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  • Unable to delete inherited entity class in EF4

    - by Coding Gorilla
    I have two entities in an EF4 model (using Model First), let's call them EntityA and EntityB. EntityA is marked as abstract, and EntityB inherits from EntityA. They are similar to the following: public class EntityA { public Guid Id; public string Name; public string Uri; } public class EntityB : EntityA { public string AnotherProperty; } The generated database tables look as I would expect them, with EntityA as on table, and then another table like: EntityA_EntityB Id (PK, FK, uniqueidentifier) AnotherProperty (varchar) There is a foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB that references EntityA's Id property, no cascades are configured (although I did try changing these myself). The problem is that when I attempt to do something like: Context.DeleteObject(EntityA_EntityB); EF attempts to delete the EntityA_EntityB table record before deleting the EntityA table record, which of course violates the foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB table. Using EFProfiler I see the following commands being sent to the database: delete [dbo].[EntityA_EntityB] where (([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) followed by delete [dbo].[EntityA] where ([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) I'm completely stumped as to how to get around this problem. I would think the EF should know that it needs to delete the base class first, before deleting the inherited class. I know I could do some triggers or other database type solutions, but I'd rather avoid doing that if I can. All my classes are POCO built using some customized T4 templates. I don't want to paste in a lot of extraneous code, but if you need more information I'll provide what I can.

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  • Can JQuery.Validate plugin prevent submission of an Ajax form

    - by berko
    I am using the JQuery form plugin (http://malsup.com/jquery/form/) to handle the ajax submission of a form. I also have JQuery.Validate (http://docs.jquery.com/Plugins/Validation) plugged in for my client side validation. What I am seeing is that the validation fails when I expect it to however it does not stop the form from submitting. When I was using a traditional form (i.e. non-ajax) the validation failing prevented the form for submitting at all.... which is my desired behaviour. I know that the validation is hooked up correctly as the validation messages still appear after the ajax submit has happened. So what I am I missing that is preventing my desired behaviour? Sample code below.... <form id="searchForm" method="post" action="/User/GetDetails"> <input id="username" name="username" type="text" value="user.name" /> <input id="submit" name="submit" type="submit" value="Search" /> </form> <div id="detailsView"> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> var options = { target: '#detailsView' }; $('#searchForm').ajaxForm(options); $('#searchForm').validate({ rules: { username: {required:true}}, messages: { username: {required:"Username is a required field."}} }); </script>

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  • Regular Expression doesn't match

    - by dododedodonl
    Hi All, I've got a regular expression in my cocoa-touch app (using RegexKitLite). NSString *week = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"%@", [pageContent stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfRegex:@"<select name=\"week\" class=\"selectbox\" style='width:134' onChange=\"doDisplayTimetable(NavBar, topDir);\">(.+?)<option value=\"(.+?)\">(.+?)</option>" withString:@"$2"]]; I expect it to match with the section of this (what is in NSString pageContent): <span class="selection"> <nobr> Periode<br> <span class="absatz"> &nbsp;<br> </span> <select name="week" class="selectbox" style='width:134' onChange="doDisplayTimetable(NavBar, topDir);"> <option value="14">17-5 - 16-7</option> </select> </nobr> </span> But it doesn't... I need the value of the option, it is possible that there is more than one (in that case I need them both separated by a ,. Can someone help me out? Regards, Dodo

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  • How do I execute queries upon DB connection in Rails?

    - by sycobuny
    I have certain initializing functions that I use to set up audit logging on the DB server side (ie, not rails) in PostgreSQL. At least one has to be issued (setting the current user) before inserting data into or updating any of the audited tables, or else the whole query will fail spectacularly. I can easily call these every time before running any save operation in the code, but DRY makes me think I should have the code repeated in as few places as possible, particularly since this diverges greatly from the ideal of database agnosticism. Currently I'm attempting to override ActiveRecord::Base.establish_connection in an initializer to set it up so that the queries are run as soon as I connect automatically, but it doesn't behave as I expect it to. Here is the code in the initializer: class ActiveRecord::Base # extend the class methods, not the instance methods class << self alias :old_establish_connection :establish_connection # hide the default def establish_connection(*args) ret = old_establish_connection(*args) # call the default # set up necessary session variables for audit logging # call these after calling default, to make sure conn is established 1st db = self.class.connection db.execute("SELECT SV.set('current_user', 'test@localhost')") db.execute("SELECT SV.set('audit_notes', NULL)") # end "empty variable" err ret # return the default's original value end end end puts "Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base" sycobuny:~/rails$ ruby script/server = Booting WEBrick = Rails 2.3.5 application starting on http://0.0.0.0:3000 Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base This doesn't give me any errors, and unfortunately I can't check what the method looks like internally (I was using ActiveRecord::Base.method(:establish_connection), but apparently that creates a new Method object each time it's called, which is seemingly worthless cause I can't check object_id for any worthwhile information and I also can't reverse the compilation). However, the code never seems to get called, because any attempt to run a save or an update on a database object fails as I predicted earlier. If this isn't a proper way to execute code immediately on connection to the database, then what is?

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  • Magic Method __set() on a Instantiated Object

    - by streetparade
    Ok i have a problem, sorry if i cant explaint it clear but the code speaks for its self. i have a class which generates objects from a given class name; Say we say the class is Modules: public function name($name) { $this->includeModule($name); try { $module = new ReflectionClass($name); $instance = $module->isInstantiable() ? $module->newInstance() : "Err"; $this->addDelegate($instance); } catch(Exception $e) { Modules::Name("Logger")->log($e->getMessage()); } return $this; } The AddDelegate Method: protected function addDelegate($delegate) { $this->aDelegates[] = $delegate; } The __call Method public function __call($methodName, $parameters) { $delegated = false; foreach ($this->aDelegates as $delegate) { if(class_exists(get_class($delegate))) { if(method_exists($delegate,$methodName)) { $method = new ReflectionMethod(get_class($delegate), $methodName); $function = array($delegate, $methodName); return call_user_func_array($function, $parameters); } } } The __get Method public function __get($property) { foreach($this->aDelegates as $delegate) { if ($delegate->$property !== false) { return $delegate->$property; } } } All this works fine expect the function __set public function __set($property,$value) { //print_r($this->aDelegates); foreach($this->aDelegates as $k=>$delegate) { //print_r($k); //print_r($delegate); if (property_exists($delegate, $property)) { $delegate->$property = $value; } } //$this->addDelegate($delegate); print_r($this->aDelegates); } class tester { public function __set($name,$value) { self::$module->name(self::$name)->__set($name,$value); } } Module::test("logger")->log("test"); // this logs, it works echo Module::test("logger")->path; //prints /home/bla/test/ this is also correct But i cant set any value to class log like this Module::tester("logger")->path ="/home/bla/test/log/"; The path property of class logger is public so its not a problem of protected or private property access. How can i solve this issue? I hope i could explain my problem clear.

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  • Is using advanced constructs (function, new, function calls) in JSON safe?

    - by Vilx-
    JSON is a nice way to pass complex data from my server side code to client side JavaScript. For example, in PHP I can write: <script type="text/javascript> var MyComplexVariable = <?= BigFancyObjectGraph.GetJSON() ?>; DoMagic(MyComplexVariable); </script> This is pretty cool, but sometimes you want to pass more than basic date, like dates or even function definitions. There is a simple and straightforward way of doing it too, like: <script type="text/javascript> var MyComplexVariable = { 'SimpleProperty' : 42, 'FunctionProperty' : function() { return 6*7; }, 'DateProperty' : new Date(989539200000), 'ArbitraryProperty' : GetTheMeaningOfLifeUniverseAndEverything() }; DoMagic(MyComplexVariable); </script> And this works like a charm on all browsers I've seen so far. But according to JSON.org such syntax is invalid. On the other hand, I've seen this syntax being used in very many places, including some popular JavaScript frameworks. So... Can I expect any problems if I use "unsupported" JSON features like the above? Why is it wrong or not?

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  • TableLayout formatting loss after device rotation

    - by roundhill
    I'm seeing a strange issue with a TableLayout after the device is rotated from either orientation. If you load the view in either portrait or landscape mode, the table loads fine. But once you rotate the device, the columns collapse to just fit their width. I would expect that after rotation, the columns would still stretch to fit the width of the screen. Any ideas on what can be done to resolve this? Screenies and layout code below. Before Rotation: After Rotation: Table Layout: <TableLayout android:id="@+id/dataTable" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_weight="1" android:layout_below="@id/chart" android:stretchColumns="*" android:shrinkColumns="*" android:padding="6dip" > </TableLayout> Table Row: <TableRow xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <TextView android:id="@+id/col1" android:layout_marginRight="2dip" android:textColorLink="#FF21759b" android:text="Column 1" android:padding="4dip" android:textColor="#FF464646"/> <TextView android:id="@+id/col2" android:text="Column 2" android:textColor="#FF464646" android:padding="4dip"/> </TableRow> Thanks!

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  • Improve a regex statement in order to be as efficient as it can be

    - by user551625
    I have a PHP program that, at some point, needs to analyze a big amount of HTML+javascript text to parse info. All I want to parse needs to be in two parts. Seperate all "HTML goups" to parse Parse each HTML group to get the needed information. In the 1st parse it needs to find: <div id="myHome" And start capturing after that tag. Then stop capturing before <span id="nReaders" And capture the number that comes after this tag and stop. In the 2nd parse use the capture nº 1 (0 has the whole thing and 2 has the number) from the parse made before and then find . I already have code to do that and it works. Is there a way to improve this, make it easier for the machine to parse? preg_match_all('%<div id="myHome"[^>]>(.*?)<span id="nReaders[^>]>([0-9]+)<"%msi', $data, $results, PREG_SET_ORDER); foreach($results AS $result){ preg_match_all('%<div class="myplacement".*?[.]php[?]((?:next|before))=([0-9]+).*?<tbody.*?<td[^>]>.*?[0-9]+"%msi', $result[1], $mydata, PREG_SET_ORDER); //takes care of the data and finish the program Note: I need this for a freeware program so it must be as general as possible and, if possible, not use php extensions ADD: I ommitted some parts here because I didn't expect for answers like those. There is also a need to parse text inside one of the tags that is in the document. It may be the 6th 7th or 8th tag but I know it is after a certain tag. The parser I've checked (thx profitphp) does work to find the script tag. What now? There are more than 1 tag with the same class. I want them all. But I want only with also one of a list of classes..... Where can I find instructions and demos and limitations of DOM parsers (like the one in http://simplehtmldom.sourceforge.net/)? I need something that will work on, at least, a big amount of free servers.

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  • Nice way to break a reply up into pieces in ruby

    - by ChaosR
    Hello, I'm writing an IRCd. For this topic it doesn't really matter if you know much about IRC. Its a simple code style problem. Quick overview of the problem: No message may be longer than 512 characters If the message is more, it must be broken into pieces The NAMES reply sends all the nicknames of users on a channel, and quickly grows beyond 512 characters. I currently concocted this marvelous piece of code, it works perfectly. However, its just not "ruby-like". This piece of code is more what you expect in some piece of C code. # 11 is the number of all fixed characters combined in the reply pre_length = 11 + servername.length + mynick.length + channel.name.length list = [""] i = 0 channel.nicks.each do |nick, client| list[i+=1] = "" if list[i].length + nick.length + pre_length > 500 list[i] << "#{channel.mode_char(client)}#{client.nick} " end list.each { |l| send_numeric(RPL_NAMREPLY, channel.name, l.strip) } send_numeric(RPL_ENDOFNAMES, channel.name) So my question is, any ideas to do this more nicely? PS. code has been slightly modified to make it easier to understand out-of-context

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  • Determining the chances of an event occurring when it hasn't occurred yet

    - by sanity
    A user visits my website at time t, and they may or may not click on a particular link I care about, if they do I record the fact that they clicked the link, and also the duration since t that they clicked it, call this d. I need an algorithm that allows me to create a class like this: class ClickProbabilityEstimate { public void reportImpression(long id); public void reportClick(long id); public double estimateClickProbability(long id); } Every impression gets a unique id, and this is used when reporting a click to indicate which impression the click belongs to. I need an algorithm that will return a probability, based on how much time has past since an impression was reported, that the impression will receive a click, based on how long previous clicks required. Clearly one would expect that this probability will decrease over time if there is still no click. If necessary, we can set an upper-bound, beyond which we consider the click probability to be 0 (eg. if its been an hour since the impression occurred, we can be pretty sure there won't be a click). The algorithm should be both space and time efficient, and hopefully make as few assumptions as possible, while being elegant. Ease of implementation would also be nice. Any ideas?

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  • Why do you need "extern C" for C++ callbacks to C functions?

    - by Artyom
    Hello, I find such examples in Boost code. namespace boost { namespace { extern "C" void *thread_proxy(void *f) { .... } } // anonymous void thread::thread_start(...) { ... pthread_create(something,0,&thread_proxy,something_else); ... } } // boost Why do you actually need this extern "C"? It is clear that thread_proxy function is private internal and I do not expect that it would be mangled as "thread_proxy" because I actually do not need it mangled at all. In fact in all my code that I had written and that runs on may platforms I never used extern "C" and this had worked as-as with normal functions. Why extern "C" is added? My problem is that extern "C" function pollute global name-space and they do not actually hidden as author expects. This is not duplicate! I'm not talking about mangling and external linkage. It is obvious in this code that external linkage is unwanted! Answer: Calling convention of C and C++ functions are not necessary the same, so you need to create one with C calling convention. See 7.5 (p4) of C++ standard.

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  • Choropleth mapping issue in R

    - by chasec
    I am trying to follow the tutorial described here: http://www.thisisthegreenroom.com/2009/choropleths-in-r/ The below code executes, but it is either not matching my dataset with the maps_counties data properly, or it isn't plotting it in the order I would expect. For example, the resulting areas for the greater NYC area show no density while random counties in PA show the highest density. The general format of my data table is: county state count fairfield connecticut 17 hartford connecticut 6 litchfield connecticut 3 new haven connecticut 12 ... ... westchester new york 70 yates new york 1 luzerne pennsylvania 1 Note this data is in order by state and then county and includes data for CT, NJ, NY, & PA. First, I read in my data set: library(maps) library(RColorBrewer) d <- read.table("gissum.txt", sep="\t", header=TRUE) #Concatenate state and county info to match maps library d$stcon <- paste(d$state, d$county, sep=",") #Color bins colors = brewer.pal(5, "PuBu") d$colorBuckets <- as.factor(as.numeric(cut(d$count,c(0,10,20,30,40,50,300)))) Here is my matching mapnames <- map("county",plot=FALSE)[4]$names colorsmatched <- d$colorBuckets [na.omit(match(mapnames ,d$stcon))] Plotting: map("county" ,c("new york","new jersey", "connecticut", "pennsylvania") ,col = colors[d$colorBuckets[na.omit(match(mapnames ,d$stcon))]] ,fill = TRUE ,resolution = 0 ,lty = 0 ,lwd= 0.5 ) map("state" ,c("new york","new jersey", "connecticut", "pennsylvania") ,col = "black" ,fill=FALSE ,add=TRUE ,lty=1 ,lwd=2 ) map("county" ,c("new york","new jersey", "connecticut", "pennsylvania") ,col = "black" ,fill=FALSE ,add=TRUE , lty=1 , lwd=.5 ) title(main="Respondent Home ZIP Codes by County") I am sure I am missing something basic re: the order in which the maps function plots items - but I can't seem to figure it out. Thanks for the help. Please let me know if you need any more information.

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  • Creating serializeable unique compile-time identifiers for arbitrary UDT's.

    - by Endiannes
    I would like a generic way to create unique compile-time identifiers for any C++ user defined types. for example: unique_id<my_type>::value == 0 // true unique_id<other_type>::value == 1 // true I've managed to implement something like this using preprocessor meta programming, the problem is, serialization is not consistent. For instance if the class template unique_id is instantiated with other_type first, then any serialization in previous revisions of my program will be invalidated. I've searched for solutions to this problem, and found several ways to implement this with non-consistent serialization if the unique values are compile-time constants. If RTTI or similar methods, like boost::sp_typeinfo are used, then the unique values are obviously not compile-time constants and extra overhead is present. An ad-hoc solution to this problem would be, instantiating all of the unique_id's in a separate header in the correct order, but this causes additional maintenance and boilerplate code, which is not different than using an enum unique_id{my_type, other_type};. A good solution to this problem would be using user-defined literals, unfortunately, as far as I know, no compiler supports them at this moment. The syntax would be 'my_type'_id; 'other_type'_id; with udl's. I'm hoping somebody knows a trick that allows implementing serialize-able unique identifiers in C++ with the current standard (C++03/C++0x), I would be happy if it works with the latest stable MSVC and GNU-G++ compilers, although I expect if there is a solution, it's not portable.

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  • Entity Framework 4 Entity with EntityState of Unchanged firing update

    - by Andy
    I am using EF 4, mapping all CUD operations for my entities using sprocs. I have two tables, ADDRESS and PERSON. A PERSON can have multiple ADDRESS associated with them. Here is the code I am running: Person person = (from p in context.People where p.PersonUID == 1 select p).FirstOrDefault(); Address address = (from a in context.Addresses where a.AddressUID == 51 select a).FirstOrDefault(); address.AddressLn2 = "Test"; context.SaveChanges(); The Address being updated is associated with the Person I am retrieveing - although they are not explicitly linked in any way in the code. When the context.SaveChanges() executes not only does the Update sproc for my Address entity get fired (like you would expect), but so does the Update sproc for the Person entity - even though you can see there was no change made to the Person entity. When I check the EntityState of both objects before the context.SaveChanges() call I see that my Address entity has an EntityState of "Modified" and my Person enity has an EntityState of "Unchanged". Why is the Update sproc being called for the Person entity? Is there a setting of some sort that I can set to prevent this from happening?

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  • When do Symfony's user attributes get written to session?

    - by Rob Wilkerson
    I have a Symfony app that populates the "widgets" of a portal application and I'm noticing something (that seems) odd. The portal app has iframes that make calls to the Symfony app. On each of those calls, a random user key is passed on the query string. The Symfony app stores that key its session using myUser->setAttribute(). If the incoming value is different from what it has in session, it overwrites the session value. In pseudo-code (and applying a synchronous nature for clarity even though it may not exist): # Widget request arrives with ?foo=bar if the user attribute 'foo' does not equal 'bar' overwrite the user attribute 'foo' with 'bar' end What I'm noticing is that, on a portal page with multiple widgets (read: multiple requests coming in more or less simultaneously) where the value needs to be overwritten, each request is trying to overwrite. Is this a timing problem? When I look at the log prints, I'd expect the first request that arrives to overwrite and subsequent requests to see that the user attribute they received matches what was just put into cache by the initial request. In this scenario, it could be that subsequent requests begin (and are checked) even before the first one--the one that should overwrite the cached value--has completely finished. Are session values not really available to subsequent requests until one request has completed entirely or could there be something else that I'm missing? Thanks.

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  • mysql query not running correctly from inside the application

    - by Mala
    I am completely stumped. Here is my php (CodeIgniter) code: function mod() { $uid = $this->session->userdata('uid'); $pid = $this->input->post('pid'); if ($this->_verify($uid,$pid)) { $name = $this->input->post('name'); $price = $this->input->post('price'); $curr = $this->input->post('curr'); $url = $this->input->post('url'); $query = $this->db->query("UPDATE items SET name=".$this->db->escape($name).", price=".$this->db->escape($price).", currency=".$this->db->escape($curr),", url=".$this->db->escape($url)." WHERE pid=".$this->db->escape($pid)." LIMIT 1"); } header('location: '.$this->session->userdata('current')); } The purpose of this code is to modify the properties (name, price, currency, url) of a row in the 'items' table (priary key is pid). However, for some reason, allowing this function to run once modifies the name, price, currency and url of ALL entries in the table, regardless of their pid and of the LIMIT 1 thing I tacked on the end of the query. It's as if the last line of the query is being completely ignored. As if this wasn't strance enough, I replaced "$query = $this->db->query(" with an "echo" to see the SQL query being run, and it outputs a query much like I would expect: UPDATE items SET name='newname', price='newprice', currency='newcurrency', url='newurl' WHERE pid='10' LIMIT 1 Copy-pasting this into a MySQL window acts exactly as I want: it modifies the row with the selected pid. What is going on here???

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  • change postgres date format

    - by Jay
    Is there a way to change the default format of a date in Postgres? Normally when I query a Postgres database, dates come out as yyyy-mm-dd hh:mm:ss+tz, like 2011-02-21 11:30:00-05. But one particular program the dates come out yyyy-mm-dd hh:mm:ss.s, that is, there is no time zone and it shows tenths of a second. Apparently something is changing the default date format, but I don't know what or where. I don't think it's a server-side configuration parameter, because I can access the same database with a different program and I get the format with the timezone. I care because it appears to be ignoring my "set timezone" calls in addition to changing the format. All times come out EST. Additional info: If I write "select somedate from sometable" I get the "no timezone" format. But if I write "select to_char(somedate::timestamptz, 'yyyy-mm-dd hh24:mi:ss-tz')" then timezones work as I would expect. This really sounds to me like something is setting all timestamps to implicitly be "to_char(date::timestamp, 'yyyy-mm-dd hh24:mi:ss.m')". But I can't find anything in the documentation about how I would do this if I wanted to, nor can I find anything in the code that appears to do this. Though as I don't know what to look for, that doesn't prove much.

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  • Java Graphics not displaying on successive function calls, why?

    - by primehunter326
    Hi, I'm making a visualization for a BST implementation (I posted another question about it the other day). I've created a GUI which displays the viewing area and buttons. I've added code to the BST implementation to recursively traverse the tree, the function takes in coordinates along with the Graphics object which are initially passed in by the main GUI class. My idea was that I'd just have this function re-draw the tree after every update (add, delete, etc...), drawing a rectangle over everything first to "refresh" the viewing area. This also means I could alter the BST implementation (i.e by adding a balance operation) and it wouldn't affect the visualization. The issue I'm having is that the draw function only works the first time it is called, after that it doesn't display anything. I guess I don't fully understand how the Graphics object works since it doesn't behave the way I'd expect it to when getting passed/called from different functions. I know the getGraphics function has something to do with it. Relevant code: private void draw(){ Graphics g = vPanel.getGraphics(); tree.drawTree(g,ORIGIN,ORIGIN); } vPanel is what I'm drawing on private void drawTree(Graphics g, BinaryNode<AnyType> n, int x, int y){ if( n != null ){ drawTree(g, n.left, x-10,y+10 ); if(n.selected){ g.setColor(Color.blue); } else{ g.setColor(Color.gray); } g.fillOval(x,y,20,20); g.setColor(Color.black); g.drawString(n.element.toString(),x,y); drawTree(g,n.right, x+10,y+10); } } It is passed the root node when it is called by the public function. Do I have to have: Graphics g = vPanel.getGraphics(); ...within the drawTree function? This doesn't make sense!! Thanks for your help.

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  • Why isn't the pathspec magic :(exclude) excluding the files I specify from git log's output?

    - by Jubobs
    This is a follow-up to Ignore files in git log -p and is also related to Making 'git log' ignore changes for certain paths. I'm using Git 1.9.2. I'm trying to use the pathspec magic :(exclude) to specify that some patches should not be shown in the output of git log -p. However, patches that I want to exclude still show up in the output. Here is minimal working example that reproduces the situation: cd ~/Desktop mkdir test_exclude cd test_exclude git init mkdir testdir echo "my first cpp file" >testdir/test1.cpp echo "my first xml file" >testdir/test2.xml git add testdir/ git commit -m "added two test files" Now I want to show all patches in my history expect those corresponding to XML files in the testdir folder. Therefore, following VonC's answer, I run git log --patch -- . ":(exclude)testdir/*.xml" but the patch for my testdir/test2.xml file still shows up in the output: commit 37767da1ad4ad5a5c902dfa0c9b95351e8a3b0d9 Author: xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx Date: Mon Aug 18 12:23:56 2014 +0100 added two test files diff --git a/testdir/test1.cpp b/testdir/test1.cpp new file mode 100644 index 0000000..3a721aa --- /dev/null +++ b/testdir/test1.cpp @@ -0,0 +1 @@ +my first cpp file diff --git a/testdir/test2.xml b/testdir/test2.xml new file mode 100644 index 0000000..8b7ce86 --- /dev/null +++ b/testdir/test2.xml @@ -0,0 +1 @@ +my first xml file What am I doing wrong? What should I do to tell git log -p not to show the patch associated with all XML files in my testdir folder?

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  • Can a Snapshot transaction fail and only partially commit in a TransactionScope?

    - by Travis Brooks
    Greetings I stumbled onto a problem today that seems sort of impossible to me, but its happening...I'm calling some database code in c# that looks something like this: using(var tran = MyDataLayer.Transaction()) { MyDataLayer.ExecSproc(new SprocTheFirst(arg1, arg2)); MyDataLayer.CallSomethingThatEventuallyDoesLinqToSql(arg1, argEtc); tran.Commit(); } I've simplified this a bit for posting, but whats going on is MyDataLayer.Transaction() makes a TransactionScope with the IsolationLevel set to Snapshot and TransactionScopeOption set to Required. This code gets called hundreds of times a day, and almost always works perfectly. However after reviewing some data I discovered there are a handful of records created by "SprocTheFirst" but no corresponding data from "CallSomethingThatEventuallyDoesLinqToSql". The only way that records should exist in the tables I'm looking at is from SprocTheFirst, and its only ever called in this one function, so if its called and succeeded then I would expect CallSomethingThatEventuallyDoesLinqToSql would get called and succeed because its all in the same TransactionScope. Its theoretically possible that some other dev mucked around in the DB, but I don't think they have. We also log all exceptions, and I can find nothing unusual happening around the time that the records from SprocTheFirst were created. So, is it possible that a transaction, or more properly a declarative TransactionScope, with Snapshot isolation level can fail somehow and only partially commit?

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  • Convert Virtual Key Code to unicode string

    - by Joshua Weinberg
    I have some code I've been using to get the current keyboard layout and convert a virtual key code into a string. This works great in most situations, but I'm having trouble with some specific cases. The one that brought this to light is the accent key next to the backspace key on german QWERTZ keyboards. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:KB_Germany.svg That key generates the VK code I'd expect kVK_ANSI_Equal but when using a QWERTZ keyboard layout I get no description back. Its ending up as a dead key because its supposed to be composed with another key. Is there any way to catch these cases and do the proper conversion? My current code is below. TISInputSourceRef currentKeyboard = TISCopyCurrentKeyboardInputSource(); CFDataRef uchr = (CFDataRef)TISGetInputSourceProperty(currentKeyboard, kTISPropertyUnicodeKeyLayoutData); const UCKeyboardLayout *keyboardLayout = (const UCKeyboardLayout*)CFDataGetBytePtr(uchr); if(keyboardLayout) { UInt32 deadKeyState = 0; UniCharCount maxStringLength = 255; UniCharCount actualStringLength = 0; UniChar unicodeString[maxStringLength]; OSStatus status = UCKeyTranslate(keyboardLayout, keyCode, kUCKeyActionDown, 0, LMGetKbdType(), kUCKeyTranslateNoDeadKeysBit, &deadKeyState, maxStringLength, &actualStringLength, unicodeString); if(actualStringLength > 0 && status == noErr) return [[NSString stringWithCharacters:unicodeString length:(NSInteger)actualStringLength] uppercaseString]; }

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  • How to force my method to accept objects from external software?

    - by Roman
    I have a method which needs to take a callback object as an argument and then (at the moment when it's needed) my method will call a specific method of the callback object. I wrote a class called Manager which has a method called addListener. As the argument for this method I need to use a callback object which is defined by the external software. So, I define the addListener in the following way: public void addListener(Listener listener). Of course Eclipse complains because it does not know what Listener is (because the Listener is defined by the external software). The only think that I know (should know) about the Listener is that it has a method called doSomething. So, to pleasure Eclipse I add an interface before my Manager class: interface Listener { void doSomething(); } public class CTManager { ... The problem seems to be solved but then I try to test my software. So, I create a class called test. In this class I create an instance of the Manager class and try to use addListener method of this instance. I also create a class Listener, instantiate it and give the instance to the addListener. And it's the place where the problem appears. Eclipse writes that addListener is not applicable to the given argument. I think it's because it expect something from my Listenr interface but gets something from the Listener class. How can I solve this problem?

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  • Need help with an xpath query!

    - by gerrod
    Can anyone help with the following XPath question? Given the node-set: <table> <rows> <row> <value column="Product">Coal</value> <value column="Quantity">10000</value> </row> <row> <value column="Product">Iron</value> <value column="Quantity">5000</value> </row> <row> <value column="Product">Ore</value> <value column="Quantity">4000</value> </row> </rows> </table> I want to query to find the node sub-set with a given product name. Note that the product name is being supplied by an attribute of the current node being processed (i.e. "@name"). So when the @name attribute has the value of "Coal" I would expect this to be returned: <row> <value column="Product">Coal</value> <value column="Quantity">10000</value> </row> This is what I've come up with; I know it's wrong, because I don't get anything back. $table/rows/row[value[@column='Product'][text()=@name]] </code>

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  • Ruby - Writing Hpricot data to a file

    - by John
    Hey everyone, I am currently doing some XML parsing and I've chosen to use Hpricot because of it's ease of use and syntax, however I am running into some problems. I need to write a piece of XML data that I have found out to another file. However, when I do this the format is not preserved. For example, if the content should look like this: <dict> <key>item1</key><value>12345</value> <key>item2</key><value>67890</value> <key>item3</key><value>23456</value> </dict> And assuming that there are many entries like this in the document. I am iterating through the 'dict' items by using hpricot_element = Hpricot(xml_document_body) f = File.new('some_new_file.xml') (hpricot_element/:dict).each { |dict| f.write( dict.to_original_html ) } After using the above code, I would expect that the output look like the following exactly like the XML shown above. However to my surprise, the output of the file looks more like this: <dict>\n", " <key>item1</key><value>12345</value>\n", " <key>item2</key><value>67890</value>\n", " <key>item3</key><value>23456</value\n", " </dict> I've tried splitting at the "\n" characters and writing to the file one line at a time, but that didn't seem to work either as it did not recognize the "\n" characters. Any help is greatly appreciated. It might be a very simple solution, but I am having troubling finding it. Thanks!

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  • Benefits of "Don't Fragment" on TCP Packets?

    - by taspeotis
    One of our customers is having trouble submitting data from our application (on their PC) to a server (different geographical location). When sending packets under 1100 bytes everything works fine, but above this we see TCP retransmitting the packet every few seconds and getting no response. The packets we are using for testing are about 1400 bytes (but less than 1472). I can send an ICMP ping to www.google.com that is 1472 bytes and get a response (so it's not their router/first few hops). I found that our application sets the DF flag for these packets, and I believe a router along the way to the server has an MTU less than/equal to 1100 and dropping the packet. This affects 1 client in 5000, but since everybody's routes will be different this is expected. The data is a SOAP envelope and we expect a SOAP response back. I can't justify WHY we do it, the code to do this was written by a previous developer. So... Are there are benefits OR justification to setting the DF flag on TCP packets for application data? I can think of reasons it is needed for network diagnostics applications but not in our situation (we want the data to get to the endpoint, fragmented or not). One of our sysadmins said that it might have something to do with us using SSL, but as far as I know SSL is like a stream and regardless of fragmentation, as long as the stream is rebuilt at the end, there's no problem. If there's no good justification I will be changing the behaviour of our application. Thanks in advance.

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