3600*24*7,'/','mydomain.com'); setcookie("tracking[kid]", $kid, time()+3600*24*7,'/','mydomain.com'); redirectTo($redirect_url); the values of cn, t are fine but for some reason kid is always wrong (having taken the value of the previous kid) Any help would be extremely appreciated I've been at this all evening! :)

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  • How to pass a function in a function?

    - by SoulBeaver
    That's an odd title. I would greatly appreciate it if somebody could clarify what exactly I'm asking because I'm not so sure myself. I'm watching the Stanford videos on Programming Paradigms(that teacher is awesome) and I'm up to video five when he started doing this: void *lSearch( void* key, void* base, int elemSize, int n, int (*cmpFn)(void*, void*)) Naturally, I thought to myself, "Oi, I didn't know you could declare a function and define it later!". So I created my own C++ test version. int foo(int (*bar)(void*, void*)); int bar(void* a, void* b); int main(int argc, char** argv) { int *func = 0; foo(bar); cin.get(); return 0; } int foo(int (*bar)(void*, void*)) { int c(10), d(15); int *a = &c; int *b = &d; bar(a, b); return 0; } int bar(void* a, void* b) { cout << "Why hello there." << endl; return 0; } The question about the code is this: it fails if I declare function int *bar as a parameter of foo, but not int (*bar). Why!? Also, the video confuses me in the fact that his lSearch definition void* lSearch( /*params*/ , int (*cmpFn)(void*, void*)) is calling cmpFn in the definition, but when calling the lSearch function lSearch( /*params*/, intCmp ); also calls the defined function int intCmp(void* elem1, void* elem2); and I don't get how that works. Why, in lSearch, is the function called cmpFn, but defined as intCmp, which is of type int, not int* and still works? And why does the function in lSearch not have to have defined parameters?

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  • ASP.Net MVC 2 - How to set up a Cancel button with client side navigation

    - by arame3333
    Thanks to a previous question I found a useful link on multiple buttons. http://weblogs.asp.net/dfindley/archive/2009/05/31/asp-net-mvc-multiple-buttons-in-the-same-form.aspx What I want to do is have a cancel button on my page, similar to this; <button name="button" type="button" onclick="document.location.href=$('#cancelUrl').attr('href')">Cancel</button> <a id="cancelUrl" href="<%: Url.Action("Index", "Home") %>" style="display:none;"></a> However although this code works, I really want to go back to the previous page. For Web Forms I could use the javascript Back() or Go(-1) functions, but they relied on postbacks. I could of course hard code the previous page and controller as I have done above. However I am struggling to find links that explain to me how Url.Action works. Because if I do this, I also need to include an index parameter, and I am not clear how the syntax works for that. It seems odd the amount of coding to do this. Out of curiosity, I am also wondering how you TDD client side code like this.

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  • SQL Design: representing a default value with overrides?

    - by Mark Harrison
    I need a sparse table which contains a set of "override" values for another table. I also need to specify the default value for the items overridden. For example, if the default value is 17, then foo,bar,baz will have the values 17,21,17: table "things" table "xvalue" name stuff name xval ---- ----- ---- ---- foo ... bar 21 bar ... baz ... If I don't care about a FK from xvalue.name - things.name, I could simply put a "DEFAULT" name: table "xvalue" name xval ---- ---- DEFAULT 17 bar 21 But I like having a FK. I could have a separate default table, but it seems odd to have 2x the number of tables. table "xvalue_default" xval ---- 17 table "xvalue" name xval ---- ---- bar 21 I could have a "defaults table" tablename attributename defaultvalue xvalue xval 17 but then I run into type issues on defaultvalue. My operations guys prefer as compact a representation as possible, so they can most easily see the "diff" or deviations from the default. What's the best way to represent this, including the default value? This will be for Oracle 10.2 if that makes a difference.

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  • TextArea being used as an itemEditor misbehaves when the enter key is pressed

    - by ChrisInCambo
    Hi, I have a TextArea inside an itemEditor component, the problem is that when typing in the TextArea if the enter key is pressed the itemEditor resets itself rather moving the caret to the next line as expected: <mx:List width="100%" editable="true" > <mx:dataProvider> <mx:ArrayCollection> <mx:Array> <mx:Object title="Stairway to Heaven" /> </mx:Array> </mx:ArrayCollection> </mx:dataProvider> <mx:itemRenderer> <mx:Component> <mx:Text height="100" text="{data.title}"/> </mx:Component> </mx:itemRenderer> <mx:itemEditor> <mx:Component> <mx:TextArea height="100" text="{data.title}"/> </mx:Component> </mx:itemEditor> </mx:List> </mx:Application> Could anyone advise how I can get around this strange behaviour and make the enter key behave as expected? Thanks, Chris

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  • Why compiling in Flash IDE I cannot access stage in a Sprite constructor before addChild while if I

    - by yuri
    I've created this simple class (omissing package directive and imports) public class Viewer extends Sprite { public function Viewer():void { trace(stage); } } then in Flash IDE I import in first frame this AS: import Viewer var viewer = new Viewer(); stage.addChild(viewer); trace(viewer.stage); and this works as I expected: the first trace called in constructor say stage is "null" because I haven't yet add viewer to a DisplayObjectContainer. The second one output the stage object. So I created a project using AXDT eclipse plugin, I've recreated and compiled only the first class (trashed the AS init script used in Flash IDE because is not needed) and on the first trace ... wow ... the stage is filled with the stage Object. I seems to me that the compiler used by AXDT (Flex4 SDK open source) add the class... before construct it (!?).. to a DisplayObjectContainer already attached to a Stage. I want to understand how can reproduce this behaviour using compiler in Flash IDE so I can directrly access Stage in construction.

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  • Throwing a C++ exception after an inline-asm jump

    - by SoapBox
    I have some odd self modifying code, but at the root of it is a pretty simple problem: I want to be able to execute a jmp (or a call) and then from that arbitrary point throw an exception and have it caught by the try/catch block that contained the jmp/call. But when I do this (in gcc 4.4.1 x86_64) the exception results in a terminate() as it would if the exception was thrown from outside of a try/catch. I don't really see how this is different than throwing an exception from inside of some far-flung library, yet it obviously is because it just doesn't work. How can I execute a jmp or call but still throw an exception back to the original try/catch? Why doesn't this try/catch continue to handle these exceptions as it would if the function was called normally? The code: #include <iostream> #include <stdexcept> using namespace std; void thrower() { cout << "Inside thrower" << endl; throw runtime_error("some exception"); } int main() { cout << "Top of main" << endl; try { asm volatile ( "jmp *%0" // same thing happens with a call instead of a jmp : : "r"((long)thrower) : ); } catch (exception &e) { cout << "Caught : " << e.what() << endl; } cout << "Bottom of main" << endl << endl; } The expected output: Top of main Inside thrower Caught : some exception Bottom of main The actual output: Top of main Inside thrower terminate called after throwing an instance of 'std::runtime_error' what(): some exception Aborted

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  • ExecutorService memory leak on exception

    - by TofuBeer
    I am having a hard time tracking this down since the profiler keeps crashing (hotspot error). Before I go too deep into figuring it out I'd like to know if I really have a problem or not :-) I have a few thread pools created via: Executors.newFixedThreadPool(10); The threads connect to different web sites and, on occasion, I get connection refused and wind up throwing an exception. When I later on call Future.get() to get the result it will then catch the ExecutionException that wraps the exception that was thrown when the connection could not be made. The program uses a fairly constant amount of memory up until the point in time that the exceptions get thrown (they tend to happen in batches when a particular site is overloaded). After that point the memory again remains constant but at a higher level. So my question is along the lines of is the memory behaviour (reported by "top" on Unix) expected because the exceptions just triggered something or do I probably have an actual leak that I'll need to track down? Additionally when Future.get() throws an exception is there anything else I need to do besides catch the exception (such as call Future.cancel() on it)?

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  • What can I do about ambigous wildcard patterns in Struts?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    I have a problem finding the right wildcard pattern to extract parts of my URL into action parameters in Struts. This is how I set up the action. The intent of the pattern is to capture the last two path elements and then everything that might precede them. <action name="**/*/*" class="com.example.ObjectAction"> <param name="filter">{1}</param> <param name="type">{2}</param> <param name="id">{3}</param> </action> Calling it with the URL channels/123/transmissions/456 I get the following result (the action just sets the input parameters on a POJO and returns that as XML): <result> <filter>channels/123/transmissions</filter> <id/> <type>456</type> </result> It should be: <result> <filter>channels/123</filter> <id>456</id> <type>transmissions</type> </result> Now, because ** matches all characters including the slash, I guess my pattern allows more than one way to match the URL, and Struts happens to pick one that leaves the id empty. Is the behaviour for multiple possible matches defined somewhere? Can I make the pattern less ambigous? Are there alternative ways of doing this? I'm running Struts 2.0.8. Upgrading to 2.1.9 would give me regex matching, but I got into trouble with Struts' dependencies and my OSGi environment when I went past 2.0.8, so I'd like to stick to that version for now.

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  • Dynamic Control loading at wrong time?

    - by Telos
    This one is a little... odd. Basically I have a form I'm building using ASP.NET Dynamic Data, which is going to utilize several custom field templates. I've just added another field to the FormView, with it's own custom template, and the form is loading that control twice for no apparent reason. Worse yet, the first time it loads the template, the Row is not ready yet and I get the error message: {"Databinding methods such as Eval(), XPath(), and Bind() can only be used in the context of a databound control."} I'm accessing the Row variable in a LinqDataSource OnSelected event in order to get the child object... Now for the wierd part: If I reorder the fields a little, the one causing the problem no longer gets loaded twice. Any thoughts? EDIT: I've noticed that Page_Load gets called on the first load (when Row throws an exception if you try to use it) but does NOT get called the second time around. If that helps any... Right now managing it by just catching and ignoring the exception, but still a little worried that things will break if I don't find the real cause. EDIT 2: I've traced the problem to using FindControl recursively to find other controls on the page. Apparently FindControl can cause the page lifecycle events (at least up to page_load) to fire... and this occurs before that page "should" be loading so it's dynamic data "stuff" isn't ready yet.

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  • UIDatePicker date method is picking wrong date: iPhone Dev

    - by prd
    Hi, I am getting very strange behaviour on UIDatePicker. I have a view with date picker declared in .h file as IBOutlet UIDatePicker *datePicker; with property nonatomic and retain. datePicker is properly linked in IB file. In the code I am setting the minimum, maximum, initial date and action to call for UICOntrolEventValueChanged using following code If (!currentDate) { initialDate = [NSDate date]; } else { initialDate = currentdate; } [datePicker setMinimumDate:[NSDate date]]; [datePicker setMaximumDate:[[NSDate date] addTimeInterval:5 * 365.25 * 24 * 60 * 60]]; // to get upto 5 years [datePicker setDate:initialDate animated:YES]; [datePicker addTarget:self action:@selector(getDatePickerValue:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; In getDatePickerValue, I get the new date using datePicker.date. When the view is closed (using a done button), I get the current value of the date using datePicker.date. Now if the view is called with no 'currentDate', the picker returns 'todays date'. This is what happens the 'first' time my pickerView is called. Each subsequent call to the view, with no 'current date' gives me a different and later date from today. So, first time I get today's date say 9 Jun 2010 second time datePicker.date returns 10 Jun 2010 third time 11 Jun 2010 and so on. Though its not always incremental, but mostly it is. I have put NSLogs, and verified the initial date is set correctly. The problem is only on the device (on OS 3.0), the issue is not replicated on simulator. I can't find what I have done wrong. I hope somebody else has come across similar problem and can help me resolve this.

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  • multiple ajax requests with jquery

    - by Emil
    I got problems with the async nature of Javascript / JQuery. Lets say the following (no latency is counted for, in order to not make it so troublesome); I got three buttons (A, B, C) on a page, each of the buttons adds an item into a shopping cart with one ajax-request each. If I put an intentional delay of 5 seconds in the serverside script (PHP) and pushes the buttons with 1 second apart, I want the result to be the following: Request A, 5 seconds Request B, 6 seconds Request C, 7 seconds However, the result is like this Request A, 5 seconds Request B, 10 seconds Request C, 15 seconds This have to mean that the requests are queued and not run simultaneously, right? Isnt this opposite to what async is? I also tried to add a random get-parameter to the url in order to force some uniqueness to the request, no luck though. I did read a little about this. If you avoid using the same "request object (?)" this problem wont occure. Is it possible to force this behaviour in JQuery? This is the code that I am using $.ajax( { url : strAjaxUrl + '?random=' + Math.floor(Math.random()*9999999999), data : 'ajax=add-to-cart&product=' + product, type : 'GET', success : function(responseData) { // update ui }, error : function(responseData) { // show error } }); I also tried both GET and POST, no difference. I want the requests to be sent right when the button is clicked, not when the previous request is finnished. I want the requests to be run simultaneously, not in a queue.

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  • Associating an object with another object for GC clearup

    - by thecoop
    Is there any way of associating an object instance (object A) with a second object (object B) in a generalised way, so that when B gets collected A becomes eligable for collection? The same behaviour that would happen if B had an instance variable pointing to A, but without explicitly changing the class definition of B, and being able to do this in a dynamic way? The same sort of effect could be done by using the Component.Disposed event in a funky way, but I don't want to make B disposable EDIT I'm basically creating a cache of objects that are associated with a single 'root' object, and I don't want the cache to be static, as there can be lots of root objects using different caches, so lots of memory will be used up when a root object is no longer used but the cached objects are still around. So, I want a collection of cached objects to be associated with each 'root' object, without changing the root object definition. Sort of like metadata of an extra object reference attached to each root object instance. That way, each collection will get collected when the root object is collected, and not hang around like they would if a static cache was used.

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  • How do I ensure only the headers are shown for the first item in an ItemsControl in WPF?

    - by Dan Ryan
    I am using MVVM binding an ObservableCollection of children to an ItemsControl. The ItemsControl contains a UserControl used to style the UI for the children. <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Documents}"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <View:DocumentView Margin="0, 10, 0, 0" /> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> I want to show a header row for the contents of the ItemsControl but only want to show this once at the top (not for every child). How can I implement this behaviour in the DocumentView user control? Fyi I am using a Grid layout to style the child rows: <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="34"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="100"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="60" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition /> <RowDefinition /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.ColumnSpan="4" Grid.Row="0" Text="Should only show this at the top"></TextBlock> <Image Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="1" Height="24" Width="24" Source="/Beazley.Documents.Presentation;component/Icons/error.png"></Image> <ComboBox Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="1" Name="ContentTypes" ItemsSource="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type View:MainView}}, Path=DataContext.ContentTypes}" SelectedValue="{Binding ContentType}"/> <TextBox Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="1" Text="{Binding Path=FileName}"/> <Button Grid.Column="3" Grid.Row="1" Command="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type View:MainView}}, Path=DataContext.RemoveFile}" CommandParameter="{Binding}">Remove</Button> </Grid>

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  • Interrupting Prototype handler, alert() vs event.stop()

    - by lxs
    Here's the test page I'm using. This version works fine, forwarding to #success: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html><head> <script type="text/javascript" src="prototype.js"></script> </head><body> <form id='form' method='POST' action='#fail'> <button id='button'>Oh my giddy aunt!</button> <script type="text/javascript"> var fn = function() { $('form').action = "#success"; $('form').submit(); } $('button').observe('mousedown', fn); </script> </form> </body></html> If I empty the handler: var fn = function() { } The form is submitted, but of course we are sent to #fail this time. With an alert in the handler: var fn = function() { alert("omg!"); } The form is not submitted. This is awfully curious. With event.stop(), which is supposed to prevent the browser taking the default action: var fn = function(event) { event.stop(); } We are sent to #fail. So alert() is more effective at preventing a submission than event.stop(). What gives? I'm using Firefox 3.6.3 and Prototype 1.6.0.3. This behaviour also appears in Prototype 1.6.1.

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  • How to select this with JSON...

    - by Oscar Godson
    I actually have two questions, both are probably simple, but for some odd reason I cant figure it out... I've worked with JSON 100s of times before too! but here is the JSON in question: {"69256":{"streaminfo":{"stream_ID":"1025","sourceowner_ID":"2","sourceowner_avatar":"http:\/\/content.nozzlmedia.com\/images\/sourceowner_avatar2.jpg","sourceownertype_ID":"1","stream_name":"Twitter","streamtype":"Social media","appsarray":[]},"item":{"headline":"Charboy","main_image":"http:\/\/content.nozzlmedia.com\/images\/author_avatar173212.jpg","summary":"ate a tomato and avocado for dinner...","nozzl_captured":"2010-05-12 23:02:12","geoarray":[{"state":"OR","county":"Multnomah","city":"Portland","neighborhood":"Downtown","zip":"97205","street":"462 SW 11th Ave","latitude":"45.5219","longitude":"-122.682"}],"full_content":"ate a tomato and avocado for dinner tonight. such tasty foods. just enjoyable.","body_text":"ate a tomato and avocado for dinner tonight. such tasty foods. just enjoyable.","author_name":"Charboy","author_avatar":"http:\/\/content.nozzlmedia.com\/images\/author_avatar173212.jpg","fulltext_url":"http:\/\/twitter.com\/charboy\/statuses\/13889868936","leftovers":{"twitter_id":"tag:search.twitter.com,2005:13889868936","date":"2010-05-13T02:59:59Z","location":"iPhone: 45.521866,-122.682262"},"wordarray":{"0":"ate","1":"tomato","2":"avocado","3":"dinner","4":"tonight","5":"tasty","6":"foods","7":"just","8":"enjoyable","9":"Charboy","11":"Twitter","13":"state:OR","14":"county:Multnomah, OR","15":"city:Portland, OR","16":"neighborhood:Downtown","17":"zip:97205"}}}} Question 1: How do I loop through each item (69256) when the number is random? e.g. item 1 is 123, item2 is 646? Like, for example, a normal JSON feed would have something like: {'item':{'blah':'lorem'},'item':{'blah':'ipsum'}} the JS would be like console.log(item.blah) to return lorem then ipsum in a loop How do I do it when i dont know the first item of the object? Question 2: How do I select items from the geoarray object? I tried: json.test.item.geoarray.latitude and json.test.item.geoarray['latitude']

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  • How to select the first property with unknown name from JSON and how to select first item from array

    - by Oscar Godson
    I actually have two questions, both are probably simple, but for some odd reason I cant figure it out... I've worked with JSON 100s of times before too! but here is the JSON in question: {"69256":{"streaminfo":{"stream_ID":"1025","sourceowner_ID":"2","sourceowner_avatar":"http:\/\/content.nozzlmedia.com\/images\/sourceowner_avatar2.jpg","sourceownertype_ID":"1","stream_name":"Twitter","streamtype":"Social media","appsarray":[]},"item":{"headline":"Charboy","main_image":"http:\/\/content.nozzlmedia.com\/images\/author_avatar173212.jpg","summary":"ate a tomato and avocado for dinner...","nozzl_captured":"2010-05-12 23:02:12","geoarray":[{"state":"OR","county":"Multnomah","city":"Portland","neighborhood":"Downtown","zip":"97205","street":"462 SW 11th Ave","latitude":"45.5219","longitude":"-122.682"}],"full_content":"ate a tomato and avocado for dinner tonight. such tasty foods. just enjoyable.","body_text":"ate a tomato and avocado for dinner tonight. such tasty foods. just enjoyable.","author_name":"Charboy","author_avatar":"http:\/\/content.nozzlmedia.com\/images\/author_avatar173212.jpg","fulltext_url":"http:\/\/twitter.com\/charboy\/statuses\/13889868936","leftovers":{"twitter_id":"tag:search.twitter.com,2005:13889868936","date":"2010-05-13T02:59:59Z","location":"iPhone: 45.521866,-122.682262"},"wordarray":{"0":"ate","1":"tomato","2":"avocado","3":"dinner","4":"tonight","5":"tasty","6":"foods","7":"just","8":"enjoyable","9":"Charboy","11":"Twitter","13":"state:OR","14":"county:Multnomah, OR","15":"city:Portland, OR","16":"neighborhood:Downtown","17":"zip:97205"}}}} Question 1: How do I loop through each item (69256) when the number is random? e.g. item 1 is 123, item2 is 646? Like, for example, a normal JSON feed would have something like: {'item':{'blah':'lorem'},'item':{'blah':'ipsum'}} the JS would be like console.log(item.blah) to return lorem then ipsum in a loop How do I do it when i dont know the first item of the object? Question 2: How do I select items from the geoarray object? I tried: json.test.item.geoarray.latitude and json.test.item.geoarray['latitude']

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  • Why does Microsoft advise against readonly fields with mutable values?

    - by Weeble
    In the Design Guidelines for Developing Class Libraries, Microsoft say: Do not assign instances of mutable types to read-only fields. The objects created using a mutable type can be modified after they are created. For example, arrays and most collections are mutable types while Int32, Uri, and String are immutable types. For fields that hold a mutable reference type, the read-only modifier prevents the field value from being overwritten but does not protect the mutable type from modification. This simply restates the behaviour of readonly without explaining why it's bad to use readonly. The implication appears to be that many people do not understand what "readonly" does and will wrongly expect readonly fields to be deeply immutable. In effect it advises using "readonly" as code documentation indicating deep immutability - despite the fact that the compiler has no way to enforce this - and disallows its use for its normal function: to ensure that the value of the field doesn't change after the object has been constructed. I feel uneasy with this recommendation to use "readonly" to indicate something other than its normal meaning understood by the compiler. I feel that it encourages people to misunderstand the meaning of "readonly", and furthermore to expect it to mean something that the author of the code might not intend. I feel that it precludes using it in places it could be useful - e.g. to show that some relationship between two mutable objects remains unchanged for the lifetime of one of those objects. The notion of assuming that readers do not understand the meaning of "readonly" also appears to be in contradiction to other advice from Microsoft, such as FxCop's "Do not initialize unnecessarily" rule, which assumes readers of your code to be experts in the language and should know that (for example) bool fields are automatically initialised to false, and stops you from providing the redundancy that shows "yes, this has been consciously set to false; I didn't just forget to initialize it". So, first and foremost, why do Microsoft advise against use of readonly for references to mutable types? I'd also be interested to know: Do you follow this Design Guideline in all your code? What do you expect when you see "readonly" in a piece of code you didn't write?

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  • Question regarding ip checksum code

    - by looktt
    unsigned short /* this function generates header checksums */ csum (unsigned short *buf, int nwords) { unsigned long sum; for (sum = 0; nwords > 0; nwords--) // add words(16bits) together sum += *buf++; sum = (sum >> 16) + (sum & 0xffff); //add carry over sum += (sum >> 16); //what does this step do??? add possible left-over //byte? But isn't it already added in the loop (if //any)? return ((unsigned short) ~sum); } I assume nwords in the number of 16bits word, not 8bits byte (if there are odd byte, nword is rounded to next large), is it correct? The line sum = (sum 16) + (sum & 0xffff) is to add carry over to make 16bit complement sum += (sum 16); What's the purpose of this step? Add left-over byte? How? Thanks!

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  • Should i enforce realloc check if the new block size is smaller than the initial ?

    - by nomemory
    Can realloc fail in this case ? int *a = NULL; a = calloc(100, sizeof(*a)); printf("1.ptr: %d \n", a); a = realloc(a, 50 * sizeof(*a)); printf("2.ptr: %d \n", a); if(a == NULL){ printf("Is it possible?"); } return (0); } The output in my case is: 1.ptr: 4072560 2.ptr: 4072560 So 'a' points to the same adress. So should i enforce realloc check ? Later edit: Using MinGW compiler under Windows XP. Is the behaviour similar with gcc on Linux ? Later edit 2: Is it OK to check this way ? int *a = NULL, *b = NULL; a = calloc(100, sizeof(*a)); b = realloc(a, 50 * sizeof(*a)); if(b == NULL){ return a; } a = b; return a;

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  • How can you make the copyright text in a Google Map wrap when the map is small?

    - by Paul D. Waite
    When you embed a Google Map on a web page, copyright text is included on the map. This is the HTML: <div style="border-top: 10px solid rgb(204, 0, 0); -moz-user-select: none; z-index: 0; position: absolute; right: 3px; bottom: 2px; color: black; font-family: Arial,sans-serif; font-size: 11px; white-space: normal; text-align: right; margin-left: 70px; width: 210px;" dir="ltr"> <span></span> <span>Map data &copy;2010 LeadDog Consulting, Europa Technologies - </span> <a href="http://www.google.com/intl/en_ALL/help/terms_maps.html" target="_blank" class="gmnoprint terms-of-use-link" style="color: rgb(119, 119, 204);">Terms of Use</a> <span></span> </div> If you embed a map with a small width, the copyright text extends outside of the <div>, instead of wrapping within it. I’ve tried using jQuery to select this HTML based on its contents (using :contains()), but it doesn’t seem to work in IE 8 (which is odd, as it works fine in IE 7). Any idea what’s up with IE 8? Any other methods to achieve the same result?

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  • SQL - Multiple join conditions using OR?

    - by Brandi
    I have a query that is using multiple joins. The goal is to say "Out of table A, give me all the customer numbers in which you can match table A's EmailAddress with either email_to or email_from of table B. Ignore nulls, internal emails, etc.". It seems like it would be better to use an or condition in the join than multiple joins since it is the same table. When I try to use AND/OR it does not give the behaviour I expect... AND finishes in a reasonable time, but yields no results (I know that there are matches, so it must be some flaw in my logic) and OR never finishes (I have to kill it). Here is example code to illustrate the question: --my original query SELECT DISTINCT a.CustomerNo FROM A a WITH (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN B e WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = e.email_from RIGHT JOIN B f WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = f.email_to WHERE a.EmailAddress NOT LIKE '%@mydomain.___' AND a.EmailAddress IS NOT NULL AND (e.email_from IS NOT NULL OR f.email_to IS NOT NULL) Here is what I tried, (I am attempting logical equivalence): SELECT DISTINCT a.CustomerNo FROM A a WITH (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN B e WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = e.email_from OR a.EmailAddress = e.email_to WHERE a.EmailAddress NOT LIKE '%@mydomain.___' AND a.EmailAddress IS NOT NULL AND (e.email_from IS NOT NULL OR e.email_to IS NOT NULL) So my question is two-fold: Why does having AND in the above query work in a few seconds and OR goes for minutes and never completes? What am I missing to make a logically equivalent statement that has only one join?

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  • CSS background images not showing in IE?

    - by Kevin
    In IE8 and below, I'm doing this <ul class="dependants_list" style="border-bottom: dashed 1px #53a1dc"> <li class="dependants_summary"> <strong>Name:</strong> De Silva, Angelina<br /> <strong>Gender:</strong> Female<br /> <strong>Date of birth:</strong> 7/3/2009<br /> </li> <form action="/Dependant/Delete/11413" method="get"><input class="delete btn" id="Delete_this_Profile" name="Delete_this_Profile" type="submit" value="Delete this Profile" /> </form><form action="/Dependant/Edit/11413" method="get"><input class="edit btn" id="Modify_this_Profile" name="Modify_this_Profile" type="submit" value="Modify this Profile" /> </form><br /><hr style="display:none" /> and the CSS for it is: .dependants_summary { overflow: hidden; margin-bottom: 10px; padding-right: 0px; padding-left: 85px; padding-top: 5px; padding-bottom: 5px; width: 430px; float: left; font: 120% Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; } .dependants_list { padding: 0; } .dependants_list li:nth-child(odd) { background: #fff url("../images/dependant_male.png") no-repeat scroll 8px 9px; } .dependants_list li:nth-child(even) { background: #c9e3f4 url("../images/dependant_male.png") no-repeat scroll 8px 9px; } The images are not being shown in IE, but they are in ffox and chrome

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  • Long-held TCP sessions in an ASMX client

    - by John
    Hi, I have an ASP.NET application which talks to a third-party SOAP web service. My application uses an ASMX client proxy (i.e. System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol). The third-party service uses WCF, although I don't expect that makes much difference. I should note that we're using .NET 3.5 SP1. We haven't customised the proxy or done anything unusual - we're just making standard web service requests and getting back the results. We have encapsulated the proxy reference within a using block so it will get disposed after the response is received. We've been told that our application is behaving strangely in its use of TCP sessions. Instead of opening a new TCP session for each request from a new proxy instance (which is what I would have expected it to do), it's apparently keeping several connections alive and re-using them. This is causing some issues at the third party end, as they are expecting us to be using multiple sessions. Is this a known behaviour for the SoapHttpClientProtocol client proxy? If so, is there any way we can override it so that each request results in a new TCP session? Thanks, John

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